all chapter worksheet for science class 10

all chapter worksheet for science class 10

1. KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN AHEMDABAD REGION
WORKSHEET- SCIENCE CLASS – X
CHAPTER 1 – CHEMICAL REACTION AND EQUATION
Q.1 Which of the following is true for a chemical change ?
a. The change cannot be easily reversed b. The change in energy occurs
c . New substance are formed d. All of the above
Q.2 Which of the following is not a physical change ?
a. Boiling of water to give water vapour b. Melting of ice to give water
c. Dissolution of salt in water d. Combustion of Liquefied petroleum Gas (LPG)
Q.3 A process in which heat is evolved is called ……………………… reaction.
Q.4 An unbalanced chemical equation violates law of …………………………. Of mass .
Q.5 …………………………………… is an example of chemical change
Q.6 ……………………………………… is an example of physical change .
Q.7 What is a combination reaction ? give one example .
Q.8 What is a balanced chemical equation ? Why should chemical equation be balanced ?
Q.9 Balance the following chemical equations .
a. HNO3 + Ca(OH)2 → Ca(NO3)2 + H2O b. NaCl + AgNO3 → AgCl + NaNO3
c. BaCl2 + H2SO4 → BaSO4 + HCl d. NaOH + H2SO4 → Na2SO4 + H2O
Q.10 . Why shold a magnesium ribbon be cleaned before burning in the air ?

1

2. KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN AHMEDABAD REGION
WORKSHEET - SCIENCE ( CLASS – X )
CHAPTER 1 – CHEMICAL REACTION AND EQUATION

Q.1 Identify ‘x’, ‘y’ and ‘z’ in the following reaction :

(a) x = gas; y = reaction condition; z = gas
(b) x = solid; y = liquid; z = gas
(c) x = number of moles of KClO3; y = reaction condition; z = number of
molecules of oxygen
(d) x = physical state of KClO3 and KCl;
y = reaction condition, z = physical state of O2.
Q.2 (a) State the law that is followed by balancing a chemical equation.
(b) Balance the following chemical equation: Na + H3O → NaOH + H2
Q.3 Write balanced chemical equations for the following chemical
reactions:
(a) Hydrogen + Chlorine → Hydrogen chloride
(b) Lead + Copper chloride → Lead chloride + Copper
(c) Zinc oxide + Carbon → Zinc + Carbon monoxide
Q.4 Calcium oxide reacts vigorously with water to produce slaked lime.
CaO(s) + H2O(l) → Ca(OH)2(aq)
This reaction can be classified as
(A) Combination reaction (B) Exothermic reaction
(C) Endothermic reaction (D) Oxidation reaction
Which of the following is a correct option?
(a) (A) and (C) (b) (C) and (D)
(c) (A), (C) and (D) (d) (A) and (B)
Q.5 Study the following equation of a chemical reaction: (Board Term 1,
2015)
H2 + Cl2 → 2HCl
(i) Identify the type of reaction.
(ii) Write a balanced chemical equation of another example of this type of
reaction.
Q.6 A compound ‘A’ is used in the manufacture of cement. When
dissolved in water, it evolves a large amount of heat and forms compound
‘B’.
(i) Identify A and B.
(ii) Write chemical equation for the reaction of A with water.
(iii) List two types of reaction in which this reaction may be classified.
2

3. Q.7 Mention the type of chemical reaction that takes place when: (Board
Term I, 2013)
(i) a magnesium ribbon is burnt in air.
(ii) limestone is heated.
(iii) silver bromide is exposed to sunlight.
(iv) electricity is passed through acidified water.
(v) ammonia and hydrogen chloride are mixed with each other.
Write the chemical equation for each reaction.
Q.8 Why are decomposition reactions called the opposite of combination
reactions? Write equations for these reactions.
Q.9 Which statements about the chemical reaction below are incorrect?-
2PbO(solid) + C(s) → 2Pb(s) + CO2(g)
(a) Lead is getting reduced
(b) Carbon Dioxide CO2 is getting oxidised
(c) Carbon is getting oxidised
(d) Lead oxide is getting reduced
(i) (a) and (b)
(ii) (a) and (c)
(iii) (a), (b) and (c)
(iv) all

Q.10 Balance the following chemical equations properly.
i) HNO3 + Ca(OH)2 → Ca(NO3)2 + H2O
ii) NaOH + H2SO4 → Na2SO4 + H2O
iii) NaCl + AgNO3 → AgCl + NaNO3
iv) BaCl2 + H2SO4 → BaSO4 + HCl


3

4. KENDRIYA VIDYLAYA SANGATHAN, AHMEDABAD REGION
CLASS 10 –SCIENCE WORKSHEET
CHAPTER 2- ACIDS,BASES AND SALTS

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1) Which one of the following can be used as an acid – base indicator by a visually
impaired student?
(A) Litmus (B) Turmeric (C) Vanilla essence (D) Petunia leaves
2) The formula of baking soda is
(A) NaCl (B) KHCO3 (C) NaHCO3 (D) Na2CO3
3) Rain is called acid rain when its:
(A) pH falls below 7 (C) pH falls below 5.6
(B) pH falls below 6 (D) pH is above 7
4) What is formed when zinc reacts with sodium hydroxide?
(A) Zinc hydroxide and sodium (C) Sodium zinc-oxide and hydrogen gas
(B) Sodium zincate and hydrogen gas (D) Sodium zincate and water
5) Which of the following statement is correct about an aqueous solution of an acid and of
a base?
(i) Higher the pH, stronger the acid
(ii) Higher the pH weaker the acid
(iii) Lower the pH, stronger the base
(iv) Lower the pH, weaker the base
(A) i & iii (B) ii & iii (C) I & iv (D) ii & iv

4

5. SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

6) You are given two solutions A and B. The pH of solution A is 6 and pH of solution B
is 8.
(a) Which solution is acidic and which is basic?
(b) Which solution has more H+ ion concentration?
(c) Why is HCl a stronger acid than acetic acid?
7) When zinc metal is treated with a dilute solution of a strong acid, a gas is evolved.
Name the gas evolved. Write the chemical equation of the reaction involved and also
write a test to detect the gas formed.
8) A gas X reacts with lime water and forms a compound Y which is used as bleaching
agent in the chemical industry. Identify X and Y. Give the chemical equation of the
reaction involved.
9) Choose the strong acids and weak acids from the following: CH3COOH, H2SO4,
H2CO3, HNO3.
10) A white coloured powder is used by doctors for supporting fractured bones.
(a) Write chemical name and formula of the powder.
(b) When this white powder is mixed with water a hard solid mass is obtained.
Write balanced chemical equation for the change.
11) 15 mL of water and 10 mL of Sulphuric acid are to be mixed in a beaker (i) State the
method that should be followed with reason. (ii)What is this process called?
12) A white powder is added while baking breads and cakes to make them soft and
fluffy. Write the name of the powder. Name its main ingredients. Explain the
function of each ingredient. Write the chemical reaction taking place when the
powder is heated during baking.
5

6. ASSERTION REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
The following questions consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is False but R is true

13) Assertion (A): The aqueous solutions of glucose and alcohol do not show acidic
character
Reason (R): Aqueous solutions of glucose and alcohol do not give H+ ions
14) Assertion (A): On heating, colour of hydrated copper sulphate changes from blue to
white.
Reason (R): On strong heating, Copper sulphate crystals lose all the water of
crystallization and form anhydrous salt.

CASE STUDY TYPE QUESTION
15) Rhea and Priyanka were playing in the garden. Rhea was stung by a bee and started
crying and returned home. Her mother immediately observed the affected area and
applied a thin coating of toothpaste as first aid, then took her to the nearest doctor.
(i) Why did Rhea cry?
(ii) Name the chemical substance present in bee sting.
(iii) How is toothpaste effective in such an incident?
(iv) What other household chemicals could Rhea`s mother have used in place of
toothpaste?




