UGC NET Home Science Book PDF in English
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UNIT-I : FOOD SCIENCE AND FOOD SERVICE MANAGEMENT
2
What is Food Science?
Food Science is a multi-disciplinary field involving chemistry,
biochemistry, nutrition, microbiology and engineering to give one the
scientific knowledge to solve real problems associated with the
many facets of the food system. The basis of the discipline lies in an
understanding of the chemistry of food components, such as
proteins, carbohydrates, fats and water and the reactions they
undergo during processing and storage. A complete understanding
of processing and preservation methods is required including
drying, freezing, pasteurization, canning, irradiation, extrusion, to
name just a few. The ability to carry out analysis of food
constituents is developed along with statistical quality control
methods. The microbiology and the safety aspects of food must also
be understood. Other topics covered include food additives, the
physico-chemical properties of food, flavor chemistry, product
development, food engineering and packaging. Food science
integrates this broad-based knowledge and focuses it on food.
Food Science
is still a relatively new and growing discipline, brought about mainly
as a response to the social changes taking place in North America
and other parts of the developed world. The food industry, which
originally provided only primary products for final preparation in the
home, finds itself responding to market demands for more refined,
sophisticated, and convenient products. The demand for easy to
prepare, convenience foods, poses major scientific and
technological challenges which cannot be met without highly trained
scientists capable of understanding the complex
chemistry/biochemistry of food systems and knowledge of the
methods to preserve them. This increased reliance of society on
ready-to-eat foods has led to greater responsibility for processors in
terms of quality, safety and nutrition. In order to ensure high quality
and competitive products, scientific principles and new technologies
2
What is Food Science?
Food Science is a multi-disciplinary field involving chemistry,
biochemistry, nutrition, microbiology and engineering to give one the
scientific knowledge to solve real problems associated with the
many facets of the food system. The basis of the discipline lies in an
understanding of the chemistry of food components, such as
proteins, carbohydrates, fats and water and the reactions they
undergo during processing and storage. A complete understanding
of processing and preservation methods is required including
drying, freezing, pasteurization, canning, irradiation, extrusion, to
name just a few. The ability to carry out analysis of food
constituents is developed along with statistical quality control
methods. The microbiology and the safety aspects of food must also
be understood. Other topics covered include food additives, the
physico-chemical properties of food, flavor chemistry, product
development, food engineering and packaging. Food science
integrates this broad-based knowledge and focuses it on food.
Food Science
is still a relatively new and growing discipline, brought about mainly
as a response to the social changes taking place in North America
and other parts of the developed world. The food industry, which
originally provided only primary products for final preparation in the
home, finds itself responding to market demands for more refined,
sophisticated, and convenient products. The demand for easy to
prepare, convenience foods, poses major scientific and
technological challenges which cannot be met without highly trained
scientists capable of understanding the complex
chemistry/biochemistry of food systems and knowledge of the
methods to preserve them. This increased reliance of society on
ready-to-eat foods has led to greater responsibility for processors in
terms of quality, safety and nutrition. In order to ensure high quality
and competitive products, scientific principles and new technologies
UNIT-I : FOOD SCIENCE AND FOOD SERVICE MANAGEMENT
3
are being applied to food manufacturing and the body of knowledge
required has become that discipline called Food Science.
What is Nutrition Explain Diff Type of Nutrition?
Nutrition
is defined as the process of taking food to carry out different
function of the body needed for the survival of the organism. The
main type of Nutrition is autotrophic and heterotrophic. When an
organism can prepare its own food such as plants, they are
known as autotrophs and such type of Nutrition is known as
autotrophic Nutrition.
Heterotrophic Nutrition is a type of nutrition in which an organism is
dependent on other organism for food. Heterotrophic Nutrition is
divided as saprophytic nutrition, parasitic nutrition and holozic
.Parasitic mode of nutrition occurs when an organism drives its
nutrition from the other living organisms. Saprophytic organism is a
type of nutrition when an organism feeds on dead plants or animals.
Holozoic nutrition is a type of nutrition in which an organism takes in
whole food.
3
are being applied to food manufacturing and the body of knowledge
required has become that discipline called Food Science.
What is Nutrition Explain Diff Type of Nutrition?
Nutrition
is defined as the process of taking food to carry out different
function of the body needed for the survival of the organism. The
main type of Nutrition is autotrophic and heterotrophic. When an
organism can prepare its own food such as plants, they are
known as autotrophs and such type of Nutrition is known as
autotrophic Nutrition.
Heterotrophic Nutrition is a type of nutrition in which an organism is
dependent on other organism for food. Heterotrophic Nutrition is
divided as saprophytic nutrition, parasitic nutrition and holozic
.Parasitic mode of nutrition occurs when an organism drives its
nutrition from the other living organisms. Saprophytic organism is a
type of nutrition when an organism feeds on dead plants or animals.
Holozoic nutrition is a type of nutrition in which an organism takes in
whole food.
UNIT-I : FOOD SCIENCE AND FOOD SERVICE MANAGEMENT
4
What is the properties of food ?
A property of a system or material is any observable attribute or
characteristic of that system or material. The state of a system or
material can be defined by listing its properties. A food property is a
particular measure of the food's behavior as a matter, or its
behavior with respect to energy, or its interaction with the human
senses, or its efficacy in promoting human health and well-being
(ASHRAE, 1993; McCarthy, 1997).
The Needs of a Classification
An understanding of food properties is essential for scientists and
engineers who have to solve problems in food preservation,
packaging, processing, storage, marketing, and consumption, and
even after consumption. Proper classification and terminology
comprise an essential basis for avoiding confusion or imprecision.
Classification will assist in recording available data, setting up a
global database and developing predictive relationships. Where a
large amount of data is available, but there is no way of adequately
modeling it, then there is a need to develop general conclusions or
expectations and limitations. Classifying food properties is a difficult
task, and any attempt is likely to raise questions and controversy.
Difficult though the task may be, it is now an appropriate time to
develop a well-defined terminology and classification of food
properties (Rahman, 1998b). A good classification will facilitate
sound interdisciplinary approaches to the understanding of food
4
What is the properties of food ?
A property of a system or material is any observable attribute or
characteristic of that system or material. The state of a system or
material can be defined by listing its properties. A food property is a
particular measure of the food's behavior as a matter, or its
behavior with respect to energy, or its interaction with the human
senses, or its efficacy in promoting human health and well-being
(ASHRAE, 1993; McCarthy, 1997).
The Needs of a Classification
An understanding of food properties is essential for scientists and
engineers who have to solve problems in food preservation,
packaging, processing, storage, marketing, and consumption, and
even after consumption. Proper classification and terminology
comprise an essential basis for avoiding confusion or imprecision.
Classification will assist in recording available data, setting up a
global database and developing predictive relationships. Where a
large amount of data is available, but there is no way of adequately
modeling it, then there is a need to develop general conclusions or
expectations and limitations. Classifying food properties is a difficult
task, and any attempt is likely to raise questions and controversy.
Difficult though the task may be, it is now an appropriate time to
develop a well-defined terminology and classification of food
properties (Rahman, 1998b). A good classification will facilitate
sound interdisciplinary approaches to the understanding of food
UNIT-I : FOOD SCIENCE AND FOOD SERVICE MANAGEMENT
5
properties, and of the measurement and use of food property data,
leading to better process design and food product characterization.
