100 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQS) for trainees 2009.doc

100 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQS) for trainees 2009

1. 1- A 1-year-old presents with a round, well-demarcated mass at the super
temporal rim. The lesion has been present since birth. The most likely
diagnosis is:
A- Rhabdomyosarcoma
B- Neurofibroma
C- Dermoid cyst
D- Capillary hemangioma
E- Metastatic Ewing sarcoma
2- A 40-year-old woman presents with a progressively enlarging clear cystic
mass along the eyelid margin. The most likely diagnosis is:
A- Epidermal inclusion cyst
B- Apocrine hidrocystoma
C- Syringoma
D- Trichofolliculoma
E- Basal cell carcinoma
3- Which of the following is the most common primary malignancy of the
eyelid?
A- Basal cell carcinoma
B- Squamous cell carcinoma
C- Sebaceous carcinoma
D- Melanoma
E- Kaposi sarcoma
4- Xanthelasma is associated with hyperlipidemia in:
A.10%
B.20%
C.33%
D.50%
E.70%
5- In a patient with laceration to the upper lid, all are TRUE, EXCEPT:
A.the presence of fat herniation indicates the orbital septum is penetrated
B.the presence of lacrimal gland indicates the orbital septum is penetrated
C.the orbital septum should be resutured if penetrated
D.in the presence of ptosis, early repair is recommended
E.ptosis is usually caused by damage to the levator aponeurosis
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2. 6- Features of eyelid keratoacanthoma include all the following EXCEPT:
A.Malignant transformation in 50% of cases
B.Loss of eyelashes
C.Rapid growth
D.Ulcerated surface filled with keratin
E.Spontaneous resolution
 
7- The following are contributory factors in senile (involution) entropion
EXCEPT:
A.Atrophy of the orbital fat
B.Migration of the preseptal orbicularis over the pretarsal muscle
C.Dehiscence of the lower lid retractor
D.Horizontal lower lid laxity
E.Fat herniation through the orbital septum
8- Upper lid retraction may be seen in all the following EXCEPT:
A.Grave's eye disease
B.An eye with contralateral ptosis
C.Heart failure
D.Hydrocephalus in children
E.Parinaud's syndrome
9- TRUE statements about eyelid lesions include all the following EXCEPT:
A.Basal cell carcinoma affects the upper lid more commonly than the lower
lid
B.Recurrent follicular conjunctivitis can be the result of molluscum
contagiosum
C.Keratoacanthoma can resolve spontaneously without treatment
D.Sebaceous cell carcinoma has a worse prognosis than squamous cell
carcinoma
E.Basal cell carcinoma is common in patients with xeroderma pigmentosa
 
10- In blepharochalasis, all the following are TRUE, EXCEPT:
A.The condition begins in teenage years
B.There are recurrent lid oedema
C.There are levator disinsertion
D.The condition is associated with Ascher's syndrome
E.Treatment is blepharoplasty
 
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3. 11- In Blepharophimosis, one is FALSE:
A.Is an autosomal dominant condition
B.Epicanthus inversus is a feature
C.Has nasal bridge hypoplasia
D.Has hypertelorism
E.Is associated with mental retardation
12- All of the following types of entropion are known EXCEPT:
A.Spastic entropion
B.Senile entropion
C.Paralytic entropion
D.Cicatricial entropion
13- Six hours after a bilateral blepharoplasty, the patient complains of
sudden pain near the right eye. The dressings are removed and the right
eyelids are tense and ecchymotic. The first step would be to:
A- Open the wound to release a possible retrobulbar hemorrhage
B- Consider the possibility of a cavernous sinus thrombosis and check
corneal sensation
C- Measure visual acuity and check pupillary responses
D- Begin treatment with ice packs
E- Begin treatment with warm compresses
14- A 3-year-old girl bitten by a dog, had a 6 mm-wide block of upper eyelid
margin hanging by a thread of tissue, leaving a defect in the upper eyelid
of approximately the same size. The best treatment is to:
A- Send the block to pathology and repair the defect by approximation
B- Send the block to pathology and repair the defect by making a lateral
canthotomy and approximation
C- Repair the eyelid by sewing the block into its normal anatomic position
D- Send the block to pathology and repair the defect by a transfer of tissue
from the lower eyelid
E- Keep the block under refrigeration for later use if necessary and close the
defect by approximation and lateral canthotomy
15- With regard to ptosis, one is FALSE:
A.The most common abnormality in congenital ptosis is in the levator muscle
B.Lid lag on down gaze is a feature of senile ptosis
C.In Horner's syndrome, ptosis is due to paralysis of the Muller's muscle
D.The levator function is good in aponeurotic defect
E.In congenital ptosis the levator muscle can neither relax nor contract.