6

7. KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN, AHMEDABAD REGION
CLASS 10 –SCIENCE WORKSHEET
CHAPTER 2- ACIDS, BASES AND SALTS

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1) Which of the following salts has no water of crystallization?
(a) Copper sulphate (b) Washing soda (c) Baking soda (d) Gypsum
2) Tooth enamel is made of-
(a) Calcium hydroxide (b) Calcium phosphate
(c)Calcium oxide (d) Calcium carbonate
3) Which of the following does not form an acidic salt?
(a) Phosphoric acid (c) Hydrochloric acid
(b) Carbonic acid (d) Sulphuric acid
4) Increase in the OH– ion concentration, leads to
(a) an increase in the pH of solution
(b) a decrease in the pH of the solution
(c) doesn’t alter the pH of the solution
(d) decreases the basic strength of the solution
5) A teacher gave two test tubes to the students, one containing water and the other
containing sodium hydroxide. She asked them to identify the test tube containing
sodium hydroxide solution.
Which one of the following can be used for the identification?
7

8. (a) Blue litmus (c) Sodium carbonate solution
(b) Red litmus (d) copper sulphate solution
Short answer questions

6) Explain why
(a) Common salt becomes sticky during the rainy season
(b)If a bottle filled with concentrated Sulphuric acid is left open in the atmosphere by
accident, the acid starts flowing out of the bottle on it`s own
7) When electricity is passed through a common salt solution, sodium hydroxide is
produced along with the liberation of two gases ‘X’ and `Y`. The gas ‘X’ burns with a
pop sound whereas Y is used for disinfecting drinking water.
(a) Identify X and Y.
(b) Give the chemical equation for the reaction stated above.
(c) State the reaction of Y with dry slaked lime

8) A student dropped few pieces of marble in dilute hydrochloric acid, contained in a test-
tube. The evolved gas was then passed through lime water. What change would be
observed in lime water? What will happen if excess of gas is passed through lime
water? With the help of balanced chemical equations for all the changes explain the
observations
9) A white coloured powder is used by doctors for supporting fractured bones.
(a) Write chemical name and formula of the powder.
(b) When this white powder is mixed with water a hard solid mass is obtained. Write a
balanced chemical equation for the change

8

9. 10) State the chemical properties on which the following uses of baking soda are based:
(a) as an antacid
(b) as a soda acid fire extiguisher
(c) to make bread and cake soft and spongy
11) (a) Mention the pH range within which our body works. Explain.
(b) Fresh milk has a pH of 6. How does the pH will change as it turns to curd? Explain
your answer.
(c) A milkman adds a very small amount of baking soda to fresh milk. Why does this
milk take a longer time to set as curd?

12) State reason for the following statements:
(a) Tap water conducts electricity whereas distilled water does not.
(b) Dry hydrogen chloride gas does not turn blue litmus red whereas dilute
hydrochloric acid does
(c) Ammonia is a base but does not contain hydroxyl group

ASSERTION REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
13) Assertion (A): Water must always be added to acid with constant stirring.
Reason (R): Mixing of an acid with water decreases the concentration of H+ ions per
unit volume
14) Assertion (A): Baking powder is used in making cake instead of using only baking
soda.
Reason (R): Baking powder contains tartaric acid which reacts with sodium carbonate
and removes bitter taste.

15) CASE STUDY TYPE QUESTIONS
9

10. A copper vessel gets tarnished due to formation of an oxide layer on its surface. On
rubbing lemon on the vessel, the surface is cleaned, and the vessel begins to shine again.
This is due to the fact that the oxide formed reacts with the acid present in lemon to form a
salt which is washed away with water. As a result, the layer of copper oxide is removed
from the surface of the vessel and the shining surface is exposed

1) Which of the following acids is present lemon?
(a) Formic acid (b) Acetic acid (c) Citric acid (d) Hydrochloric acid

2) The nature of copper oxide is
(a) acidic (b) basic (c) neutral (d) amphoteric

3) Name the salt formed in the above reaction
(a) copper carbonate (c) copper citrate
(b) copper chloride (d) copper citrate

4) The phenomenon of copper getting tarnished is
(a) corrosion (b) rancidity (c) displacement (d)none of these.
10

11. KENDRIYA VIDYLAYA SANGATHAN, AHMEDABAD REGION
CLASS 10 –SCIENCE WORKSHEET
CHAPTER 3- METALS AND NON - METALS

 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1) Aluminium is used for making cooking utensils. Which of the following properties
of aluminium are responsible for the same?
(i) Good thermal conductivity (ii) Good electrical conductivity
(iii) Ductility (iv) High melting point

(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i) and (iv)
2) The ability of metals to be drawn into thin wires is known as
(a) ductility (b) malleability
(c) sonorousity (d) conducitivity
3) Phosphorous is a reactive _____________ and it is stored in __________
(a) Metal, water (b) Metal, kerosene
(c) Non-metal, water (d) Non-metal, kerosene
4) Which one of the following metals do not react with cold as well as hot water?
(a) Na (b) Ca (c) Mg (d) Au
5) Which one among the following is an acidic oxide?
(a) Na2O (b) CO (c) CO2 (d) Al2O3

 SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS
6) Write one example of each of
(a) A metal which is so soft that, it can be cut with knife and a non-metal which is
the hardest substance.
11

12. (b) A metal and a non-metal which exist as liquid at room temperature
7) Give reason for the following:
(a) School bells are made up of metals.
(b) Electric wires are made up of copper.
8 (a) Define reactivity series of metals. Arrange the metals gold, copper, iron and
magnesium in order of their increase in reactivity.
(b) What will you observe when:
(i) Some zinc pieces are put in copper sulphate solution.
(ii) Some silver pieces are put into green coloured ferrous sulphate solution
9) Name the element which shows non metal properties but is also placed in the
reactivity series of metals. Which non metallic properties does it show?
10) Explain the various methods of preventing rusting.
11) Explain the process of electrolytic refining of copper along with a labelled
diagram.
12) Differentiate between the processes of Roasting and Calcination during extraction
of metals

 ASSERTION REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
The following questions consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is False but R is true

13. Assertion (A): Aluminium is more reactive than iron. Its corrosion is less than that
of iron.
12

13. Reason (R): Aluminium is covered with a strong protective layer of oxide which
protects the metal from further corrosion
14. Assertion (A): Ionic compounds and solids are somewhat hard.
Reason (R): They are electrovalent compounds and have strong force of attraction
between oppositely charged ions.

 CASE STUDY TYPE QUESTION
15. On the basis of reactivity of different metals with oxygen, water and acids as well
as displacement reactions, the metals have been arranged in the decreasing order of
their reactivities. This arrangement is known as activity series or reactivity series of
metals. The basis of reactivity is the tendency of metals to lose electrons. If a metal can
lose electrons easily to form positive ions, it will react readily with other substances.
Therefore, it will be a reactive metal. On the other hand, if a metal loses electrons less
rapidly to form a positive ion, it will react slowly with other substances. Therefore,
such a metal will be less reactive.
i. Which of the following metal is less reactive than hydrogen?
(a) Copper (b) Zinc (c) Magnesium (d) Lead
ii. Which of the following represents the correct order of reactivity for the given
metals?
(a) Na>Mg>Al>Cu (b) Mg>Na>Al>Cu
(c) Na>Mg>Cu>Al (d) Mg > Al > Na > Cu
iii. Hydrogen gas is not evolved when a metal reacts with nitric acid. It is because
HNO, is a strong oxidising agent. It oxidises the H, produced to water and itself
gets reduced to any of the nitrogen oxides (N, O, NO, NO2). But _____________
and _____________ react with very dilute HNO3 to evolve H2 gas.
(a) Pb, Cu (b) Na, K
(c) Mg, Mn (d) Al, Zn
iv. Which of the following metals reacts vigorously with oxygen?
13

