[A6] Accounting for Lessee
Example
Journal Entry for first 4 years
W.N.3 : ‘Right-of-use’ Asset
Solution
W.N.2
LPs 10,000 p.a. (end of year)
LT 4 years
Life of underlying asse
t
10 years
The asset will be tr
ansferred to ‘E’ after end of LT
provided LPs are not due.
Implicit Interest Rate of Lease
10% p.a.
W.N.S: PV of LPs disc. at ITR (IIR) Year
LPs D.F. 10% PV
1 10,000 0.909 -
2 10,000 0.826 -
3 10,000 0.751 -
4 10,000 0.683 -
EPV of LPs =31699 or 31700 approx
Lease Liability (LL) {Amortisation T
able}
Year
OP+ Interest (10%)- LPs= Balance
I 31,700 3,170 10,000 24,870
II 24,870 2,487 10,000 17,357
III 17,357 1,735 10,000 9,092
IV 9,092 908* 10,000 NIL
*909 rounded to 908
I.R. on DOC = Initial Recognition value of LL = 31,700
Depr
eciation p.a. = Cost – RV 31,700 – 0=
10 years life
= 3,170
(assuming SLM & RV is NIL)
Year I Year II Year III Year IV
1. R-O-U Asset Dr. 31,700 x x x
To LL 31,700 x x x
2. Interest Expense Dr. 3170 2487 1735 908
To LL 3170 2487 1735 908
3. LL Dr. 10,000 10,000 10,000 10,000
To Bank 10,000 10,000 10,000 10,000
4. Depreciation Dr. 3170 3170 3170 3170
To R-O-U Asset 3170 3170 3170 3170
5. Profit & Loss Dr. 6340 5657 4905 4078
To Interest 3170 2487 1735 908
To Depreciation 3170 3170 3170 3170
1. Recognised on DOC 2. Initial value of Lease Liability =
PV of Lease payments that are
pending payments on DOC (IR)
3.
PV
Discount factor Discount factor is the implicit
interest rate. If not available
then the incremental
borrowing rate for the lessee.
4. IRR Calculated from ‘R’ viewpoint
IRR is a rate which equals:
P
V of (LPs + RV
to lessor
(unguaranteed))
Fair value
of asset
for users
= Initial
direct cost
of lessor
+ Accounting for lessee L1: Lease Liability: IR: Book of Lessee
Accounting of ‘LL’ Accounting of ROU Asset L
L.1 R.1 L.2 R.2
R
Example:
Aircraft FV to lessor 50 crores
Initial br
okerage on purchase
2 crores borne by ‘R’ LP
s Fixed LP20 crores p.a.
(arrears), 3 years + Guaranteed RV by lessee
1 crores
+ UGRV expected by lessor
additional
1.5 crores
Solution:
Accounting books of lessee
W.N.1: IR,
PV of 20 crores for 3 years + 1 crore after
= FV of Asset / 50 crores + R’s 1DC 2 crores
= 20 x AF 3 year x% + 2.5 x PV 3rd x% = 50 + 2
= 52 = 20 x AF 3 year x% + 2.5 x PV 3rd x%
Using Interpolation: Say x is 10% p.a., RHS
20 x 2.4869 + 2.5 0.7513
49.73 + 1.88 = 51.60
x is 9% p.a., RHS 50.63 + 1.93 = 52.56
x % = LR + V
LR – VD x (HR – LR)
=9% + 52.56 – 52
52.56 – 51.60
x (10 – 9)%
= 9.58%, say 9.6% p.a.
V
LR - VHR
+ 1.5 crores
after 3 year
s
(UGRV)
3 years
(LPs)