 
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4. 16- The most important determinant in selecting a corrective procedure for
any type of ptosis is:
A- Vertical height of the palpebral fissure
B- Age of the patient
C- Amount of levator function
D- Duration of the ptosis
E- Position of the upper eyelid margin relative to the corneal limbus
17- Risk factors for developing basal cell carcinoma include all of the
following, EXCEPT:
A- History of smoking
B- Excessive sun exposure in the first two decades of life
C- Brown irides
D- Blond hair
E- Living in areas that receive high levels of UV radiation from the sun
18- A 74-year-old woman presents with a 2-year history of a painless,
progressively enlarging mass in the central aspect of the upper eyelid.
This has resulted in distortion of the eyelid margin and loss of eyelashes.
The most likely diagnosis is:
A- Sebaceous gland carcinoma
B- Squamous cell carcinoma
C- Amelanotic melanoma
D- Basal cell carcinoma
E- Dermal nevus
19- Entropion repair of the lower eyelid may utilize any of the following
techniques EXCEPT:
A- Lower eyelid retractor advancement
B- Lateral canthal tightening
C- Taping of the eyelid
D- Mucous membrane grafting to the posterior eyelid
E- Skin grafting
20- Essential blepharospasm is usually characterized by all of the following
EXCEPT:
A- Unilaterality
B- Age of onset usually over 50 years
C- Visual incapacitation
D- Obscure etiology
E- Involuntary spasms of the orbicularis muscle
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5. 21- In congenital obstruction of the nasolacrimal duct, one is TRUE:
A.The success rate of probing at 12 months of age is about 60%
B.85% of the cases are bilateral
C.The blockage is found most commonly at the common canaliculus
D.In congenital dacryocystocele, the skin is usually inflamed and hot
E.In congenital dacryocystocele, the sac contains amniotic fluid
 
22- The following are TRUE about chronic canaliculitis caused by
Actinomyces EXCEPT:
A.It is the most common cause of chronic canaliculitis
B.This infection is caused by a fungus
C.Bloody tear is a feature
D.Syringing is usually normal despite epiphora
E.Debridment is the treatment of choice
23- A 75-year-old woman complains of tearing and discharge. Irrigation of the
lower canaliculus produces mucopurulent reflux. All of the following are
TRUE, EXCEPT:
A- Jones testing will not reveal dye in the nose.
B- There is probably a common canalicular block.
C- The condition is not likely to resolve with a course of antibiotics.
D- The most likely diagnosis is a lacrimal duct obstruction.
E- The correct treatment is dacryocystorhinostomy.
24- A 14-month-old child has had tearing and discharge from the right eye
since birth. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A- Dye disappearance testing is likely to show no asymmetry.
B- This condition is likely to resolve spontaneously.
C- The appropriate treatment is nasolacrimal duct probing.
D- Punctal abnormalities are likely to be the cause.
E- Jones I and Jones II tests are necessary to make the diagnosis.
25- Acquired canalicular obstruction is associated with all the following
EXCEPT:
A.Steroids
B.Trauma
C.Probing
D.5 FU
E.Pemphigoid
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6. 26- Compared to CT scanning, MRI scanning provides better:
A- View of bone and calcium
B- View of the orbital apex and orbitocranial junction
C- Elimination of motion artifact
D- Comfort for claustrophobic patients
E- Safety to patients with prosthetic implants
27- Which is NOT a histological pattern of orbital rhabdomyosarcoma in the
current classification?
A- Embryonal
B- Pleomorphic
C- Alveolar
D- Differentiated
E- Botryoid
28- In ADULTS, the most common intraocular malignant tumor, and most
common site of involvement are:
A- Melanoma, choroid
B- Metastasis, iris
C- Melanoma, iris
D- Metastasis, choroid
E- Neuroblastoma, orbital tissue
29- Which of the following statements about pleomorphic adenoma of the
lacrimal gland is FALSE?