14. (a) Copper (b) Zinc (c) Sodium (d) Magnesium

14

15. KENDRIYA VIDYLAYA SANGATHAN,AHMEDABAD REGION
CLASS 10 –SCIENCE WORKSHEET
CHAPTER 3- METALS AND NON - METALS

 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. Which of the following can undergo a chemical reaction?
(a) MgSO4 +Fe (b) ZnSO4 + Fe
(c) MgSO4 + Pb (d) CuSO4 + Fe
2. Reaction between X and Y forms compound Z. X loses electrons and Y gains
electrons. Which of the following properties is not shown by Z?
(a) Has high melting point (b) Has low melting point
(c) Conducts electricity in molten state (d) Occurs as solid
3. An Aluminium strip is kept immersed in a freshly prepared ferrous sulphate solution
taken in a test tube, the change observed is that
(a) Green solution slowly gets decolourised with brown deposits.
(b) Lower end of the test tube becomes slightly warm
(c) A colourless gas with smell of burning sulphur is evolved
(d) Light green solution changes to blue
4. Which among the following statements is incorrect for magnesium metal?
(a) It burns in oxygen with a dazzling white flame.
(b) It reacts with cold water to form magnesium oxide and evolves hydrogen gas.
(c) It reacts with hot water to form magnesium hydroxide and evolves hydrogen gas.
(d) It reacts with steam to form magnesium hydroxide and evolves hydrogen gas.
5. An element A is soft and can be cut with a knife. It is very reactive in air and cannot
be kept in open. It reacts vigorously with water. Identify the element from the
following
(a) Mg (b) Na (c) P (d) Ca
15

16.  Short answer questions
6. Mention the names of the metals for the following properties:
(i) Two metals which are alloyed with iron to make stainless steel.
(ii) The metals which are used to make Brass.
7. Write two differences between calcination and roasting
8. Name the following:
(a) A metal, which is the most ductile.
(b) A lustrous coloured non-metal.
(c) A metal, which can melt while kept on palm.
(d) A metal, which is a poor conductor of heat.
9. Give reasons for the following:
(a) Aluminium oxide is considered as an amphoteric oxide.
(b) Ionic compounds conduct electricity in molten state.
10. Write a chemical equation to illustrate the use of Aluminium for joining cracked
railway lines. Also write the name of the reaction.
11. Name any one metal which reacts neither with cold water nor with hot water but
reacts with heated steam to produce hydrogen gas. Also write the reaction which
occurs.
12. A non-metal X exists in different forms Y and Z.Y is the hardest natural substance
while Z is a good conductor of electricity. Identify X, Y and Z.

 ASSERTION REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
The following questions consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
16

17. D. A is False but R is true
13. Assertion (A): Gas bubbles are observed when sodium carbonate is added to dilute
hydrochloric acid.
Reason (R): Carbon dioxide is given off in the reaction
14. Assertion (A): Silver becomes black in colour when exposed to the atmosphere
Reason (R): Silver reacts with H2S gas to form Ag2S which is black in colour

Case study question
Metals as we know, are very useful in all fields, industries in particular. Non-metals are
no less in any way. Oxygen present in air is essential for breathing as well as for
combustion. Non-metals form a large number of compounds which are extremely
useful, e.g., ammonia, nitric acid, sulphuric acid, etc. Non-metals are found to exist in
three states of matter. Only solid non-metals are expected to be hard however, they have
low density and are brittle. They usually have low melting and boiling points and are
poor conductors of electricity.
i.____________ is a non-metal essential to life
(a) Phosphorus (b) Sulphur (c) Bromine (d) Oxygen
ii. Which of the following is known as 'King of chemicals'?
(a) Urea (b) Ammonia (c) Sulphuric acid (d) Nitric acid
iii. Which of the following non-metals is gaseous in nature?
(a) Carbon (b) Bromine (c) Iodine (d) Sulphur
iv. Hydrogen is used
(a) for the synthesis of ammonia (b) for the synthesis of methyl alcohol
(c) nitrogenous fertilizers (d) all of these
17

18. Science
1 / 2
Time Allowed: 30 minutes Maximum Marks: 15
KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN
AHMEDABAD REGION
WORKSHEET (CARBON AND IT'S COMPOUNDS)
Class 10 - Science

Question No. 7 to 11 are based on the given text. Read the text carefully and answer the questions:
A series of organic compounds having the same functional group, with similar or almost identical chemical
characteristics in which all the members can be represented by the same general formula and the two consecutive
members of the series differ by —CH
2, group or 14 mass unit in their molecular formulae is called a homologous
series. For example, all the members of the alcohol family can be represented by the general formula, C
nH
2n+1OH
where, n may have the values 1, 2, 3, ... etc. The various members of a particular homologous series are called
[5]
a)(i) - (d), (ii) - (a), (iii) - (c), (iv) - (b)b)(i) - (b), (ii) - (d), (iii) - (a), (iv) - (c)
c)(i) - (c), (ii) - (b), (iii) - (d), (iv) - (a)d)(i) - (a), (ii) - (c), (iii) - (b), (iv) - (d)
1. Match the following with the correct response:
(i) The bond which holds cations and anions (a) Ionic
(ii) Self linking property of carbon (b) Pyridine
(iii) Denatured alcohol (c) Catenation
(iv) Synthetic detergents (d) Non-biodegradable
[1]
a)Evolution of brown fumes b)Evolution of a pungent smelling gas.
c)Brisk effervescence d)Production of a hissing sound
2. A few drops of ethanoic acid are added to solid sodium bicarbonate. Which of the following observations would
be observed?
[1]
3. Write the IUPAC names of the following:
(i) CH
3OH
(ii) CH
3COOH
[1]
4. Distinguish between esterification and saponification reactions with the help of chemical equations for each.
State one use of each:
i. Esters
ii. Saponification.
[2]
5. Write two tests you would perform to detect, whether the given colourless liquid is Acetic Acid or not.[2]
6. Fill in the blanks: [3]
Diamonds are used as drilling equipment because they are _______. [1](i)
The property of self combination is called ________. [1](ii)
_______ is the homologous series of the organic compounds of formula C
18H
36. [1](iii)
18

19. Science
2 / 2
homologues. The physical properties such as density, melting point, boiling point, solubility, etc. of the members of a
homologous series show almost regular variation in ascending or descending the series.
a)They possess varying chemical properties.b)Their formulae fit the general molecular
formula.
c)Their physical properties vary in regular and
predictable manner.
d)Adjacent members differ by one carbon and
two hydrogen atoms.
7. Which of the following is not a characteristic of members of a homologous series?
a)C
nH
2n-4 b)C
nH
2n-2
c)C
nH
2n d)C
nH
2n+2
8. All the members of homologous series of alkynes have the general formula
a)Option (b) b)Option (d)
c)Option (a) d)Option (c)
9. Which of the following statements is not correct?
a. A common functional group is present in different members of a homologous series.
b. Two consecutive members of a homologous series differ by a -CH
3 group.
c. The molecular mass of a compound in the series differs by 14 a.m.u. from that of its neighbour.
d. All the members of a homologous series have common general methods of preparation.
a)(I), (II), (III) and (IV) b)(I), (III) and (IV)
c)(II) and (III) d)(II) and (IV)
10. Identify the correct statements.
I. As the molecular mass increases in any homologous series, a gradation in physical properties is seen.
II. The melting and boiling points decrease with increasing molecular mass.
III. Other physical properties such as solubility in a particular solvent decrease with increasing molecular mass.
IV. The chemical properties, which are determined solely by the functional group, remain similar in a homologous series.
a)C
nH
2n+2OH b)C
nH
2nOH
c)C
nH
2n+2O d)C
nH
2nO
11. The table shows the formulae of three organic compounds that belong to the same homologous series.
First member of the homologous series CH
3-O-CH
3
Second member of the homologous series CH
3CH
2-O-CH
3
Third member of the homologous series CH
3CH
2CH
2-O-CH
3
What is the general formula of this series?
19