Proposed Classification
Paulus (1989) proposed the classification of food properties shown
in Table 1. The characteristics given for each class may be
misleading, for example "physical properties are primarily not
relevant for food quality". In many cases, physical properties are
important in determining quality characteristics; for example, in dried
food, porosity is related to speed of rehydration, and in some cases
to texture. In the case of nutritive and sensory properties, Paulus
(1989) states these as being "primarily not relevant for process
conditions" (Table 1). This may be misleading since processing
conditions always have effects on nutritive and sensory properties.
Furthermore, it is difficult to classify food properties adequately on
the basis of a combination of how they are measured (objectively or
subjectively) and their applications. Jowitt (1974) proposed a
classification of foodstuffs and their physical properties. Rahman
(1998b) settled on the list that appears at the end of the first issue of
the International Journal of Food Properties, after several revisions
based on discussions with many academics and scientists around
the world (Table 2). The classification now proposed contains four
major classes: (i) physical and physicochemical properties, (ii)
kinetic properties, (iii) sensory properties, (iv) health properties
(Table 3).
5
properties, and of the measurement and use of food property data,
leading to better process design and food product characterization.
Proposed Classification
Paulus (1989) proposed the classification of food properties shown
in Table 1. The characteristics given for each class may be
misleading, for example "physical properties are primarily not
relevant for food quality". In many cases, physical properties are
important in determining quality characteristics; for example, in dried
food, porosity is related to speed of rehydration, and in some cases
to texture. In the case of nutritive and sensory properties, Paulus
(1989) states these as being "primarily not relevant for process
conditions" (Table 1). This may be misleading since processing
conditions always have effects on nutritive and sensory properties.
Furthermore, it is difficult to classify food properties adequately on
the basis of a combination of how they are measured (objectively or
subjectively) and their applications. Jowitt (1974) proposed a
classification of foodstuffs and their physical properties. Rahman
(1998b) settled on the list that appears at the end of the first issue of
the International Journal of Food Properties, after several revisions
based on discussions with many academics and scientists around
the world (Table 2). The classification now proposed contains four
major classes: (i) physical and physicochemical properties, (ii)
kinetic properties, (iii) sensory properties, (iv) health properties
(Table 3).
UNIT-I : FOOD SCIENCE AND FOOD SERVICE MANAGEMENT
6
Table 1. Classification of Food Properties Proposed by paulus
(1989).
1. Physical properties
I. Defined by the food itself .
II. To be determined objectively
III. Important to define process condition from an engineering
point of view.
IV. Primarily not relevant for food quality.
2.Nutritive properties
I. Defined by the food Itself.
II. To be determined objectively.
III. Primarily not relevant for process conditions.
IV. Important for food quality.
3.Sensory Properties
I. Defined by the food and by the people.
II. To be determined subjectively.
III. Primarily not relevant for process conditions.
IV. Important for food quality.
Table 2. List of food properties as the International Journal of
Food Properties (UFP, 1998)
I. Acoustical properties
II. Colorimetric properties
6
Table 1. Classification of Food Properties Proposed by paulus
(1989).
1. Physical properties
I. Defined by the food itself .
II. To be determined objectively
III. Important to define process condition from an engineering
point of view.
IV. Primarily not relevant for food quality.
2.Nutritive properties
I. Defined by the food Itself.
II. To be determined objectively.
III. Primarily not relevant for process conditions.
IV. Important for food quality.
3.Sensory Properties
I. Defined by the food and by the people.
II. To be determined subjectively.
III. Primarily not relevant for process conditions.
IV. Important for food quality.
Table 2. List of food properties as the International Journal of
Food Properties (UFP, 1998)
I. Acoustical properties
II. Colorimetric properties
UNIT-I : FOOD SCIENCE AND FOOD SERVICE MANAGEMENT
7
III. Electrical properties
IV. Functional properties
V. Mass transfer properties
VI. Mass-volume-area-related properties.
VII. Mechanical properties
VIII. Medical properties
IX. Microbial-death-growth-related properties
X. Morphometric properties
XI. Optical properties
XII. Physico-chemical constants
XIII. Radiative properties
XIV. Respiratory properties
XV. Rheological properties
XVI. Sensory properties
XVII. Surface properties
XVIII. Thermodynamic properties
XIX. Textural properties
XX. Thermal properties
XXI. Quality kinetics parameters.
Table 3. List of four classes of food properties
I. Physical and Physico-chemical Properties.
A. Mechanical properties, Acoustic properties, Mass-volume-area-
related properties, Morphometric properties, Rheological
properties, Surface properties.
B. Thermal Properties.
C. Thermodynamic properties
D. Mass transfer properties
E. Electromagnetic properties
F. Physico-chemical constants
7
III. Electrical properties
IV. Functional properties
V. Mass transfer properties
VI. Mass-volume-area-related properties.
VII. Mechanical properties
VIII. Medical properties
IX. Microbial-death-growth-related properties
X. Morphometric properties
XI. Optical properties
XII. Physico-chemical constants
XIII. Radiative properties
XIV. Respiratory properties
XV. Rheological properties
XVI. Sensory properties
XVII. Surface properties
XVIII. Thermodynamic properties
XIX. Textural properties
XX. Thermal properties
XXI. Quality kinetics parameters.
Table 3. List of four classes of food properties
I. Physical and Physico-chemical Properties.
A. Mechanical properties, Acoustic properties, Mass-volume-area-
related properties, Morphometric properties, Rheological
properties, Surface properties.
B. Thermal Properties.
C. Thermodynamic properties
D. Mass transfer properties
E. Electromagnetic properties
F. Physico-chemical constants
UNIT-I : FOOD SCIENCE AND FOOD SERVICE MANAGEMENT
8
ii. Kinetic Properties
A. Quality kinetic constants
B. Microbial growth, decline and death kinetic constant
iii. Sensory Properties
A. Tactile properties
B. Textural properties
C. Color and appearance
D. Taste
E. Odor
iv. Health Properties
A. Positive health properties
1. Nutritional composition
2. Medical properties
3. Functional properties
B. Negative health properties
1. Toxic at any concentration
2. Toxic after critical concentration level
3. Excessive or unbalanced intake
CLASSIFICATION OF FOOD PROPERTIES
Physical and Physico-chemical properties
8
ii. Kinetic Properties
A. Quality kinetic constants
B. Microbial growth, decline and death kinetic constant
iii. Sensory Properties
A. Tactile properties
B. Textural properties
C. Color and appearance
D. Taste
E. Odor
iv. Health Properties
A. Positive health properties
1. Nutritional composition
2. Medical properties
3. Functional properties
B. Negative health properties
1. Toxic at any concentration
2. Toxic after critical concentration level
3. Excessive or unbalanced intake
CLASSIFICATION OF FOOD PROPERTIES
Physical and Physico-chemical properties
UNIT-I : FOOD SCIENCE AND FOOD SERVICE MANAGEMENT
9
Physical and physico-chemical properties are properties
defined, measured and expressed in physical and physico-
chemical ways. However, there is no clear dividing line between
these two types of properties. Paulus (1989) classified physical
properties as: mechanical properties, thermal properties,
transport properties, and other properties (electrical and
optical). It is considered misleading to use transport as a
subclass of physical properties, since many mechanical,
thermal, and electrical properties are considered transport
properties, e.g. electrical conductivity and thermal conductivity.
Moreover, among thermal properties, specific heat is a
constitutive property, whereas thermal conductivity and
diffusivity are transport properties. The classification proposed
here is similar to the classification of physical properties in
Jowitt (1974), but firstly two new subclasses, thermodynamic
properties and mass transfer properties, replace Jowitt's
subclass of diffusional and related properties; most of the
properties included in Jowitt's subclass are in fact
thermodynamic ones. The new mass transfer properties
subclass now proposed includes both mass transfer by diffusion
and mass transfer by other mechanisms, and thus is more
general. Secondly, a new subclass of physico-chemical
constants has been added.