A- It can recur in a diffuse manner.
B- It can transform to a malignant tumor if present long enough.
C- Recurrences can transform to malignancy.
D- It can resolve spontaneously.
E- Calcification is rare
30- Subperiosteal abscess of the orbit in ADULTS is more likely than in
children to:
A- Drain spontaneously
B- Respond to single antibiotic therapy
C- Be polymicrobial
D- Arise from the ethmoid sinus
E- Arise from acute sinusitis
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7. 31- A 65-year-old woman presents with a progressively enlarging mass in the
right inferior orbit. Distraction of the lower eyelid reveals a “salmon
patch” appearance to the fornix. The most likely diagnosis is:
A- Reactive lymphoid hyperplasia
B- Lymphoma
C- Sebaceous carcinoma
D- Melanoma
E- Apocrine hidrocystoma
32- The most common location for orbital lymphoma is:
A- The extraocular muscles
B- Retro-orbital fat
C- Lacrimal fossa
D- Orbital apex
E- Orbital floor
33- A biopsy report of an orbital mass states the following “reactive lymphoid
hyperplasia.” The appropriate treatment is:
A- Systemic steroids
B- Radiation with a dose of 1500–2000 cGy
C- Systemic chemotherapy
D- Complete surgical excision
E- Cryotherapy
34- The majority of orbital lymphomas:
A- Are polyclonal proliferations
B- Are T-cell tumors
C- Are systemic at presentation
D- Are well differentiated
E- Involve both orbits
35- The management of rhabdomyosarcoma of the orbit usually involves:
A- Lumbar puncture to rule out central nervous system metastasis
B- Exenteration of the orbit
C- Enucleation and orbital radiation
D- Systemic chemotherapy and orbital radiation
E- Radical neck dissection if cervical lymph nodes are involved
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8. 36- All of the following are TRUE regarding optic nerve tumors EXCEPT:
A- Optic nerve glioma in children is associated with neurofibromatosis type 1.
B- Optic nerve meningioma in children is associated with neurofibromatosis
type 2.
C- Radiation therapy is an accepted therapy for optic nerve sheath
meningioma.
D- Optic nerve glioma of childhood can be malignant.
E- Radiation therapy is an accepted therapy for optic nerve glioma.
37- Acute proptosis may be due to:
A.Trauma
B.Orbital cellulitis
C.Rhabdomyosarcoma
D. Cavernous sinus thrombosis
E. All of the above
38- All of the following are causes of lagophthalmos EXCEPT:
A.Facial nerve palsy
B.Proptosis
C.Cicatricial ectropion
D.Third nerve paralysis
39- All of the following are TRUE regarding orbital cellulites, EXCEPT:
A- Most cases are associated with an underlying sinusitis.
B- Infections in children tend to be single organism.
C- Subperiosteal abscesses, especially in children, require drainage.
D- After initiation of appropriate antibiotic therapy a subperiosteal abscess
may enlarge before responding
40- In Orbital cellulites, one is TRUE:
A.Blunt trauma is a common cause
B.Most common causative agent is Pseudomonas Aurogenosa
C.Ultrasound for subperiosteal abscess
D.Conjunctival swab reveals positive organisms
E.Presence of contralateral proptosis is evidence for Cavernous Sinus
thrombosis
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9. 41- In the evaluation of a CHILD with unilateral exophthalmos, which
assumption is CORRECT?
A- Cavernous hemangiomas are among the most common benign orbital
tumors in children.
B- Thyroid ophthalmopathy is the most common cause of unilateral
exophthalmos among children.
C- Neurofibroma is the malignant tumor that most commonly produces
exophthalmos among children.
D- Optic nerve meningiomas are more common than gliomas in children.