20. Science
1 / 2
Time Allowed: 30 minutes Maximum Marks: 15
KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN
AHMEDABAD REGION
WORKSHEET
Class 10 - Science

General Instructions:
Nil
a)hydrophobic head and a hydrophilic tailb)hydrophilic head and a hydrophobic tail
c)hydrophilic head and a hydrophilic taild)hydrophobic head and a hydrophobic tail
1. The soap molecule has a [1]
a)Statement A is true; Statement B is false.b)Statement B is true; Statement A is false.
c)Neither statement A nor statement B is true.d)Both the statements A and B are true.
2. Which of the given statement is correct or wrong:
Statement A: Detergent with less branching in the molecule is degraded more easily than branched-chain
detergents.
Statement B: Soaps are 100% biodegradable.
[1]
3. Name the functional group present in the compound
CH
3CH
2CH
2CH
2CHO
[1]
4. Name the functional groups present in the following compounds.
i. CH
3COCH
2CH
2CH
2CH
3
ii. CH
3CH
2CH
2COOH
iii. CH
3CH
2CH
2CH
2CHO
iv. CH
3CH
2OH
[1]
5. When ethanol reacts with ethanoic acid in the presence of conc. H
2SO
4, a substance with fruity smell is
produced Answer the following.
i. State the class of compounds to which the fruity smelling compounds belong. Write the chemical equation
for the reaction and write the chemical name of the product formed.
ii. State the role of conc. H
2SO
4 in this reaction.
[2]
6. A compound X is used in caugh syrups and many tonics. It is also soluble in water in all proportions.
i. Name the compound X. Write its chemical formula.
ii. Which gas is evolved when the compound X reacts with sodium? How will you identify the presence of this
gas? Write the chemical equation involved in reaction of X with sodium.
iii. Complete the following equation for X and identify Y.
[3]
X Y− →−−−−−−
Heat
Alk.KMnO
4
7. a. Complete the following reactions/chemical equations and name the main product formed in each case.[2]
20

21. Science
2 / 2
i. CH
3COOH + C
2H
5OH
ii. C
2H
5OH
b. List two reasons why carbon forms large number of compounds and are poor conductors of electricity?
−→−
Acid
− →−−−−−−
Heat(443K
ConcSH
2O
4
8. Fill in the blanks: [4]
There are ________ hexagonal rings in Buckminster fullerene. [1](i)
_______ is the general name of the class of compounds having general C
nH
2n–2. [1](ii)
Valency of carbon is _______. [1](iii)
The name of functional group present in CH
3 – CH = CH – CH
3 is ________. [1](iv)
21

22. KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN AHEMDABAD REGION
WORKSHEET- SCIENCE CLASS – X
CHAPTER 5 – LIFE PROCESSES
1. Name the following:
a. The process in plants that links light energy with chemical energy
b. Organisms that can prepare food on their own
c. The cell organelle where photosynthesis occurs
d. Cells that surround the stomatal pore
e. Organisms that cannot prepare their own food
f. An enzyme secreted from the gastric glands in the stomach that acts on proteins
2. _________ enzyme helps in digestion of starch in buccal cavity.
3. Which is the largest exocrine gland in the human body ?__________________
4. List a difference between pepsin and trypsin.

___________________________________________________ _____________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________
5. Multiple Choice Questions
(i) Which of the following is the correct equation for the summary of photosynthesis?
a. 6CO2 + 12H2O→ C6H12O6 +6O2 +6H2O
b. 6CO2 + H2O + sunlight→ C6H12O6 +O2 +6H2O
c. 6CO2 +12H2O +chlorophyll+ sunlight→ C6H12O6 +6O2 +6H2O
d. 6CO2 +12H2O chlorophyll+ sunlight →C6H12O6 +6O2 +6H2O
(ii) Products of anaerobic respiration in muscles are
a. Lactic acid and energy b. Lactic acid ,carbon dioxide and
energy
c. Lactic acid ,water ,carbon dioxide and energy d. Lactic acid , water , and energy
(iii) Which of the following statements are true about respiration
a. During inhalation , ribs move inward and diaphragm is raised
b. In alveoli exchange of gases takes place
c. Haemoglobin has greater affinity for carbon dioxide than oxygen
d. Alveoli increase the surface area for absorption of gases
i. a & d ii. b & c iii. a & c iv. b & d

6. The functional unit of kidney is ___________.
22

23. KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN AHEMDABAD REGION
WORKSHEET- SCIENCE CLASS – X
CHAPTER 5 – LIFE PROCESSES
1. The main function of the urinary bladder is to
a. control the pressure of urine in the urinary bladder
b. take the urine from the kidney to the urinary bladder
c. filter blood and remove the urine
d. connect the parts of the excretory system
2. Name two water conducting tissues in plants._____________________________________
3. What will happen if the diaphragm of a person will get ruptured in an accident ?
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________
4. __________ prevents the backflow of blood in heart.
5. _________________________ is the only artery which carries deoxygenated blood.
6. ______________________in trachea prevent it from collapse when air is not passing through it.
7. Due to the formation of _______________, cramps are felt in muscles after physical activity.
8. What is peristalsis?
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________
9. The process of digestion in human being is completed in______________.
10. The bile juice is__________in nature. It is produce by ____________ and stored in
__________________.
11. The energy is stored in the form of __________ in plants and _____________ in animals.
12. The rate of breathing is faster in aquatic organism as compared to terrestrial organisms as there
is less amount of ________________________ in water.
13. Name the areas in a woody stem through which respiratory exchange of gases take place.
14. Write any two significance of lymph in our body?
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
23

24. KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN AHEMDABAD REGION
WORKSHEET- SCIENCE CLASS – X
CHAPTER 6 – CONTROL AND COORDINATION
1. Roots grow downward as a ________response.
A. Positive geotropic B. Positive phototropic
C. Negative geotropic D. All of these
2. Which plant hormone is also called as growth inhibitor?
A. auxin B. gibberellins C. abscisic acid D. ascorbic acid
3. Electrical impulse travels in a neuron from
(a) Dendrite → axon → axonal end → cell body
(b) Cell body → dendrite → axon → axonal end
(c) Dendrite → cell body → axon → axonal end
(d) Axonal end → axon → cell body → dendrite
4. In a neuron, the conversion of electrical signal to a chemical signal occurs at/in
(a) cell body (b) axonal end (c) dendritic end (d) axon
5. Which is the correct sequence of the components of a reflex arc?
(a) Receptors→ Muscles→ Sensory neuron→ Motor neuron→ Spinal cord
(b) Receptors→ Motor neuron → Spinal cord → Sensory neuron → Muscle
(c) Receptors → Spinal cord → Sensory neuron → Motor neuron → Muscle
(d) Receptors → Sensory neuron → Spinal cord → Motor neuron → Muscle
6. Which of the following statements is true about the brain?
(i) The main thinking part of the brain is the hindbrain
(ii) Centres of hearing, smell, memory, sight etc., are located in the forebrain.
(iii) Involuntary actions like salivation, vomiting, and blood pressure are controlled by the medulla in
the hindbrain
(iv) Cerebellum does not control the posture and balance of the body
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i), (ii) and (iii) (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (iii) and (iv)
7. The junction between two neurons is called _________.
8. Name the plant hormones responsible for the following
(a) elongation of cells ____________ (b) growth of stem______________
(c) promotion of cell division__________ (d) falling of senescent leaves._____________
9. Iodine deficiency will affect the formation of __________ hormone.
24

25. KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN AHEMDABAD REGION
WORKSHEET- SCIENCE CLASS – X
CHAPTER 6 – CONTROL AND COORDINATION
1. Label the parts (a), (b), (c) and (d) and show the direction of the flow of electrical signals in Fig 7.2