Kinetic properties
9
Physical and physico-chemical properties are properties
defined, measured and expressed in physical and physico-
chemical ways. However, there is no clear dividing line between
these two types of properties. Paulus (1989) classified physical
properties as: mechanical properties, thermal properties,
transport properties, and other properties (electrical and
optical). It is considered misleading to use transport as a
subclass of physical properties, since many mechanical,
thermal, and electrical properties are considered transport
properties, e.g. electrical conductivity and thermal conductivity.
Moreover, among thermal properties, specific heat is a
constitutive property, whereas thermal conductivity and
diffusivity are transport properties. The classification proposed
here is similar to the classification of physical properties in
Jowitt (1974), but firstly two new subclasses, thermodynamic
properties and mass transfer properties, replace Jowitt's
subclass of diffusional and related properties; most of the
properties included in Jowitt's subclass are in fact
thermodynamic ones. The new mass transfer properties
subclass now proposed includes both mass transfer by diffusion
and mass transfer by other mechanisms, and thus is more
general. Secondly, a new subclass of physico-chemical
constants has been added.
Kinetic properties
UNIT-I : FOOD SCIENCE AND FOOD SERVICE MANAGEMENT
10
Kinetic properties are kinetic constants characterizing the rates
of changes in foods. These can be divided into two groups. The
first comprises kinetic constants characterizing the rates of
biological, biochemical, chemical, physico-chemical, and
physical changes in food. It could include respiratory constants,
rate constant, decimal reduction time, half life, Arrhenius
equation constants, temperature quotient (Qw), and z value.
The second comprises kinetic constants characterizing the rates
of growth, decline and death of micro-organisms in food. It
could include such properties as specific growth rate, the
parameters of the logistic and Gompertz equations
(mathematical models of microbial growth), generation time,
square root (Ratkowsky) equation constants, decimal reduction
time, z value. It should be noted that these properties are not
actually properties of food, but properties of micro-organisms
as moderated by the food they are in.
Sensory properties
A sensory property can be defined as the human physiological-
psychological perception of a number of physical and other
properties of food and their interactions. The physiological
apparatus (fingers, mouth, eyes, taste and aroma receptors,
ears) examines the food and reacts to the food's properties.
Signals are sent to the brain which interprets the signals and
comes to a decision about the food's sensory quality; this is the
10
Kinetic properties are kinetic constants characterizing the rates
of changes in foods. These can be divided into two groups. The
first comprises kinetic constants characterizing the rates of
biological, biochemical, chemical, physico-chemical, and
physical changes in food. It could include respiratory constants,
rate constant, decimal reduction time, half life, Arrhenius
equation constants, temperature quotient (Qw), and z value.
The second comprises kinetic constants characterizing the rates
of growth, decline and death of micro-organisms in food. It
could include such properties as specific growth rate, the
parameters of the logistic and Gompertz equations
(mathematical models of microbial growth), generation time,
square root (Ratkowsky) equation constants, decimal reduction
time, z value. It should be noted that these properties are not
actually properties of food, but properties of micro-organisms
as moderated by the food they are in.
Sensory properties
A sensory property can be defined as the human physiological-
psychological perception of a number of physical and other
properties of food and their interactions. The physiological
apparatus (fingers, mouth, eyes, taste and aroma receptors,
ears) examines the food and reacts to the food's properties.
Signals are sent to the brain which interprets the signals and
comes to a decision about the food's sensory quality; this is the
UNIT-I : FOOD SCIENCE AND FOOD SERVICE MANAGEMENT MCQs
2
1. When the food is directly given in the veins,
it is called ______ nutrition.
a) Parenteral
b) Enteral
c) Intravenous
d) Saline
Answer: a
Explanation: Parenteral nutrition is given to
people directly in their veins. The food is in its
most basic form, like Amino Acids instead of
protein pulses, and can be absorbed by the
body directly. It is given when the person is
unconscious, has had an operation in the GI
tract etc.
2. When food is given in the stomach or
intestines directly then it is ________
nutrition.
a) Intravenous
b) Saline
c) Enteral
d) Parenteral
Answer: c
Explanation: This type of nutrition is given to
those who have been unconscious or comatose
for a longer period of time. The food is normal
food but churned into a paste and diluted
sufficiently. This food is given directly in the
stomach with the help of tubes.
3. A person who has had a renal transplant
should regulate the intake of ______
a) carbohydrates
b) proteins
c) fats
d) vitamins
Answer: b
Explanation: Kidneys are the site of blood
purification and the waste that is flushed out is
mostly nitrogenous in nature. This nitrogenous
waste is produced due to the breakdown of
proteins and amino acids. Thus, to reduce the
pressure on kidneys, the intake of proteins is
reduced.
4. To overcome diabetes, a person can increase
the intake of ______ and reduce the intake of
___________
a) carbohydrates, proteins
b) proteins, fats
c) fats, carbohydrates
d) carbohydrates, fats
Answer: c
Explanation: Diabetes is of two kinds, one
where the body cannot produce insulin and
the second in which the cells have developed
resistance to insulin so absorption of glucose
has gone down. Thus, the amount of sugar in
blood increases. To control this, the level of fat
intake can be increased. The lesser amount of
fat is needed to satisfy hunger as compared to
carbohydrates. Also, the energy produced by
oxidation of fat is much higher. Thus, to
control diabetes, consumption of
carbohydrates is reduced and the intake of fats
is increased.
5. For a person suffering from problems like
slow neural transmission, eg dementia, they
should be given __________
a) increased sodium
b) increased potassium
c) increased calcium
d) increased magnesium
Answer: b
Explanation: The cell systems use sodium and
potassium to transmit impulses. The neural
systems also use these two ions. However, the
body uses potassium more than sodium when
it comes to transmitting impulses. Thus, when
a person is suffering from neural problems,
2
1. When the food is directly given in the veins,
it is called ______ nutrition.
a) Parenteral
b) Enteral
c) Intravenous
d) Saline
Answer: a
Explanation: Parenteral nutrition is given to
people directly in their veins. The food is in its
most basic form, like Amino Acids instead of
protein pulses, and can be absorbed by the
body directly. It is given when the person is
unconscious, has had an operation in the GI
tract etc.
2. When food is given in the stomach or
intestines directly then it is ________
nutrition.
a) Intravenous
b) Saline
c) Enteral
d) Parenteral
Answer: c
Explanation: This type of nutrition is given to
those who have been unconscious or comatose
for a longer period of time. The food is normal
food but churned into a paste and diluted
sufficiently. This food is given directly in the
stomach with the help of tubes.
3. A person who has had a renal transplant
should regulate the intake of ______
a) carbohydrates
b) proteins
c) fats
d) vitamins
Answer: b
Explanation: Kidneys are the site of blood
purification and the waste that is flushed out is
mostly nitrogenous in nature. This nitrogenous
waste is produced due to the breakdown of
proteins and amino acids. Thus, to reduce the
pressure on kidneys, the intake of proteins is
reduced.
4. To overcome diabetes, a person can increase
the intake of ______ and reduce the intake of
___________
a) carbohydrates, proteins
b) proteins, fats
c) fats, carbohydrates
d) carbohydrates, fats
Answer: c
Explanation: Diabetes is of two kinds, one
where the body cannot produce insulin and
the second in which the cells have developed
resistance to insulin so absorption of glucose
has gone down. Thus, the amount of sugar in
blood increases. To control this, the level of fat
intake can be increased. The lesser amount of
fat is needed to satisfy hunger as compared to
carbohydrates. Also, the energy produced by
oxidation of fat is much higher. Thus, to
control diabetes, consumption of
carbohydrates is reduced and the intake of fats
is increased.