E- None of the above
42- TRUE statements about cavernous haemangioma include all the
following EXCEPT:
A.It is commoner is female than male
B.Spontaneous resolution is rare
C.It is well encapsulated
D.Retinal striae is a recognized sign
E.The proptosis increases with Valsalva's maneuver
 
43- The most common site for secondary metastasis to the globe is:
A.Choroid
B.retina
C.conjunctiva
D.iris
E.vitreous
44- Enophthalmos may be due to:
A.Trauma
B.Cachexia
C.Post radiotherapy
D.Secondary's of breast scirrhus carcinoma
E.All of the above
45- Indications for repair of orbital blowout fracture include all of the
following, EXCEPT:
A- Cosmetically unacceptable enophthalmos
B- Fractures involving more than half of the orbital floor
C- Inferior rectus weakness
D- Pain and oculocardiac reflex on upgaze
E- Significant inferior rectus entrapment
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10. 46- A “blow-out” fracture of the orbital floor can result in all the following
EXCEPT:
A.Diplopia
B.Delayed exophthalmos
C.Paraesthesia in the distribution of the infraorbital nerve
D.Depression of the globe
E.Limited elevation
47- Lid retraction is a characteristic sign of which of the following:
A.Acute facial nerve palsy
B.Myasthenia gravis
C.Thyrotoxicosis
D.Myotonic dystrophy
E.Diabetic third cranial nerve palsy
48- Which of the following signs is most likely to be present in a patient with
Graves’ ophthalmopathy?
A- Exophthalmos
B- External ophthalmoplegia
C- Eyelid retraction
D- Optic neuropathy
49- Thyroid eye disease is exacerbated by all the following EXCEPT:
A.Radio-iodine treatment of hyperthyroidism
B.Development of hypothyroidism after treatment of hyperthyroidism
C.Smoking
D.Male sex
E.Presence of diabetes mellitus
 
50- Upper eyelid retraction in thyroid eye disease is caused by all the
following EXCEPT:
A.Adrenergic stimulation of the Muller's muscle
B.Superior oblique muscle fibrosis
C.Inferior rectus fibrosis
D.Fibrosis of the levator
E.Overaction of the superior rectus/levator complex
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11.  
51- Thyroid eye disease. All the following are TRUE, EXCEPT:
A.Is seen in 40% of patients with Graves' disease
B.Does not occur in Hashimoto's thyroiditis
C.Is not a feature of thyroid cancer
D.Tends to peak 6 months from onset
E.Usually ceases to be active 18 months after onset
 
52- The following are TRUE about the radiological features of thyroid eye
disease EXCEPT:
A.Inferior rectus is the extraocular muscle most often involved
B.The tendon of the affected muscle is not involved
C.Medial rectus enlargement is more likely than inferior rectus enlargement
in causing compressive optic neuropathy
D.Oedema of the extraocular muscle is best diagnosis with B-scan
E.STIR (short-tau inversion recovery) sequence MRI is useful in assessing
the activity of thyroid eye disease
53- The following are TRUE about thyroid eye disease EXCEPT:
A.The orbital tissue is infiltrated by T-cells during the active phase
B.When performing orbital decompression for optic neuropathy, the medial
wall should be removed
C.Lacrimal gland prolapse is common
D.Bicoronal flap is the best approach for orbital decompression
E.Diplopia is a common complication of orbital decompression
54- The majority of orbital lymphomas. One of the following is TRUE:
A- Are polyclonal proliferations
B- Are T-cell tumors
C- Are systemic at presentation
D- Are well differentiated
E- Involve both orbits
55- The matching of the following diseases and their HLA association are
TRUE, EXCEPT:
A.Sympathetic ophthalmitis HLA-A11
B.Par planitis HLA-DR2
C.Cicatricial pemphigoid HLA-B5
D.Posner-Schlosmann syndrome HLA-BW5
E.Vogt-Koyanagi-Harada HLA-B22
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12. 56- One of the following is TRUE about active ocular toxoplasmosis:
A.The antibodies are always present
B.The central nervous system should be evaluated for toxoplasmosis in all
immunocompromised patients
C.Indocyanine green can be used to detect clinically invisible active satellite
lesions
D.The border of the lesion is sharply defined
E.It is the commonest cause of retinitis in AIDS patients
57- In ocular toxocarisis, one is TRUE:
A.A history of visceral larva migrans is always present
B.Examination of the patient's stool is useful in diagnosing the disease
C.Bilateral ocular involvement should make one doubt the accuracy of the
diagnosis
D.Ultrasound of the granuloma typically shows calcification
E.Oral thiabendazole is useful
58- In juvenile chronic arthritis-related uveitis, one is TRUE:
A.The uveitis is usually granulomatous
B.The eyes are typically white
C.Uveitis usually precedes arthritis
D.It is associated with positive rheumatoid factor
E.Cystoid macular oedema is an important cause of poor vision
59- With regard to cataract in juvenile chronic arthritis, one is TRUE:
A.Cataract should not be performed before the patients is 8 year-old
B.Operation should be performed only when the anterior chamber is free of
flare
C.Removal of the cataract should never be combined with anterior
vitrectomy
D.Hypotony is a known post-operative complication in these patients
E.Only heparin-coated intraocular lens should be implanted.