2. Label the endocrine glands in Figure 7.3.

3. In Figure 7.4 (a), (b) and (c), which appears more accurate and why?

4. Label the parts of a neuron in given figure. Write function of any one part.

5. Answer the following :
(a) Which hormone is responsible for the changes noticed in females at puberty?
(b) Dwarfism results due to deficiency of which hormone?
(c) Blood sugar level rises due to deficiency of which hormone?
(d) Iodine is necessary for the synthesis of which hormone?
(e) Name the endocrine gland associated with the brain.
(f) Which gland secretes digestive enzymes as well as hormones?
(g) Name the endocrine gland associated with kidneys.
(h) Which endocrine gland is present in males but not in females?
25

26. KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN
AHMEDABAD REGION
Worksheet-1
Class - X
Subject – Science
Chapter - How do Organisms Reproduce

SECTION- A (MCQ – 1 MARK EACH)
1. The two oviducts in a human female unite into an elastic bag like is known as
a. Vagina b. Uterus c. Fallopian tube d. Cervix
2. Which of the following disease is transmitted sexually?
a. Kala azar b. Jaundice c. Cholera d. Syphilis
3. Which of the following is a contraceptive?
a. Copper t b. Condom c. Diaphragm d. All of these
4. When an animal is cut into pieces and each piece grows into a complex
organism. What is the process?
a. Budding b. Fragmentation c. Spore formation d. Regeneration
5. Which is the portion on which grafting is done it provides the roots?
a. Stock b. Scion c. Both a and b d. None of these
SECTION- B (Short Answer– 2 MARK EACH)
6.Give two reasons for the appearance of variations among the off springs formed by
sexual reproduction.
7.How is process of pollination different from fertilization?
SECTION- C (Short answer – 3 MARK EACH)
8.Name the surgical methods of birth control in human males and females respectively.
9.Reproduction is one of the most important characteristics of living beings. Give three
reasons in support of the statement.
SECTION- D (Long answer – 5 MARK EACH)
10.Read the passage and answer the questions given below.
Case Study :
When a girl is born, the ovaries already contain thousands of immature eggs. On
reaching puberty, some of these start maturing. One egg is produced every month by
one of the ovaries. The egg is carried from the ovary to the womb through a thin oviduct
or fallopian tube. The two oviducts unite into an elastic bag-like structure known as the
uterus. The uterus opens into the vagina through the cervix.
i) What is fertilization?
ii) Where does fertilization occur?
iii) What is placenta?
iv) What are the different parts of female reproductive system?
v) What happens when egg is not fertilized?
26

27. KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN
AHMEDABAD REGION
Worksheet -2
Class - X
Subject – Science
Chapter - How do Organisms Reproduce

SECTION- A (MCQ – 1 MARK EACH)
1. Where does fertilization occur in human females?
a. Uterus b. Cervix c. Oviduct d. None of these
2. Growing foetus derive nutrition from mother’s blood through
a. Uterus b. Fallopian tube c. placenta d. cervix
3. What is the puberty age in human males?
a. 8-10 b. 10-12 c. 12-14 d. 14-16
4. Fruits are formed from
a. Stamen b. Stigma c. Ovary d. Ovule
5. IUCD is for
a. Vegetative propagation b. Contraception
c. Increasing fertility d. Avoiding miscarriage

SECTION- B ( Short answer -2 MARK EACH)
6.Draw in sequence (showing the four stages), the process of binary fission
in Amoeba.
7.Define reproduction. How does it helps in providing stability to the population of
species?
SECTION- C ( Short answer - 3 MARK EACH)
8.Label the parts marked 1,2,3,4 and 5 in given figure.
27

28. 9.How does the embryo get nourishment inside the mother’s body?
SECTION- D ( Long answer - 5 MARK EACH)

10.Given below are certain situations. Analyze and describe its possible impact on a
person:
a) Testes of a male boy are not able to descend into scrotum during his embryonic
development.
b) Vas deferens of a man is plugged.
c) Prostate and seminal vesicles are not functional.
d) Egg is not fertilised in a human female.
e) Placenta does not attach to the uterus optimally.

28

29. Science
1 / 2
Time Allowed: 30 minutes Maximum Marks: 15
KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN
AHMEDABAD REGION
WORKSHEET (HEREDITY AND EV OLUTION)
Class 10 - Science

Question No. 8 to 11 are based on the given text. Read the text carefully and answer the questions:
Mendel crossed tall and dwarf pea plants to study the inheritance of one gene. He collected the seeds produced as a
result of this cross and grew them to generate plants of the first hybrid generation which is called the first filial progeny
or F
1 Mendel then self-pollinated the tall F
1 plants and he obtained F
2 generation.
[4]
a)Both maternal & Paternal DNA b)Paternal DNA only
c)Neither maternal nor paternal DNA. d)Maternal DNA only
1. A trait in an organism is influenced by [1]
a)1-C, 2-B, 3-D, 4-A b)1-A, 2-C, 3-B, 4-D
c)1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C d)1-D, 2-A, 3-C, 4-B
2. Match the following with correct response.
(1) Phenotype (A) Gene complement of an individual
(2) Genotype (B) Factor which cannot express its effect
(3) Dominant factor (C) Factor which can express its effect
(4) Recessive factor (D) Observable characteristics
[1]
3. Match the following:
(a) Homologous organs (i) father of genetics
(b) Analogous organs (ii) isolated DNA from ous cells
(c) F. Meisher (iii) wing of bird and insect
(d) Mendel (iv) our teeth and elephant's tusk
[2]
4. Name the molecule having information for making proteins in the cell. [1]
5. Genes are the unit of inheritance, what makes them necessary for all organisms? [1]
6. i. 'Males are heterogametic'. Why?
ii. Differentiate between inherited and acquired characters by giving two points.
[2]
7. A pea plant with purple flowers were crossed with white flowers producing 40 plants with only purple flowers.
On selfing, these plants produced 470 plants with purple flowers and 162 with white flowers. What genetic
mechanism account for these results.
[3]
8. In garden peas, the round shape of the seeds is dominant over the wrinkled shape. A pea plant heterozygous for the round
shape of seed is selfed and 1600 seeds produced during the cross are subsequently germinated. How many seedlings
29

30. Science
2 / 2
would have a non-parental phenotype?
9. If A’ represents the dominant gene and ‘a represents its recessive allele, which of the following would be the most likely
result in the first generation offspring when Aa is crossed with aa?
10. What result Mendel would have got if he self-pollinated a homozygous tall F
2 plant?
11. In plants, the tall phenotype is dominant over the dwarf phenotype, and the alleles are designated as T and t, respectively.
Upon crossing one tall and one dwarf plant, a total of 250 plants were obtained, out of which 124 displayed tall
phenotype and rest were dwarf. Then, What would be the genotype of the parent plants?
30

31. Science
1 / 2
Time Allowed: 30 minutes Maximum Marks: 15
KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN
AHMEDABAD REGION
WORKSHEET (HEREDITY AND EV OLUTION)
Class 10 - Science

Question No. 8 to 11 are based on the given text. Read the text carefully and answer the questions:
Mendel crossed tall and dwarf pea plants to study the inheritance of one gene. He collected the seeds produced as a
result of this cross and grew them to generate plants of the first hybrid generation which is called the first filial progeny
or F
1 Mendel then self-pollinated the tall F
1 plants and he obtained F
2 generation.
[4]
a)Both maternal & Paternal DNA b)Paternal DNA only
c)Neither maternal nor paternal DNA. d)Maternal DNA only
1. A trait in an organism is influenced by [1]
a)1-C, 2-B, 3-D, 4-A b)1-A, 2-C, 3-B, 4-D
c)1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C d)1-D, 2-A, 3-C, 4-B
2. Match the following with correct response.
(1) Phenotype (A) Gene complement of an individual
(2) Genotype (B) Factor which cannot express its effect
(3) Dominant factor (C) Factor which can express its effect
(4) Recessive factor (D) Observable characteristics
[1]
3. Match the following:
(a) Homologous organs (i) father of genetics
(b) Analogous organs (ii) isolated DNA from ous cells
(c) F. Meisher (iii) wing of bird and insect
(d) Mendel (iv) our teeth and elephant's tusk
[2]
4. Name the molecule having information for making proteins in the cell. [1]
5. Genes are the unit of inheritance, what makes them necessary for all organisms? [1]
6. i. 'Males are heterogametic'. Why?
ii. Differentiate between inherited and acquired characters by giving two points.
[2]
7. A pea plant with purple flowers were crossed with white flowers producing 40 plants with only purple flowers.
On selfing, these plants produced 470 plants with purple flowers and 162 with white flowers. What genetic
mechanism account for these results.
[3]
8. In garden peas, the round shape of the seeds is dominant over the wrinkled shape. A pea plant heterozygous for the round
shape of seed is selfed and 1600 seeds produced during the cross are subsequently germinated. How many seedlings
31

