Aristotle begins chapter 2 by saying that if we want to obtain the clearest view of things we must consider them "in their first growth
and origin" (compare Plato, Republic, 369ab, Readings, p. 59). In the next few paragraphs, which are omitted in the Readings,
Aristotle discusses the elements from which the city originates. First comes the family, then several families unite to form a village;
when several villages unite into a community large enough to be self-sufficient they form a state (city, polis) -- "originating in the
bare needs of life, and continuing in existence for the sake of a good life" (1252 b28).
A political animal
At this point another, and distinctively Aristotelian, principle comes into play: that the nature of something is best seen (not by
analysis into elements, or by looking to its origins, but) by studying the mature and fully-developed specimen. To understand a
thing's nature you do not look to its origin but to its full development. In nature the fully-developed instance is the goal or end
toward which development takes place, so if you look to the end you can understand the earlier stages of development.
If the earlier forms of society are natural, so is the state, for it is the end of them, and the nature of a thing is its end. For what
each thing is when fully developed, we call its nature... Hence it is evident that the state is a creation of nature, and that man is
by nature a political animal [1252 b30-1253 a3]
A "political animal" means an animal whose nature is to live in a polis or city, not isolated or in small groups. "Civilization" (from
Latin civitas, a city) is the natural state for the human animal. It is the natural state not in the sense that it is the original state, but in
the sense that the natural goal of human development is life in cities. This is a rejection of the idea common at the time, and since,
that civilization is artificial, conventional, unnatural. Aristotle would have agreed with the 18th century writer who said (I can't
remember who it was!) that "it is natural to man to be artificial". (On the contrast between convention (law, nomos) and nature
(physis) see Thucydides V.105, Readings, p. 40, and compare I.76, Readings, p. 11).
In Aristotle's philosophy, "nature" (in Greek physis, from which we get "physics") -- nature is the principle of growth or development:
a thing's nature is what makes it develop in a certain way, and development is for the sake of its goal. Aristotle's physics is said to be
teleological, from the Greek word "telos", a goal or end: according to Aristotle every nature exists for some purpose. (However, he
did not think that nature was designed by a mind; Aristotle did believe, for philosophical reasons, in a supreme being or god, but he
believed that the world had existed eternally, that it was not created by God, that God was not the designer of things. Natural
purposes are, so to speak, blind and unconscious, except in human beings.)
Read the extracts from chapter 2, 1253a 7-39 (Readings, p. 101)
A comment:
1253 a19, "The state is by nature clearly prior to the family and to the individual": not prior in time, but more fundamental.
Its nature is what the thing is when fully-developed; this goal or end determines the various stages that lead to it and is
"prior" in that sense.
Property
Reverting to the method of analysis into components, Aristotle goes on (in chapters 3 and 4, omitted from the Readings) to discuss
the family or household, starting with its property, including slaves. Property includespossessions and instruments, which Aristotle
distinguishes. Possessions are means to human activity and instruments are means to the production of artifacts (the products being
either possessions or instruments, i.e. means either to further production or to human action). Artisans or employees in farming or
industry are human beings who are means to production; slaves are human beings who are possessions, means to action -- domestic
servants, secretaries. The slave "wholly belongs" to the master [1254 a13].
In chapter 3, when he talks about the slave as part of the household, Aristotle raises a question: Some say "that the rule of a master
over slaves is contrary to nature, and that the distinction between slave and freeman exists by convention only, and not by nature;
and being an interference with nature is therefore unjust" [1253 b20-3]. In chapter 3 he does not pursue the question of the justice
of slavery, but he takes it up again in chapter 5, our next extract.
Is slavery just?
Read I.5
"For that some should rule and others be ruled": this is not by itself a proof that slavery is natural, since there are (as
Aristotle often says) several kinds of rule, rule over slaves being only one kind; he says this for example in the very first
chapter of the Politics, Readings, p. 101. So the fact that some are rulers, others ruled, is irrelevant to showing that some of
the others should be slaves. In fact, everything at least down to 1254 b16 is irrelevant to the question.