60- A pregnant woman develops toxoplasmosis in her first trimester of
pregnancy. One is TRUE:
A.There is a low chance of the fetus acquiring the infection
B.Subsequent offsprings are at risk of infections
C.The IgM antibody will be raised
D.Abortion is advised due to the high risk of fetal malformation
E.Sulphadiazine is the preferred treatment than clindamycin
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13. 61- A 20 year-old man complains of decreased right vision. Four weeks
earlier, he had undergone an extensive bowel operation for Crohn's
disease and received hyperalimentation and IV antibiotics since the
operation. On fundal examination, a fluffy white choroidal lesion is seen
near the macula. There is minimal vitritis. All the following are TRUE
about the organisms most likely to be responsible for this condition
EXCEPT:
A.Most cases occur without positive blood culture
B.Although commonly seen in the respiratory tract, it rarely causes
pneumonia
C.This organism will grow on the Sabouraud's culture within 48 hours
D.The organism rapidly invades the retina
E.Intravenous vancomycin is the treatment of choice
62- The following drugs are known to cause anterior uveitis EXCEPT:
A.Topical alphagan
B.Rifabutin
C.Anticholinesterase
D.Digoxin
E.Alpha-chymotrypsin
63- Two tumors commonly associated with “masquerade syndromes” are:
A- Conjunctival lymphoma, choroidal melanoma
B- Conjunctival lymphoma, intraocular lymphoma
C- Eyelid sebaceous carcinoma, intraocular lymphoma
D- Basal cell carcinoma, retinoblastoma
E- Squamous cell carcinoma, Rhabdomyosarcoma
64- One of the following medications is effective against toxoplasma tissue
cysts:
A.Clindamycin
B.Pyrimethamine
C.Aulphonamides
D.Azithromycin
E.Erythromycin
65- Which intravitreal antibiotic has the greatest potential for causing retinal
toxicity?
A- Ceftazidime
B- Vancomycin
C- Gentamicin
D- Penicillin
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14. 66- In Schwartz's syndrome, one is TRUE:
A.There is raised intraocular pressure
B.The underlying cause is exudative retinal detachment
C.Granulomatous uveitis is a feature
D.There is forward movement of the lens-iris diaphragm
E.Macular oedema is a main cause of visual loss
67- In Fuch's heterochromic cyclitis, one is FALSE:
A.Koeppe's nodules are seen
B.Abnormal vessels are seen bridging the angle of the trabecular meshwork
C.Cataract is seen in 50% of the cases
D.Glaucoma is seen in 60% of the cases
E.There is an increased vitreous loss during phacoemulsification
68- Posner-Schlossman syndrome, one is TRUE:
A.Is painless
B.Does not cause glaucomatous field loss
C.Is associated with hypopyon in the majority of cases
D.Is a self-limiting condition
E.Should be treated with systemic steroid
69- The following immunosupprassants and their side-effects are TRUE,
EXCEPT:
A.Cyclophosphamide - haemorrhagic cystitis
B.Cyclosporine - nephrotoxicity
C.Azathioprine - nephrotoxicity
D.Methotrexate - hepatic fibrosis
E.Tacrolimus (FK506) - hyperglycaemia
70- The following conditions can give rise to both uveitis and erythema
nodosum EXCEPT:
A.Crohn's disease
B.Behcet's disease
C.Sarcoidosis
D.Rheumatoid arthritis
E.Systemic lupus erythematosus
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15. 71- A 25 year-old man from the Middle East complains of blurred right vision.