32. Science
2 / 2
would have a non-parental phenotype?
9. If A’ represents the dominant gene and ‘a represents its recessive allele, which of the following would be the most likely
result in the first generation offspring when Aa is crossed with aa?
10. What result Mendel would have got if he self-pollinated a homozygous tall F
2 plant?
11. In plants, the tall phenotype is dominant over the dwarf phenotype, and the alleles are designated as T and t, respectively.
Upon crossing one tall and one dwarf plant, a total of 250 plants were obtained, out of which 124 displayed tall
phenotype and rest were dwarf. Then, What would be the genotype of the parent plants?
32

33. KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN AHEMDABAD REGION
WORKSHEET- SCIENCE CLASS – X
CHAPTER – LIGHT:REFLECTION AND REFRACTION
Q1-MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
(i) In which of the following is a concave mirror used ?
(a) A solar cooker
(b) A rear view mirror in the vehicles.
(c) A safety mirror in shopping malls
(d) In viewing full size image of distant tall buildings.
(ii) A student wants to obtain magnified image of an object AB as on a Screen. Which
one of the following arrangements shows the correct position of AB for him/her to be
successful?



(iii)Which of the following lenses would you prefer to use while reading small letters
found in a dictionary
(a) A convex lens of focal length 50 cm.
(b) A concave lens of focal length 50 cm.
(c) A convex lens of focal length 5 cm.
(d) A concave lens of focal length 5 cm
(iv)The radius of curvature of a mirror is 20 cm the focal length is
(a)20cm
(b)10cm
©40cm
(d)5cm

(v) When light enters from air to glass, which of the following changes:
A .Wavelength
B. Velocity
C. Frequency
D. Amplitude
(a) A and D
(b) B and C
33

34. ©A and C
(d)A,B and D

Q2- Give the answers briefly (VSA)

(i) Where is the image formed when an object is at large distance from a
concave mirror ?
(ii) Magnification of a plane mirror is m=+1.What does m=1 and positive sign
signify?
(iii) Define power of a lens.
(iv) State the two laws of reflection of light.
Q3- Give the answers of the following questions (short answer type)
(i) -Find the absolute refractive index of a medium in which light travels with a
speed of 1.4x10
8
m/s
- How do we distinguish a medium to be a rarer or denser ? Give two
reasons.
(ii) Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of image of an object placed
between the pole and Principal focus of a concave mirror. How will the
nature and size of the image formed change ,if the mirror is replaced by
converging lens of same focal length.
Q4- An object 4.0cm in size, is placed 25.0cm in front of a concave mirror of focal
length 15.0cm.
(a) At what distance from the mirror should a screen be placed in order to obtain
a screen in order to obtain a sharp image?
(b) Find the size of the image
(c) Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of image in this case.
34

35. KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN AHEMDABAD REGION
WORKSHEET- SCIENCE CLASS – X
CHAPTER – LIGHT : REFLECTION AND REFRACTION
-MCQ Questions-
Q1-The unit of Power of lens is
(a) Metre (b) Centimetre (c) Diopter (d) m
-1

Q2- When a plane mirror is rotated through a certain angle, the reflected ray turns
through twice as much and the size of the image:
(a) is doubled
(b) is halved
(c) becomes infinite
(d) remains the same
Q3) Which statement is true for the reflection of light?
(a) The angle of incidence and reflection are equal.
(b) The reflected light is less bright than the incident light.
(c) The sum of the angle of incidence and reflection is always greater than 90
0
.
(d) The beams of the incident light, after reflection, diverge at unequal angles.
Q4) The focal length of a plane mirror is
(a) 0
(b) infinite
(c) 25 cm
(d) -25 cm
Q5-The image shows the path of incident rays to a concave mirror.

Where would the reflected rays meet for the image formation to take place?
(a) Behind the mirror
35

36. (b) Between F and O
(c) Between C and F
(d) Beyond C
Q6) Rahul conducts an experiment using an object of height of 10 cm and a
concave lens with a focal length of 20 cm. The object is placed at a distance of 25
cm from the lens. Can the image be formed on a screen?
(a) Yes, as the image formed will be real
(b) Yes, as the image formed will be erect
(c) No, as the image formed will be virtual
(d) No, as the image formed will be inverted
Q7)The image of an object placed in front of a convex mirror is formed at
(a) the object itself
(b) twice the distance of the object in front of the mirror
(c) half the distance of the object in front of the mirror
(d) behind the mirror
QII-Answer the questions briefly(VSA)
Q1. Draw a ray diagram to show the refraction of light through a glass prism. Mark
on it
(a) the incident ray
(b) the emergent ray
(c) the angle of deviation.
Q2 What is meant by spectrum? How can we combine the components of white light
after a prism has separated them?
Q3- 3 cm high object is placed at a distance of 80cm from a concave lens of focal
length 20cm. Find the size of the image formed.
Q4-A concave mirror produces three times magnified (enlarged) real image of an
object placed at 10cm in front of it .Where is the image located?
Q5- Find the focal length of a lens-2.0D.What type of lens is this?
36

37. KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN AHEMDABAD REGION
WORKSHEET- SCIENCE CLASS – X
CHAPTER – HUMAN EYE AND THE COLOURFUL WORLD
Q(I) MCQ QUESTIONS -
Q1-The least distance vision for a young adult with normal vision is about
(a)25m (b) 2.5cm (c) 25cm (d) 2.5m
Q2-The human eye forms an image of an object on its
(a) Cornea (b) iris (c) Pupil (d) Retina
Q3-The human eye can focus objects at different distance by adjusting the focal
length of the eye lens.This is due to
(a) Presbyopia
(b) Accommodation
(c) Near-sightedness
(d) Far-sightedness
Q4- The eye defect Hypermetropia can be corrected by using a
(a) Plano convex lens
(b) Double convex lens
(c) Plano concave lens
(d) Double concave lens
Q5-Assertion(A).The sky appears dark to people flying at high altitudes.
Reason(R).A rainbow is a natural spectrum which occurs after a shower.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true.
QII-Very short Answer type Questions:
Q6-Why does the sun appear reddish at sunrise?
Q7- Write the function of iris in the human eye.
Q8- State one function of the crystalline lens in human eye.
QIII-Short Answer type question;
Q9-(a)What is Presbyopia? State the cause of presbyopia. How is presbyopia of a
person corrected?
Q10-Explain why the planets do not twinkle?
37

38. KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN AHEMDABAD REGION
WORKSHEET- SCIENCE CLASS – X
CHAPTER – HUMAN EYE AND THE COLOURFUL WORLD
Q(I) MCQ
Q1) A person went for a medical check-up and found that the curvature of his
eye lens was increasing. Which defect is he likely to suffer from?
(a) Myopia
(b) Cataract
(c) Presbyopia
(d) Hypermetropia
Q2) When light rays enter the eye, most of the refraction occurs at the
(a) Crystalline lens
(b) The outer surface of the cornea
(c) Iris
(d) Pupil
Q3) In which part of the human eye is the image of an object formed?
(a) Iris
(b) Pupil
(c) Retina
(d) Cornea
Q4)Which of the following phenomena of light are involved in the formation of
a rainbow?
(a) Reflection, refraction and dispersion
(b) Refraction, dispersion and total internal reflection
(c) Refraction, dispersion and internal reflection
(d) Dispersion, scattering and total internal reflection
Q5)The image shows a light ray incident on a glass prism.
38