5. For a person suffering from problems like
slow neural transmission, eg dementia, they
should be given __________
a) increased sodium
b) increased potassium
c) increased calcium
d) increased magnesium
Answer: b
Explanation: The cell systems use sodium and
potassium to transmit impulses. The neural
systems also use these two ions. However, the
body uses potassium more than sodium when
it comes to transmitting impulses. Thus, when
a person is suffering from neural problems,
UNIT-I : FOOD SCIENCE AND FOOD SERVICE MANAGEMENT MCQs
3
especially when the impulses are being
transmitted slowly, increasing the levels of
potassium in the body helps stabilize it.
6. A person who is suffering from high blood
pressure should cut down on _______
a) sodium
b) potassium
c) calcium
d) magnesium
Answer: a
Explanation: Sodium and potassium are used
by the body to conduct impulses but unlike
potassium, sodium is a much smaller ion. This
means it has higher electropositivity and a
higher capacity to attract negatively charged
ions. It attracts water molecules and causes
water retention, something which is very
harmful to a patient suffering from high blood
pressure. Thus, their sodium intake is reduced
so that the excess water is not held back in
blood and the pressure on the heart to
circulate the larger volume of blood reduces.
7. Long periods of parenteral nutrition is not
recommended because of ______
a) it increases the toxicity of blood
b) it puts pressure on the kidney
c) it puts pressure on the heart
d) it causes the GI track to degenerate
Answer: d
Explanation: When the functioning of an organ
system reduces, it starts degenerating. The
same happens with GI track. If parenteral
nutrition is given for a long period of time,
then even though the body will meet its
nutritional needs but the GI track will start
degenerating.
8. In cases of renal insufficiency, what should
take in place of proteins?
a) Triglycerides
b) Essential Amino Acids
c) Glucose
d) Vitamin K
Answer: b
Explanation: A protein is a long chain of
various amino acids which may or may not be
needed by the body. Since proteins are the
building blocks of the body, doing away with
proteins cannot be done however taking
proteins will harm the damaged kidney. In
such cases, essential amino acids are ingested
instead of taking in proteins. These essential
amino acids are directly absorbed by the body.
This allows the body to function normally and
the pressure on the kidney is kept at the
minimum.
9. In cases of muscle fatigue, which of the
Vitamin should be taken?
a) A
b) D
c) E
d) K
Answer: b
Explanation: Vitamin D helps the bones and
muscles in absorbing various nutrients. When
the levels of Vitamin D in the body go down,
the muscles feel fatigued as they are not able
to absorb the nutrients. The melanin pigments
of the skin in the presence of sunlight produce
Vitamin D but in case the levels go down, then
Vitamin D is orally taken or injected in the
muscles.
10. Which Vitamin in large amounts harms the
bones?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
3
especially when the impulses are being
transmitted slowly, increasing the levels of
potassium in the body helps stabilize it.
6. A person who is suffering from high blood
pressure should cut down on _______
a) sodium
b) potassium
c) calcium
d) magnesium
Answer: a
Explanation: Sodium and potassium are used
by the body to conduct impulses but unlike
potassium, sodium is a much smaller ion. This
means it has higher electropositivity and a
higher capacity to attract negatively charged
ions. It attracts water molecules and causes
water retention, something which is very
harmful to a patient suffering from high blood
pressure. Thus, their sodium intake is reduced
so that the excess water is not held back in
blood and the pressure on the heart to
circulate the larger volume of blood reduces.
7. Long periods of parenteral nutrition is not
recommended because of ______
a) it increases the toxicity of blood
b) it puts pressure on the kidney
c) it puts pressure on the heart
d) it causes the GI track to degenerate
Answer: d
Explanation: When the functioning of an organ
system reduces, it starts degenerating. The
same happens with GI track. If parenteral
nutrition is given for a long period of time,
then even though the body will meet its
nutritional needs but the GI track will start
degenerating.
8. In cases of renal insufficiency, what should
take in place of proteins?
a) Triglycerides
b) Essential Amino Acids
c) Glucose
d) Vitamin K
Answer: b
Explanation: A protein is a long chain of
various amino acids which may or may not be
needed by the body. Since proteins are the
building blocks of the body, doing away with
proteins cannot be done however taking
proteins will harm the damaged kidney. In
such cases, essential amino acids are ingested
instead of taking in proteins. These essential
amino acids are directly absorbed by the body.
This allows the body to function normally and
the pressure on the kidney is kept at the
minimum.
9. In cases of muscle fatigue, which of the
Vitamin should be taken?
a) A
b) D
c) E
d) K
Answer: b
Explanation: Vitamin D helps the bones and
muscles in absorbing various nutrients. When
the levels of Vitamin D in the body go down,
the muscles feel fatigued as they are not able
to absorb the nutrients. The melanin pigments
of the skin in the presence of sunlight produce
Vitamin D but in case the levels go down, then
Vitamin D is orally taken or injected in the
muscles.
10. Which Vitamin in large amounts harms the
bones?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
UNIT-I : FOOD SCIENCE AND FOOD SERVICE MANAGEMENT MCQs
4
Answer: c
Explanation: Vitamin C is essentially Citric Acid.
It is found in citric fruits like oranges and
lemons. Necessary amounts are needed to
keep away colds and reduce the levels of
toxicity of the body. It helps keep the skin
clean and pimple free but it is still acidic in
nature. Excess consumption of Vitamin C can
cause the acid to react with the bones where
most of the minerals are and causes the bones
the bones to become weak.
11. Which of the following deals with how
food is adjudged by the consumer?
a) Food microbiology
b) Product Development
c) Sensory Analysis
d) Food physics
Answer: c
Explanation: Sensory Analysis deals with how
the food is adjudged by a consumer.
12. Industry lobbying, local to international
rules, Quality and food safety etc includes
which component of the food industry?
a) R&D
b) Financial Services
c) Regulation
d) Wholesale and distribution
Answer: c
Explanation: Food regulation ensures Industry
lobbying, local to international rules, Quality
and food safety.
13. Which of the following does NOT
constitute 90% of dry weight of any food?
a) Carbohydrates
b) Fibers
c) Proteins
d) Fats
Answer: b
Explanation: Carbohydrates, fats and protein
constitute 90% of dry weight of any food.
14. Which sentence is untrue with respect to
the human body?
a) Unconsumed water broken → fats
b) Carbohydrates broken → Sugars
c) Proteins broken down → Amino acids
d) Fats broken down → Fatty acids and glycerol
Answer: a
Explanation: Water isn’t converted into
anything inside the body. It is just a carrier and
removes toxins from the body via sweat and
urine.
15. Which provides energy very slowly?
a) Carbohydrates
b) Fats
c) Proteins
d) Fibers
Answer: b
Explanation: Carbohydrates provide quick
energy. Proteins are for body growth. Fibers do
not provide energy as they don’t have any
calorific value. Hence, fats slowly provide
energy.
16. Which of the following is untrue?
a) A gram of carbohydrate or protein contains
4 calories
b) A gram of fat contains 9 calories
c) A gram of fat contains 5 calories
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: 4 calories make a gram of
carbohydrate or protein and 9 calories make a
gram of fat.
17. Storage requirements and stability,
product attributes conductive to product sale
4
Answer: c
Explanation: Vitamin C is essentially Citric Acid.