Examination of right eye shows a small hypopyon and the posterior
segment reveals sheathing of the blood vessels with retinal
haemorrhages. He gave a past history of painful lesions in his mouth and
his genitals. One of the following is TRUE about this condition:
A- Histopathology of the painful lesion reveals pathognomonic feature
B- Puncturing the skin with an hypodermic needle may be useful in diagnosis
C- The posterior segment pathology is caused by inflammation of the retina
and choroid
D- Oral steroid alone is usually effective in preventing relapse of the ocular
inflammation
E- Unless treated aggressively, the ocular inflammation will become chronic
72- Patients with which of the following are most likely to present with
granulomatous uveitis?
A- Sarcoidosis
B- Behcet’s syndrome
C- Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis
D- Reiter syndrome
73- Hypopyon is most likely to be seen in which of the following uveitic
syndromes?
A- Sarcoidosis
B- Behcet’s syndrome
C- Rheumatoid arthritis
D- Reiter syndrome
74- Which of the following topical agents is MOST effective in controlling
intraocular inflammation in uveitis?
A- Loteprednol
B- Fluorometholone 0.25%
C- Dexamethasone 0.1%
D- Prednisolone 1%
75- Which of the following uveitic syndromes is LEAST likely to require
topical corticosteroid management?
A- Sarcoidosis
B- Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis
C- Fuchs heterochromic iridocyclitis
D- Reiter syndrome
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16. 76- Periocular depot corticosteroid injections should NOT be used in which
of the following uveitic syndromes?
A- Pars planitis with cystoid macular edema
B- Sarcoidosis
C- Toxoplasmosis
D- Reiter syndrome
77- Which of the following is most likely to be positive in a patient with acute
nongranulomatous uveitis?
A- HLA-B27
B- HLA-B51
C- HLA-B5
D- HLA-B54
78- Reiter syndrome is associated with all of the following EXCEPT?
A- Nonspecific urethritis
B- Polyarthritis
C- Conjunctivitis
D- Ankylosing spondylitis
79- Behcet’s syndrome is associated with all of the following EXCEPT?
A- Aphthous stomatitis
B- Arthritis
C- Genital ulceration
D- Retinal vasculitis
80- Which of the following is usually seen in CHILDHOOD?
A- Ankylosing spondylitis
B- Reiter syndrome
C- Vogt-Koyanagi-Harada syndrome
D- Kawasaki syndrome
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17. 81- Which of the following types of intraocular lenses is most associated with
recurrent uveitis?
A- Rigid, closed-loop anterior chamber intraocular lenses
B- Iris plane intraocular lenses
C- Sulcus-placed posterior chamber intraocular lenses
D- Silicone intraocular lenses
82- Risk factors for the development of chronic iridocyclitis in patients with
juvenile rheumatoid arthritis include all of the following, EXCEPT ?
A- Female gender
B- Positive rheumatoid factor (RF)
C- Pauciarticular arthritis
D- Circulating antinuclear antibody (ANA)
83- Which of the following is LEAST commonly seen in patients with juvenile
rheumatoid arthritis (JRA) and uveitis?
A- Cataract
B- Macular edema
C- Glaucoma
D- Band keratopathy
84. HLA is found on chromosome:
A.6
B.8
C.9
D.13
85- Which of the following is NOT characteristic of Fuchs heterochromic
iridocyclitis?
A- Unilateral uveitis
B- Mild aqueous cell and flare
C- Iris stromal atrophy
D- Small nongranulomatous keratic precipitates in Arlt’s triangle
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18. 86- Which of the following is the most common cause of intermediate
uveitis?
A- Multiple sclerosis
B- Idiopathic
C- Lyme disease
D- Syphilis
87- Which of the following is the MAJOR cause of visual loss in pars planitis?
A- Band keratopathy
B- Posterior subcapsular cataract
C- Epiretinal membrane
D- Cystoid macular edema
88- Which of the following is LEAST characteristic of acute retinal necrosis
(ARN) syndrome?
A- Vitritis
B- Occlusive arteriolitis
C- Extensive retinal hemorrhages
D- Multifocal yellow-white peripheral retinitis
89- Which of the following is commonly associated with an
immunocompromised state?
A- Cytomegalovirus retinitis
B- Herpes simplex keratouveitis
C- Acute retinal necrosis syndrome
D- Ocular histoplasmosis syndrome
90- Which of the following is NOT characteristic of ocular histoplasmosis
syndrome (OHS)?