39. The various angles are labelled in the image. Which angle shows the angle of
incidence and angle of refraction, respectively?
(a) A and D
(b) B and E
(c) C and F
(d) D and F
Q6) The deflection of light by minute particles and molecules of the
atmosphere in all directions is called ____________ of light.
(a) dispersion
(b) scattering
(c) interference
(d) Tyndall effect
Q7)When white light enters a glass prism from the air, the angle of deviation is
least for
(a) blue light
(b) yellow light
(c) violet light
(d) red light
Q(II)-Very short answer questions-
Q8-The Tyndall effect is the scattering of light by ………………
Q9 Which colour is refracted the most when white light is dispersed from a prism?
39

40. Q10- Why does the sun appear yellowish-white at noon?
Q11- What is the Tyndall effect?
Q12-What are Myopia and Hypermetropia?
Q(III) Long Answer questions
Q13-Explain the structure and function of the human eye with a neat labelled
diagram.



40

41. KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN (AHMEDABAD REGION)
CLASS-10 SUBJECT- SCIENCE (086)
WORKSHEET(ELECTRICITY)
TIME-30 Min. MM-20

NAME_________________ ROLL NO.
General instructions.
1. All questions are compulsory.
2. Marks are given against each questi on.
Q.1 The SI unit of electrical power is
(a) kilowatt (b) watt (c) joule (d) joule/s
1
Q.2 The resistance of the conductor depends on
(a) length of the conductor (b) area of cross section of the
conductor
(c) nature of the material of the conductor (d) all of the above
1
Q.3 In series combination, which of the following remains constant
(a) voltage (b) resistance c) resistivity (d) current
1
Q.4 The commercial unit of electrical energy is
(a) joule (b) kW (c) kWh (d) W
1
Q.5 The resistance of a conductor is directly proportional to:
(a) Its area of cross-section (b) density
(c) melting point (d) length
1
Q.6 (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

Assertion (A) : When the resistances are connected between the same
two points, they are said to be connected in parallel.
Reason (R) : In case the total resistance is to be decreased, then the
individual resistances are connected in parallel.

1
Q.7 Assertion (A) : The fuse is placed in series with the device.
Reason (R) : Fuse consists of a piece of wire made of a metal or an alloy
of appropriate melting point.

1
Q.8 State Ohm’s law?

Ans._______________________________________________________
1
Q.9 Write the SI unit of resistivity.

Ans._______________________________________________________
1
Q.10 What is the difference between a conductor and an insulator?

Ans._______________________________________________________
1
41

42. Q.11 List in a tabular form two difference between ammeter and voltmeter.


Ammeter Voltmeter



2
Q.12 Draw a circuit diagram showing series combination of resistors.






2
Q.13 Match the following column A & B
COLUMN- A COLUMN- B

3
Q.14 Name the components in given blanks




3

42

43. KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN (AHMEDABAD REGION)
CLASS-10 SUBJECT- SCIENCE (086)
WORKSHEET(ELECTRICITY)
TIME-30 Min. MM-20

NAME_________________ ROLL NO.
General instructions.
1. All questions are compulsory.
2. Marks are given against each questi on.
Q.1 The resistance whose V – I graph is given below is

(a) 5/3 Ω (b) 3/5 Ω (c) 5/2 Ω (d) 2/5 Ω
1
Q.2 Which of the following terms does not represent electrical power in a
circuit?
(a) I
2
R (b) IR
2
(c) VI (d) V
2
/R
1
Q.3 Electrical resistivity of a given metallic wire does not depend upon
(a) its length (b) its thickness (c) its shape (d) nature of the material
1
Q.4 The image shows a combination of 4 resistors.

What is the net resistance between the two points in the circuit?
(a) 0.5 Ω (b) 1.0 Ω (c) 1.5 Ω (d) 2.0 Ω
1
Q.5 For a circuit diagram given below, the total current flowing in the circuit
is: -

(a) 0.1 A (b) 0.2 A (c) 2.0 A (d) 1.0 A
1
Q.6 (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Assertion(A): Alternating Current is used in household supply.
Reason (R) : AC electric power can be transmitted over long distances
without much loss of energy.
1
Q.7 Assertion (A) : Alloys are commonly used in electrical heating devices,
like electrical iron,
toasters etc.
Reason (R) : Alloys do not oxidise (burn) readily at high temperatures.
1
43

44. Q.8 Name a device that helps to maintain a potential difference across a
conductor.
Ans._______________________________________________________
1
Q.9 Define the unit of current.
Ans._______________________________________________________
1
Q.10 What is the resistance of an ideal ammeter?
Ans._______________________________________________________
1
Q.11 Name the physical quantity whose unit is J/C.
Ans._______________________________________________________
1
Q.12 Fill in the blanks...............
(a.)The resistance of the conducting wire is _______ proportional to the
area of cross section of the conducting wire.
(b.)The resistivity of the alloys is ______ than the resistivity of the
metals.
(c.)In series combination of resistors, the effective resistance is _____
than each individual resistance of the resistor connected in series.
(d.)The bulb filaments are made from the strong metal____________.
(e.)In domestic wiring, _____________________ combination is used.
1x5
=5
Q.13 Distinguish between short circuiting and overloading.

Short circuiting Overloading.





2
Q.14 On what factor does the resistance of a conductor depend?


1.____________________________________________________________________________________________


2.____________________________________________________________________________________________


3.____________________________________________________________________________________________


4.____________________________________________________________________________________________




2

44

45. KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN (AHMEDABAD REGION)
CLASS-10 SUBJECT- SCIENCE (086)
WORKSHEET(MAGNETIC EFFECT OF ELECTRIC CURRENT )
TIME-30 Min. MM-20

NAME_____________ ____ ROLL NO.
General instructions.
1. All questions are compulsory.
2. Marks are given against each question.
Q.1 What happens to the current in short circuit?
(a) reduces substantially (b)does not change
(c)increases heavily (d) vary continuously
1
Q.2 What is electromagnetic induction?
(a) the process of charging a body
(b) The process of rotating a coil of an electric motor.
(c) producing induced current in a coil due to relative motion between
a magnet and the coil
(d)The process of generating magnetic field due to a current passing
through a coil.
1
Q.3 Inside the magnet, the field lines moves
(a) from north to south (b) from south the north
(c) away from south pole (d) away from north pole
1
Q.4 By which instrument, the presence of magnetic field be determined?
(a) Magnetic Needle (b) Ammeter (c) Galvanometer (d) Voltmeter
1
Q.5 The nature of magnetic field line passing through the centre of current
carrying circular loop is
(a) circular (b) ellipse (c) parabolic (d) straight line
1
Q.6 Who has stated the Right hand Thumb Rule?
(a) Orsted (b) Fleming (c) Einstein (d) Maxwell
1
Q.7 A positive charge is moving upwards in a magnetic field directed towards
north. The particle will be deflected towards
(a) west (b) north (c) south (d) east
1
Q.8 If the key in the given arrangement is taken out (the circuit is made
open) and magnetic field lines are drawn over the horizontal plane ABCD,
the lines are

(a) concentric circles
(b) elliptical in shape
(c) straight lines parallel to each other
(d) concentric circles near the point O but of elliptical shapes as we go
away from it
1
Q.9 Magnetic field is the _____ quantity
(a) Scalar (b) Tensor (c) Vector (d) Both a and b
1
Q.10 Two magnetic field lines______ each other
(a) Intersects each other (b) Not intersect each other
(c) Cross each other (d) None

1
45

46. Q.11 Q-11,12 Following questions consist of two statements –
Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these questions selecting the
appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Assertion(A) : The strength of the magnetic field produced at the centre
of a current carrying circular coil increases on increasing the number of
turns of the circular coil.
Reason (R) : Magnetic field strength is directly proportional to the
number of turns of the circular coil.
1
Q.12 Assertion(A) : On freely suspending a current-carrying solenoid, it
comes to rest in N-S direction just like a bar magnet.
Reason (R) : One end of current carrying straight solenoid behaves as a
North pole and the other end as a South pole.
1
Q.13 Which effect of electric current is utilized in the working of an electric
fuse?
Ans______________________________________________________

1
Q.14 Explain why, two magnetic lines of force do not intersect.
Ans.____________________________ ___________________________
__________________________________________________________
1
Q.15 Draw a bar magnet and indicate both the poles.