It is found in citric fruits like oranges and
lemons. Necessary amounts are needed to
keep away colds and reduce the levels of
toxicity of the body. It helps keep the skin
clean and pimple free but it is still acidic in
nature. Excess consumption of Vitamin C can
cause the acid to react with the bones where
most of the minerals are and causes the bones
the bones to become weak.
11. Which of the following deals with how
food is adjudged by the consumer?
a) Food microbiology
b) Product Development
c) Sensory Analysis
d) Food physics
Answer: c
Explanation: Sensory Analysis deals with how
the food is adjudged by a consumer.
12. Industry lobbying, local to international
rules, Quality and food safety etc includes
which component of the food industry?
a) R&D
b) Financial Services
c) Regulation
d) Wholesale and distribution
Answer: c
Explanation: Food regulation ensures Industry
lobbying, local to international rules, Quality
and food safety.
13. Which of the following does NOT
constitute 90% of dry weight of any food?
a) Carbohydrates
b) Fibers
c) Proteins
d) Fats
Answer: b
Explanation: Carbohydrates, fats and protein
constitute 90% of dry weight of any food.
14. Which sentence is untrue with respect to
the human body?
a) Unconsumed water broken → fats
b) Carbohydrates broken → Sugars
c) Proteins broken down → Amino acids
d) Fats broken down → Fatty acids and glycerol
Answer: a
Explanation: Water isn’t converted into
anything inside the body. It is just a carrier and
removes toxins from the body via sweat and
urine.
15. Which provides energy very slowly?
a) Carbohydrates
b) Fats
c) Proteins
d) Fibers
Answer: b
Explanation: Carbohydrates provide quick
energy. Proteins are for body growth. Fibers do
not provide energy as they don’t have any
calorific value. Hence, fats slowly provide
energy.
16. Which of the following is untrue?
a) A gram of carbohydrate or protein contains
4 calories
b) A gram of fat contains 9 calories
c) A gram of fat contains 5 calories
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: 4 calories make a gram of
carbohydrate or protein and 9 calories make a
gram of fat.
17. Storage requirements and stability,
product attributes conductive to product sale
UNIT-I : FOOD SCIENCE AND FOOD SERVICE MANAGEMENT MCQs
5
etc. The above activities refer to which step of
the food industry?
a) Production
b) Manufacture
c) Distribution
d) Marketing
Answer: c
Explanation: Storage requirements and storage
stability, product attributes conductive to
product sale etc refer to Distribution of food
products.
18. With respect to the definition of an allied
industry, which is an allied industry with the
food industry?
a) Explosives Industry
b) Packaging Industry
c) Jute Industry
d) Leather Industry
Answer: b
Explanation: Non-food components and for
marketing manufacturing companies are called
allied industries. Packaging industry needed
for food packaging is one of them.
19. Food industry is a high volume industry.
Hence, any losses may be a major loss to the
producer.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: It is true that the food industry is
a high volume industry. Hence, any loss is a
major loss to the producer.
20. Increasing agricultural efficiency is the
most important way to make sure food
production meets the necessity.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Increasing the efficiency of
agriculture is the most important way to make
sure food production meets the demand.
21. The outbreaks traced to foods from food
processing plants are contributed due to which
of the following factor?
a) Inadequate refrigeration
b) Preparing food items too far in advance
c) Food items re-infected after final heat
processing
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: All of the mentioned factors
contribute to the outbreaks that are traced to
foods from food processing plants.
22. Which of the following techniques are used
by the FDA in determining the manner in
which industry accepts its responsibilities?
a) Establishment inspection
b) Sample Collection and analysis of product in
process
c) Surveillance intended to identify new
problems
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: All of the mentioned techniques
are used by the FDA in determining the
manner in which industry accepts its
responsibilities.
23. Which of the following is a major role for
the industry?
a) GMP compliance
b) Product recall System
c) Costumer service
d) All of the mentioned
5
etc. The above activities refer to which step of
the food industry?
a) Production
b) Manufacture
c) Distribution
d) Marketing
Answer: c
Explanation: Storage requirements and storage
stability, product attributes conductive to
product sale etc refer to Distribution of food
products.
18. With respect to the definition of an allied
industry, which is an allied industry with the
food industry?
a) Explosives Industry
b) Packaging Industry
c) Jute Industry
d) Leather Industry
Answer: b
Explanation: Non-food components and for
marketing manufacturing companies are called
allied industries. Packaging industry needed
for food packaging is one of them.
19. Food industry is a high volume industry.
Hence, any losses may be a major loss to the
producer.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: It is true that the food industry is
a high volume industry. Hence, any loss is a
major loss to the producer.
20. Increasing agricultural efficiency is the
most important way to make sure food
production meets the necessity.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Increasing the efficiency of
agriculture is the most important way to make
sure food production meets the demand.
21. The outbreaks traced to foods from food
processing plants are contributed due to which
of the following factor?
a) Inadequate refrigeration
b) Preparing food items too far in advance
c) Food items re-infected after final heat
processing
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: All of the mentioned factors
contribute to the outbreaks that are traced to
foods from food processing plants.
22. Which of the following techniques are used
by the FDA in determining the manner in
which industry accepts its responsibilities?
a) Establishment inspection
b) Sample Collection and analysis of product in
process
c) Surveillance intended to identify new
problems
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: All of the mentioned techniques
are used by the FDA in determining the
manner in which industry accepts its
responsibilities.
23. Which of the following is a major role for
the industry?
a) GMP compliance
b) Product recall System
c) Costumer service
d) All of the mentioned
UNIT-I : FOOD SCIENCE AND FOOD SERVICE MANAGEMENT MCQs
6
Answer: d
Explanation: All of the mentioned are major
roles for the industry.
24. Which does the following task come
under? – Maintaining inventory of food
processing systems and their environments.
a) Product specifications
b) Physical systems hazards control
c) Purchasing requirements
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Maintaining inventory of food
processing systems comes under physical
systems hazards control.
25. Which of the following is useful in trouble
shooting for physical systems hazard?
a) Developing and maintaining flow diagrams
to cover all food processing and physical
systems and environment
b) Identifying all physical system hazards to
safety and integrity of products
c) Establishing systems of control for all
hazards and maintaining records of the same
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: All of the mentioned are useful in
trouble shooting for physical systems hazard.
26. ‘A company must be on guard against
violations’. This is covered under _____
a) Inspections and safety incidents
b) Auditing
c) Product integrity
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: ‘A company must be on guard
against violations’. This is covered under
product integrity.
27. Which of the following is an objective of
‘Quality assurance’?
a) To establish, issue and maintain standards
and specifications for all raw materials and
finished goods
b) To assure all ingredients and all finished
goods adhere to the company’s quality
standards
c) To be of service to the company in all areas
related to product quality
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: All of the mentioned are
objectives of ‘Quality assurance’.
28. Which of the following is covered under
‘Raw Material Quality Assurance’?
a) Specifications
b) Survey program
c) Service
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: The entire mentioned are covered
under ‘Raw Material Quality Assurance’.
29. The effort of QA to little day-to-day jobs is
related to which of the following sector?
a) Service
b) Vendor’s appraisal
c) Complaint handling
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: The effort of QA to little day-to-
day jobs comes under service sector.
30. Which of the following is NOT covered
under ‘Finished Product Quality Assurance’?
a) Finished product monitoring
b) Special finished product survey
c) Factory visits
d) None of the mentioned
6
Answer: d
Explanation: All of the mentioned are major
roles for the industry.