A- Peripapillary pigment changes
B- Vitritis
C- Peripheral atrophic chorioretinal (“histo”) spots
D- Maculopathy
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19. 91- Treatment of visually threatening ocular toxoplasmosis should include
which of the following?
A- Amphotericin B
B- Periocular corticosteroid injection
C- Pyrimethamine and sulfonamides
D- Acyclovir
92- Ophthalmologic signs of systemic lupus erythematosus include all of the
following EXCEPT?
A- Vitreous hemorrhage
B- Cotton-wool spots
C- Retinal vascular occlusion
D- Anterior uveitis
93- Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE about Wegener
granulomatosis?
A- Antineutrophilic cytoplasmic antibodies (ANCA) are present.
B- There are immune complexes in small vessels.
C- The main therapeutic agents are prednisone and cyclophosphamide.
D- Sinusitis and renal disease are common.
94- Characteristics of acute posterior multifocal placoid pigment
epitheliopathy (APMPPE) include all of the following, EXCEPT ?
A- It often follows a prodromal influenza-like illness.
B- It is commonly seen in the fifth or sixth decade of life.
C- Multiple cream-colored homogenous lesions are seen beneath the retina.
D- Vitreous cells and disc edema may be present.
95- Which of the following statements about syphilis and uveitis is NOT
TRUE?
A- A salt-and-pepper fundus may be seen in congenital syphilis.
B- Uveitis may be seen in secondary-stage syphilis.
C- Syphilitic uveitis cannot be cured in patients with AIDS syndrome.
D- A lumbar puncture should be performed in patients with uveitis and
syphilis.
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20. 96- Recommended treatment of Lyme disease includes all of the following
EXCEPT?
A- Penicillin
B- Erythromycin
C- Cephalosporins
D- Tetracycline
97- Which of the following is NOT used to treat tuberculosis?
A- Ivermectin
B- Isoniazid
C- Rifampin
D- Pyrazinamide
98- Characteristics of sarcoidosis include all of the following, EXCEPT ?
A- Elevated serum angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) and lysozyme
levels
B- Caseating granuloma on histopathology
C- Pulmonary and liver disease
D- Granulomatous or nongranulomatous uveitis
99- A 41-year-old Japanese man with a remote history of blunt ocular trauma
in one eye but good vision and no history of ocular surgery presents with
decreased vision and severe pain in both eyes. He has bilateral uveitis,
alopecia, vitiligo, and recent cerebrovascular accident. There is an
exudative retinal detachment in one eye. Which of the following
diagnoses is most likely?
A- Sarcoidosis
B- Sympathetic ophthalmia
C- Vogt-Koyanagi-Harada syndrome
D- Behcet’s syndrome
100- A 67-year-old white female presents with mild uveitis with a mild vitritis
and subretinal infiltrates. The condition has been minimally responsive to
topical corticosteroid treatment. She has recently experienced weakness
and confusion. Which of the following tests would be the most important
to obtain at this time?
A- Gallium scan
B- Westergren sedimentation rate and C-reactive protein
C- PPD and chest x-ray
D- CT scan or MRI of the head
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21. ANSWERS
1.C
2.B
3.A
4.C
5.C
6.A
7.E
8.C
9.A
10.C
11.E
12.C
13.C
14.C
15.B
16.C
17.C
18.D
19.E
20.A
21.E
22.B
23.B
24.C
25.A
26.B
27.B
28.D
29.D
30.C
31.B
32.C
33.B
34.D
35.D
36.D
37.E
38.D
39.C
40.E
41.E
42.E
43.A
44.E
45.C
46.B
47.C
48.C
49.E
50.B
51.B
52.D
53.D
54.D
55.C
56.B
57.C
58.B
59.D
60.C
61.E
62.D
63.C
64.D
65.C
66.A
67.E
68.D
69.C
70.D
71.B
72.A
73.B
74.D
75.C
76.C
77.A
78.D
79.B
80.D
81.A
82.B
83.C
84.A
85.D
86.B
87.D
88.C
89.A
90.B
91.C
92.D
93.B
94.B
95.C
96.C
97.A
98.B
99.C
100.D
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