2
Q.16 Draw a labelled diagram of Solenoid.



2
Q.17 Distinguish between a bar magnet and an electromagnet.
Bar magnet Electromagnet.










2

46

47. KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN (AHMEDABAD REGION)
CLASS-10 SUBJECT- SCIENCE (086)
WORKSHEET(MAGNETIC EFFECT OF ELECTRIC CURRENT )
TIME-30 Min. MM-20

NAME_________________ ROLL NO.
General instructions.
1. All questions are compulsory.
2. Marks are given against each question.
Q.1 Two magnetic field lines:
(a) Intersect at the neutral point (b) Never intersect each other
(c) Intersect near north-pole or south pole (d) Intersect at the midpoint
of the magnet
1
Q.2 A student places some iron filings around a magnet. The iron fillings
arrange themselves as shown in the image.

The student labelled four different regions around the magnet. Where
would the magnetic field be the strongest?
(a) P (b) Q (c) R (d) S
1
Q.3 Which device produces the electric current?
(a) generator (b) Galvanometer (c) Ammeter (d) motor
1
Q.4 What happens to the current in short circuit?
(a) reduces substantially (b)does not change
(c) increases heavily (d) vary continuously
1
Q.5 Which of the following is the SI unit of magnetic field?
(a) Joule (b) Volt (c) Ampere (d) Tesla
1
Q.6 Which of the following sentences is correct about Overloading?
(a) Overloading can occur due to an accidental hike in the supply voltage
(b) Overloading is caused by connecting too many appliances to a single
socket
(c)Overloading can occur when the live wire and the neutral wire come
into direct contact.
(d)All of these
1
Q.7 Which of the following organs in the human body where the magnetic
field produced is significant?
(a) Lungs, brain (b) Volt (c) Heart, brain (d) Liver, heart
1
Q.8 An electric current always produces a magnetic field’ , The above
statement is
(a)partially false (b)true (c)partially true (d)false
1
Q.9 Find the incorrect statement
(a) A wire with a red insulation is usually the neutral wire of an electric
supply.
(b) Field lines emerge from the south pole and merge at north pole.
(c) Magnetic field lines can intersect each other.
(d) All of these
1
47

48. Q.10 You have a coil and a bar magnet, you can produce an electric current
by moving-
(a)Neither the magnet nor the coil. (b)The magnet, but not the coil
(c)Either the magnet or the coil or both (d)The coil, but not the magnet.

1
Q.11 Concentric circles with arrows centred at the wire AB are shown in figure.

(a)no current in AB (b)current flows from B to A
(c)current – flows from A to B (d)none of these
1
Q.12 In which position the force on conductor is maximum when it uniform
magnetic field? is placed
Ans._______________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________
1
Q.13 Can 5A fuse be used in wire carrying 15 A current? Why?
Ans.______________________________________________________

1
Q.14 According to Flemings right hand rule, which part of right hand indicate
the movement of conductor?
Ans______________________________________________________

1
Q.15 If the no. of turns of a circular current carrying coil are doubled, then
how will the magnetic field produced by it changes?
Ans.______________________________________________ ______
1
Q.16 Explain why, two magnetic lines of force do not intersect.
Ans.____________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________
1
Q.17 Why is a fuse wire made of a tin-lead alloy and not copper?
Ans._________________________________________________________ ___
______________________________________________________________
1
Q.18 Define the term induced electric current.
Ans.____________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
1
Q.19 Write one application of Fleming’s left hand rule.
Ans.___________________________________________________________
1
Q.20 Draw the magnetic field lines around a magnet.



1

48

49. KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN
AHMEDABAD REGION
Worksheet-1
Class - X
Subject – Science
Chapter – Our environment
Question 1.Disposable plastic plates should not be used because
(a) they are made of materials with light weight
(b) they are made of toxic materials
(c) they are made of biodegradable materials
(d) they are made of non-biodegradable materials

Question 2.In the following groups of materials, which group (s) contains only non-
biodegradable items?
(i) Wood, paper, leather
(ii) Polythene, detergent, PVC
(iii) Plastic, detergent, grass
(iv) Plastic, bakelite, DDT
(a) (iii)
(b) (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (iii)

Question 3.Which group of organisms are not constituents of a food chain?
(i) Grass, lion, rabbit, wolf
(ii) Plankton, man, fish, grasshopper
(iii) Wolf, grass, snake, tiger
(iv) Frog, snake, eagle, grass, grasshopper
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (i) and (iv)

Question 4.Excessive exposure of humans to U V-rays results in
(i) damage to immune system
(ii) damage to lungs
(iii) skin cancer
(iv) peptic ulcers
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (iii)
Question 5. What percentage of solar energy is trapped and utilized by plants?
a. 1% b. 10% c. 5% d. 2%
49

50. Question 6.Study the food chain given below and answer the questions that follow:


a) If the amount of energy available at the third tropic level is 100 joules, then how
much energy will be available at the producer level? Justify your answer.
b) Is it possible to have 2 more tropic levels in this food chain just before the fourth
tropic level? Justify your answer.
Question 7.What will happen if all the deers are removed in the given food chain?
Plants → deers → tigers
Question 8.What is biological magnification? Will the levels of the magnification be
different at different levels of the ecosystem?
Question 9.If all the waste we generate is biodegradable, will this have no impact on the
environment?
Question 10. Construct an ideal pyramid of energy when 1,000,000 joules of sunlight is
available. Label all its trophic levels.










50

51. KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN
AHMEDABAD REGION
Worksheet-2
Class - X
Subject – Science
Chapter – Our environment
Question 1. Environment includes
a) Land, air, water b) Light, temperature, rainfall
c) Plants, animals, microbes d) All of these
Question 2. Which is of these not Natural Ecosystem?
a. Gardens b. Aquariums c. ponds d. Lakes
Question 3. What is the order of the waste management hierarchy, from most to least favoured?
a) Prevention-Recycle-Reuse-Disposal b) Prevention-Reuse-Disposal-Recycle
c) Prevention-Disposal-Reuse-Recycle d) Prevention-Reuse-Recycle-Disposal
Question 4. If a grass hopper is eaten by a frog, then the energy transfer will be from
(a) producer to decomposer (b) producer to primary consumer
(c) primary consumer to secondary consumer (d) secondary consumer to primary consumer
Question 5. Flow of energy in an ecosystem is always
(a) unidirectional (b) bidirectional (c) multi directional (d) no specific direction
Question 6. What is the role of decomposers in the ecosystem?
Question 7.What will happen if we kill all the organisms in one trophic level?
Question 8.We are an integral part of the environment. Changes in the environment affect us
and our activities change the environment around us.
Question 9. Read the passage and the answer questions given below.
Ozone (O3 ) is a molecule formed by three atoms of oxygen. While O2 , which we normally refer
to as oxygen, is essential for all aerobic forms of life. Ozone, is a deadly poison. However, at the
higher levels of the atmosphere, ozone performs an essential function. It shields the surface of
the earth from ultraviolet (UV) radiation from the Sun.
i) How does ozone is formed?
ii) In which layer of atmosphere does ozone is present?
iii) What are the causes for ozone depletion?
iv) Write the chemical reaction for the formation of ozone?
v) What are the effects of UV radiations?
51