24. Which does the following task come
under? – Maintaining inventory of food
processing systems and their environments.
a) Product specifications
b) Physical systems hazards control
c) Purchasing requirements
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Maintaining inventory of food
processing systems comes under physical
systems hazards control.
25. Which of the following is useful in trouble
shooting for physical systems hazard?
a) Developing and maintaining flow diagrams
to cover all food processing and physical
systems and environment
b) Identifying all physical system hazards to
safety and integrity of products
c) Establishing systems of control for all
hazards and maintaining records of the same
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: All of the mentioned are useful in
trouble shooting for physical systems hazard.
26. ‘A company must be on guard against
violations’. This is covered under _____
a) Inspections and safety incidents
b) Auditing
c) Product integrity
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: ‘A company must be on guard
against violations’. This is covered under
product integrity.
27. Which of the following is an objective of
‘Quality assurance’?
a) To establish, issue and maintain standards
and specifications for all raw materials and
finished goods
b) To assure all ingredients and all finished
goods adhere to the company’s quality
standards
c) To be of service to the company in all areas
related to product quality
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: All of the mentioned are
objectives of ‘Quality assurance’.
28. Which of the following is covered under
‘Raw Material Quality Assurance’?
a) Specifications
b) Survey program
c) Service
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: The entire mentioned are covered
under ‘Raw Material Quality Assurance’.
29. The effort of QA to little day-to-day jobs is
related to which of the following sector?
a) Service
b) Vendor’s appraisal
c) Complaint handling
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: The effort of QA to little day-to-
day jobs comes under service sector.
30. Which of the following is NOT covered
under ‘Finished Product Quality Assurance’?
a) Finished product monitoring
b) Special finished product survey
c) Factory visits
d) None of the mentioned
UNIT-I : FOOD SCIENCE AND FOOD SERVICE MANAGEMENT MCQs
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Answer: d
Explanation: All of the mentioned is covered
under ‘Finished Product Quality Assurance’.
31. Which of the following is a step under
process development?
a) Establish tentative process specifications
b) Organize necessary pilot plant facilities
c) Produce pilot plant products and submit to
taste panels
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: All of the mentioned steps are
covered under process development.
32. Which of the following categories are
present in a company for any product?
a) ‘Completely new product’
b) ‘New product for company-existing
competitor product’
c) Completely new product & New product for
company-existing competitor product
d) Neither of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Both of the mentioned categories
are present in a company for any product.
33. Which of the following information is
required prior to launching a new product?
a) Product and raw material specifications
b) Process development
c) Plant location and operation
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: All of the mentioned information
is required prior to launching a new product.
34. Knowledge of which of the following is
required for products under category I –
Completely new product?
a) Prototype product
b) Public health clearance
c) Develop advertising claims
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: All of the mentioned is required
for products under category I – Completely
new product.
35. Which of the following is the most
common cause of food poisoning?
(a) Red kidney beans
(b) Moulds
( c) Bacteria
(d) Toadstools
Answer: c
36. Which one of the following statem,ents
best describes the effect that food poisoning
bacteria usually have upon food?
(a) It appears normal but it tastes horrible.
(b) It appears stale and dry and it has an 'off'
taste.
(c) It tastes, smells and looks normal.
(d) It appears and tastes normal but it has an
unpleasant smell. (RSH) Examination
Answer: c
37. Which one of the following statements is
true?
(a) All bacteria are harmful.
(b) Some bacteria are harmful.
(c) No bacteria are harmful.
(d) Only bacterial spores are harmful. (IEHO)
Answer: b
38. At which of the following temperatures will
food poisoning bacteria multiply most rapidly?
(a) 5°F
(b) 37°C
7
Answer: d
Explanation: All of the mentioned is covered
under ‘Finished Product Quality Assurance’.
31. Which of the following is a step under
process development?
a) Establish tentative process specifications
b) Organize necessary pilot plant facilities
c) Produce pilot plant products and submit to
taste panels
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: All of the mentioned steps are
covered under process development.
32. Which of the following categories are
present in a company for any product?
a) ‘Completely new product’
b) ‘New product for company-existing
competitor product’
c) Completely new product & New product for
company-existing competitor product
d) Neither of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Both of the mentioned categories
are present in a company for any product.
33. Which of the following information is
required prior to launching a new product?
a) Product and raw material specifications
b) Process development
c) Plant location and operation
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: All of the mentioned information
is required prior to launching a new product.
34. Knowledge of which of the following is
required for products under category I –
Completely new product?
a) Prototype product
b) Public health clearance
c) Develop advertising claims
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: All of the mentioned is required
for products under category I – Completely
new product.
35. Which of the following is the most
common cause of food poisoning?
(a) Red kidney beans
(b) Moulds
( c) Bacteria
(d) Toadstools
Answer: c
36. Which one of the following statem,ents
best describes the effect that food poisoning
bacteria usually have upon food?
(a) It appears normal but it tastes horrible.
(b) It appears stale and dry and it has an 'off'
taste.
(c) It tastes, smells and looks normal.
(d) It appears and tastes normal but it has an
unpleasant smell. (RSH) Examination
Answer: c
37. Which one of the following statements is
true?
(a) All bacteria are harmful.
(b) Some bacteria are harmful.
(c) No bacteria are harmful.
(d) Only bacterial spores are harmful. (IEHO)
Answer: b
38. At which of the following temperatures will
food poisoning bacteria multiply most rapidly?
(a) 5°F
(b) 37°C
UNIT-I : FOOD SCIENCE AND FOOD SERVICE MANAGEMENT MCQs
8
(c) 37°F
(d) 63°C
Answer: b
39. Which one of the following pairs of people
are at special risk from food poisoning?
(a) Nurses and children
(b) Children and old people
(c) Old people and chefs
(d) Chefs and nurses (IEHO)
Answer: b
40. Which of the following is most likely to be
a source of food poisoning bacteria?
(a) Frozen peas
(b) Pasteurised milk
(c) Tinned salmon
(d) Raw meat
Answer: d
41. Which one of the following food poisoning
bacteria is transferred to food by coughing and
sneezing?
(a) Bacillus cereus
(b) Salmonella
(c) Staphylococcus aureus
(d) Clostridium perfringens (RSH)
Answer: c
42. You enter the kitchen (1) First you make
some sandwiches (2) Then you take your
coffee break (3) Then you put some lamb
chops on to grill (4) When should you have
washed your hands?
(a) After points 2,3,4.
(b) After points 1, 2, 4.
(c) After points 1, 3, 4.
(d) After points 1,2,3. (IEHO) 106 Examination
Questions
Answer: c
43. The main reason for not allowing smoking
in food preparation areas is because:
(a) the fingers become contaminated with
saliva
(b) smoke causes cancer
(c) it wastes time
(d) ashtrays make the kitchen look untidy
Answer: a
44. What should you do if you cut yourself at
work?
(a) Grin and bear it.
(b) Cover the wound with lint and a bandage.
(c) Stop work and go home.
(d) Cover the wound with a waterproof
dressing.
Answer: d
45. People who handle food should keep their
fingernails:
(a) smooth
(b) short
(c) varnished
(d) long
Answer: b
46. The main reason why hair must be covered
is that:
(a) long hair gets in your eyes
(b) hair and dandruff can fall into food
( c) hats look smarter
(d) hats keep your hair clean (IEHO) (IEHO)
Answer: b
8
(c) 37°F
(d) 63°C
Answer: b
39. Which one of the following pairs of people
are at special risk from food poisoning?
