MCQ 1.powerpoint presentation pptx in pharmacology
kavyanshiverma75
39 views
32 slides
Oct 08, 2024
Slide 1 of 32
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
31
32
About This Presentation
good
Size: 71.72 KB
Language: en
Added: Oct 08, 2024
Slides: 32 pages
Slide Content
MCQ
1. Which of the following vaccines is administered at birth? A. BCG B. OPV C. Hepatitis B D. All of the above
2. At what age is the first dose of DPT vaccine typically administered? A. At birth B. 6 weeks C. 9 months D. 12 months
3. Which of the following is a contraindication for live vaccines? A. Immunosuppression B. Asthma C. Mild cold D. Allergy to eggs
4. How many doses of the Rotavirus vaccine are recommended in the National Immunization Schedule of India? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
5. Which of the following vaccines is recommended during pregnancy? A. BCG B. Rubella C. Tetanus toxoid D. Measles
6. The second dose of the MMR vaccine is typically given at what age? A. 6 months B. 9 months C. 12 months D. 16-24 months
7. Which of the following vaccines protects against bacterial meningitis? A. Hepatitis B B . Pneumococcal C. DTP D. Rotavirus
8. The pentavalent vaccine includes all of the following except: A. Diphtheria B. Hepatitis B C. Haemophilus influenzae type B D. Mumps
9. Which of the following is a live attenuated vaccine? A. BCG B. Inactivated polio vaccine C. DTP D. Hepatitis B
10. At what age should the HPV vaccine be ideally administered? A. At birth B. 9-14 years C. 2 years D. 6 months
11. Which of the following conditions is a contraindication for administering the live attenuated varicella vaccine? A. Previous anaphylaxis to gelatin B. Family history of epilepsy C. History of chickenpox D. Mild illness with fever
12. The fractional inactivated polio vaccine ( fIPV ) was introduced in India's immunization schedule to enhance the immune response. At what age is the fIPV first administered? A. 6 weeks B. 9 months C. 14 weeks D. 16-24 months
13. Which of the following vaccines is recommended for high-risk adults, including healthcare workers, but not routinely given to children in most national immunization schedules? A. Hepatitis A B. Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV) C. Yellow fever D. Influenza
14. What is the minimum interval between doses of the hepatitis B vaccine for the primary series in infants? A. 2 weeks B. 4 weeks C. 6 weeks D. 8 weeks
15. Which of the following vaccines requires a booster dose after 10 years to maintain immunity? A. HPV vaccine B. Measles, Mumps, Rubella (MMR) C. Tetanus and diphtheria (Td) D. Varicella
16. In case of a delayed primary vaccination schedule, which of the following vaccines does not require restarting the series from the beginning, but rather continuing from where it was interrupted? A. DPT B. Oral polio vaccine (OPV) C. Hepatitis B D. All of the above
17. Which of the following is NOT included in the combination DTaP- HepB -IPV vaccine? A. Diphtheria B. Pertussis C. Measles D. Hepatitis B
18. The HPV vaccine protects against which types of cancer? A. Cervical and oral cancer B. Cervical, oropharyngeal, and anal cancer C. Cervical and lung cancer D. Cervical and liver cancer
19. Which of the following vaccines is not administered intramuscularly? A. Hepatitis B B . Inactivated polio vaccine (IPV) C. MMR D. DTP
20. What is the recommended dose of oral polio vaccine (OPV) for newborns in the first immunization? A. 2 drops B. 4 drops C. 0.5 mL D. 1 mL
21. The first dose of the Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccine (PCV) is typically given at: A. 6 weeks B. 9 months C. 12 months D. 2 years
22. Which of the following statements about the Hepatitis A vaccine is correct? A. It is administered as a single dose B. It is a live attenuated vaccine C. It is only recommended for children under 5 years D. It requires two doses, six months apart
23. What is the correct storage temperature for most vaccines in the immunization schedule? A. 2°C to 8°C B. -15°C to -20°C C. 0°C to 2°C D. Room temperature
24.Which of the following is the first-line drug used in the treatment of tuberculosis (TB)? A. Ciprofloxacin B. Amikacin C. Rifampicin D. Linezolid
25. What is the mechanism of action of Rifampicin? A. Inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis B. Inhibits mycolic acid synthesis C. Inhibits DNA-dependent RNA polymerase D. Inhibits protein synthesis
26.Which of the following is a second-line anti-TB drug? A. Isoniazid B. Levofloxacin C. Rifampicin D. Ethambutol
27.Directly observed therapy (DOT) is recommended for TB treatment to: A. Prevent drug resistance B. Decrease cost of treatment C. Reduce adverse drug effects D. Prevent reinfection
28. Which of the following is the drug of choice for multibacillary leprosy? A. Rifampicin B. Dapsone C. Clofazimine D. Ofloxacin
29. Which of the following is a common adverse effect of Dapsone? A. Hemolysis B. Hepatotoxicity C. Optic neuritis D. Orange discoloration of body fluids
30.Which of the following antileprosy drugs is bactericidal? A. Dapsone B. Clofazimine C. Rifampicin D. Ethionamide