(a) Nurses and children
(b) Children and old people
(c) Old people and chefs
(d) Chefs and nurses (IEHO)
Answer: b
40. Which of the following is most likely to be
a source of food poisoning bacteria?
(a) Frozen peas
(b) Pasteurised milk
(c) Tinned salmon
(d) Raw meat
Answer: d
41. Which one of the following food poisoning
bacteria is transferred to food by coughing and
sneezing?
(a) Bacillus cereus
(b) Salmonella
(c) Staphylococcus aureus
(d) Clostridium perfringens (RSH)
Answer: c
42. You enter the kitchen (1) First you make
some sandwiches (2) Then you take your
coffee break (3) Then you put some lamb
chops on to grill (4) When should you have
washed your hands?
(a) After points 2,3,4.
(b) After points 1, 2, 4.
(c) After points 1, 3, 4.
(d) After points 1,2,3. (IEHO) 106 Examination
Questions
Answer: c
43. The main reason for not allowing smoking
in food preparation areas is because:
(a) the fingers become contaminated with
saliva
(b) smoke causes cancer
(c) it wastes time
(d) ashtrays make the kitchen look untidy
Answer: a
44. What should you do if you cut yourself at
work?
(a) Grin and bear it.
(b) Cover the wound with lint and a bandage.
(c) Stop work and go home.
(d) Cover the wound with a waterproof
dressing.
Answer: d
45. People who handle food should keep their
fingernails:
(a) smooth
(b) short
(c) varnished
(d) long
Answer: b
46. The main reason why hair must be covered
is that:
(a) long hair gets in your eyes
(b) hair and dandruff can fall into food
( c) hats look smarter
(d) hats keep your hair clean (IEHO) (IEHO)
Answer: b
UNIT-II : NUTRITION AND DIETETICS
What is food group balanced diet, food pyramid,
macro and micro nutrition?
Food group
The food groups are part of a method of classification for the
various foods that humans consume in their everyday lives, based
on the nutritional properties of these types of foods and their
location in a hierarchy of nutrition.
Eating certain amounts and proportions of foods from the different
categories is recommended by most guides to healthy eating as one
of the most important ways to achieve a healthy lifestyle through
diet.
Different food guides vary in the number of categories used to
divide types of food, but the majority of them include the following
classifications: grain products; vegetables; fruits; dairy products;
meat and alternatives; fats, oils and sugars.
balanced diet
A healthy diet is good for your physical and mental health.
It can reduce the risk and severity of obesity, heart disease,
diabetes, hypertension, depression and cancer.
Very few foods are either all good or all bad. By having an idea of
the balance in your diet, it should be easier to enjoy food and be
healthy.
There are seven essential factors for a balanced diet: carbs, protein,
fat, fibre, vitamins, minerals and water.
What is food group balanced diet, food pyramid,
macro and micro nutrition?
Food group
The food groups are part of a method of classification for the
various foods that humans consume in their everyday lives, based
on the nutritional properties of these types of foods and their
location in a hierarchy of nutrition.
Eating certain amounts and proportions of foods from the different
categories is recommended by most guides to healthy eating as one
of the most important ways to achieve a healthy lifestyle through
diet.
Different food guides vary in the number of categories used to
divide types of food, but the majority of them include the following
classifications: grain products; vegetables; fruits; dairy products;
meat and alternatives; fats, oils and sugars.
balanced diet
A healthy diet is good for your physical and mental health.
It can reduce the risk and severity of obesity, heart disease,
diabetes, hypertension, depression and cancer.
Very few foods are either all good or all bad. By having an idea of
the balance in your diet, it should be easier to enjoy food and be
healthy.
There are seven essential factors for a balanced diet: carbs, protein,
fat, fibre, vitamins, minerals and water.
UNIT-II : NUTRITION AND DIETETICS
Table 1: Essential nutrients for a healthy balanced diet
Table 1: Essential nutrients for a healthy balanced diet
UNIT-II : NUTRITION AND DIETETICS
Table 2: Eat more, eat less…
Diet and weight
In general, if we eat fewer calories than our body needs for energy,
we will lose weight. If we eat more than we need we put on weight.
But this is not the whole story. We all have an individual balance
depending on how our body signals to itself to process food. Some
people burn more energy and in different ways, and this explains
some of the diversity in how we all look.
Table 2: Eat more, eat less…
Diet and weight
In general, if we eat fewer calories than our body needs for energy,
we will lose weight. If we eat more than we need we put on weight.
But this is not the whole story. We all have an individual balance
depending on how our body signals to itself to process food. Some
people burn more energy and in different ways, and this explains
some of the diversity in how we all look.
UNIT-II : NUTRITION AND DIETETICS
This can also change over time through life depending on whether
we are still growing and when we get older.
Some foods are processed by our bodies in ways that are more
healthy. This tends to be foods that release sugars more slowly and
that contain fibre.
Other foods including saturated fats and foods that are high in salt
or simple sugars can have a negative impact on health because of
how the body processes them.
Calories and lifestyle
The average number of calories you need each day can vary. It is
influenced by many factors including sex, age, metabolism, physical
activity, growth and pregnancy.
Body height, weight and size, genetics, hormone levels and any
illness can affect how much energy we need.
Average daily guidelines recommend around 2500 calories for men
and 2000 calories for women.
Differences within nutrients
There are healthy and less healthy dietary sources of nutrients,
especially for carbohydrates (carbs) and fats. These are explained
in below and in Table 12
Carbs: simple vs complex
Guidelines recommend that carbohydrates (“carbs”) form the basis
of most diets, making up half of total energy (calorie) intake. This
food group can be separated into complex (good) and simple (bad)
carbs.
This can also change over time through life depending on whether
we are still growing and when we get older.
Some foods are processed by our bodies in ways that are more
healthy. This tends to be foods that release sugars more slowly and
that contain fibre.
Other foods including saturated fats and foods that are high in salt
or simple sugars can have a negative impact on health because of
how the body processes them.
Calories and lifestyle
The average number of calories you need each day can vary. It is
influenced by many factors including sex, age, metabolism, physical
activity, growth and pregnancy.
Body height, weight and size, genetics, hormone levels and any
illness can affect how much energy we need.
Average daily guidelines recommend around 2500 calories for men
and 2000 calories for women.
Differences within nutrients
There are healthy and less healthy dietary sources of nutrients,
especially for carbohydrates (carbs) and fats. These are explained
in below and in Table 12
Carbs: simple vs complex
Guidelines recommend that carbohydrates (“carbs”) form the basis
of most diets, making up half of total energy (calorie) intake. This
food group can be separated into complex (good) and simple (bad)
carbs.
UNIT-II : NUTRITION AND DIETETICS
Complex carbs (wholewheat flour and pasta, and brown rice)
contain larger chains of sugar molecules. These take longer to
digest than processed grains. This makes you feel full for longer,
helping to control your appetite.
Complex carbs provide energy and are key sources of fibre, B
vitamins and minerals.
Refined complex carbs (white flour, pasta and rice) are digested
more quickly by the body. This makes them a faster source of
energy. However, these types of carbs do not offer as many
additional nutrients. This is why whole-wheat and brown carbs help
improve the overall quality of your diet.
Simple carbs are the sugars. These can be natural (e.g. fructose
found in fruit) or refined (e.g. sucrose or glucose in soft drinks,
sweets and biscuits).
Another key carb-related term is the Glycaemic Index (GI). This
relates to how quickly the sugar is released into the blood stream.
Low GI foods release sugar slowly. This gives a prolonged supply of
energy to the body. Higher GI foods give shorter bursts of energy.
Many factors affect the GI of a carbohydrate including whether the
carb is simple or complex, how the food is cooked and also what it
is eaten with.
Fruit and vegetables are carbohydrate foods. They include a wide
range of vitamins and minerals as well as soluble fibre. Aiming for
five portions of fruit and vegetables a day is good for your heath.
Fruit juice is counted as one of your 5-a-day, but if you are watching
your weight it is better to eat whole fruit which takes longer to digest
and keeps you feeling full for longer.
Complex carbs (wholewheat flour and pasta, and brown rice)
contain larger chains of sugar molecules. These take longer to
digest than processed grains. This makes you feel full for longer,
helping to control your appetite.
Complex carbs provide energy and are key sources of fibre, B
vitamins and minerals.
Refined complex carbs (white flour, pasta and rice) are digested
more quickly by the body. This makes them a faster source of
energy. However, these types of carbs do not offer as many
additional nutrients. This is why whole-wheat and brown carbs help
improve the overall quality of your diet.
Simple carbs are the sugars. These can be natural (e.g. fructose
found in fruit) or refined (e.g. sucrose or glucose in soft drinks,
sweets and biscuits).
Another key carb-related term is the Glycaemic Index (GI). This
relates to how quickly the sugar is released into the blood stream.
Low GI foods release sugar slowly. This gives a prolonged supply of
energy to the body. Higher GI foods give shorter bursts of energy.
Many factors affect the GI of a carbohydrate including whether the
carb is simple or complex, how the food is cooked and also what it
is eaten with.
Fruit and vegetables are carbohydrate foods. They include a wide
range of vitamins and minerals as well as soluble fibre. Aiming for
five portions of fruit and vegetables a day is good for your heath.
Fruit juice is counted as one of your 5-a-day, but if you are watching
your weight it is better to eat whole fruit which takes longer to digest
and keeps you feeling full for longer.
UNIT-II : NUTRITION AND DIETETICS
Table 3: Types of fat and their impact on your health
Table 3: Types of fat and their impact on your health
UNIT-II : NUTRITION AND DIETETICS
Diet and cholesterol
Cholesterol is a compound that is similar to fat. It is needed by the
body to form the outside barrier of cells (membrane). It can be made
both by the body and consumed through sources in the diet.
Absorption of dietary cholesterol is complicated. Other factors such
as genetics can affect the overall level of cholesterol circulating in
the blood.
High levels of cholesterol in the blood are associated with damaging
arteries and heart disease.
Specifically, having high levels of low-density lipoprotein cholesterol
(LDL) and low levels of high-density lipoprotein cholesterol (HDL) in
the blood increase the risk of heart disease.
Changes in diet can make a difference though. Choosing foods with
more unsaturated fats compared to saturated fats can increase
levels of HDL (good cholesterol) and lower levels of LDL (bad
choleterol) Ways of cooking
The way that we cook and prepare food is important. Certain
cooking methods are also better at retaining the nutrients within
food.
Cooking techniques such as roasting and frying can be less healthy
if a large amount of fat (oil or butter) is added during the cooking.
However, you can fry and roast using small amounts of healthier
fats such as olive and rapeseed oil.
Grilling and steaming are widely considered to be healthier cooking
techniques in most cases.
The Food Pyramid
Diet and cholesterol
Cholesterol is a compound that is similar to fat. It is needed by the
body to form the outside barrier of cells (membrane). It can be made
both by the body and consumed through sources in the diet.
Absorption of dietary cholesterol is complicated. Other factors such
as genetics can affect the overall level of cholesterol circulating in
the blood.
High levels of cholesterol in the blood are associated with damaging
arteries and heart disease.
Specifically, having high levels of low-density lipoprotein cholesterol
(LDL) and low levels of high-density lipoprotein cholesterol (HDL) in
the blood increase the risk of heart disease.
Changes in diet can make a difference though. Choosing foods with
more unsaturated fats compared to saturated fats can increase
levels of HDL (good cholesterol) and lower levels of LDL (bad
choleterol) Ways of cooking
The way that we cook and prepare food is important. Certain
cooking methods are also better at retaining the nutrients within
food.
Cooking techniques such as roasting and frying can be less healthy
if a large amount of fat (oil or butter) is added during the cooking.
However, you can fry and roast using small amounts of healthier
fats such as olive and rapeseed oil.
Grilling and steaming are widely considered to be healthier cooking
techniques in most cases.
The Food Pyramid
UNIT-II : NUTRITION AND DIETETICS
oil The Food Pyramid is designed to make healthy eating easier.
Healthy eating is about getting the correct amount of nutrients –
protein, fat, carbohydrates, vitamins and minerals you need to
maintain good health.
Foods that contain the same type of nutrients are grouped together
on each of the shelves of the Food Pyramid. This gives you a
choice of different foods from which to choose a healthy diet.
Following the Food Pyramid as a guide will help you get the right
balance of nutritious foods within your calorie range. Studies show
that we take in too many calories from foods and drinks high in fat,
sugar and salt, on the top shelf of the Food Pyramid. They provide
very little of the essential vitamins and minerals your body needs.
Limiting these is essential for healthy eating.
So in a nutshell, healthy eating involves:
plenty of vegetables, salad and fruit
a serving of wholemeal cereals and breads, potatoes, pasta
and rice at every meal - go for wholegrain varieties wherever
possible
some milk, yoghurt and cheese
some meat, poultry, fish, eggs, beans and nuts
a very small amount of fats, spreads and oils
and a very small amount or no foods and drinks high in fat,
sugar and salt
Supplements
If you eat a varied and balanced diet, then there is normally no need
to take any food supplements – you’ll get everything you need from
oil The Food Pyramid is designed to make healthy eating easier.
Healthy eating is about getting the correct amount of nutrients –
protein, fat, carbohydrates, vitamins and minerals you need to
maintain good health.
Foods that contain the same type of nutrients are grouped together
on each of the shelves of the Food Pyramid. This gives you a
choice of different foods from which to choose a healthy diet.
Following the Food Pyramid as a guide will help you get the right
balance of nutritious foods within your calorie range. Studies show
that we take in too many calories from foods and drinks high in fat,
sugar and salt, on the top shelf of the Food Pyramid. They provide
very little of the essential vitamins and minerals your body needs.
Limiting these is essential for healthy eating.
So in a nutshell, healthy eating involves:
plenty of vegetables, salad and fruit
a serving of wholemeal cereals and breads, potatoes, pasta
and rice at every meal - go for wholegrain varieties wherever
possible
some milk, yoghurt and cheese
some meat, poultry, fish, eggs, beans and nuts
a very small amount of fats, spreads and oils
and a very small amount or no foods and drinks high in fat,
sugar and salt
Supplements
If you eat a varied and balanced diet, then there is normally no need
to take any food supplements – you’ll get everything you need from
UNIT-II : NUTRITION AND DIETETICS
your food. The one exception to this is folic acid. All women of child-
bearing age who could become pregnant should take a supplement
of 400µg (micrograms) folic acid each day. If a woman does
become pregnant, she should continue to take the supplement
during the first twelve weeks of pregnancy.
your food. The one exception to this is folic acid. All women of child-
bearing age who could become pregnant should take a supplement
of 400µg (micrograms) folic acid each day. If a woman does
become pregnant, she should continue to take the supplement
during the first twelve weeks of pregnancy.
Q1. Major part of dry weight
of a plant is derived from
elements obtained from
1. Soil
2. Air
3. Water
4. Decomposing organic
matter
Answer: 2
Q2.major function of
phosphorus is in the
formation of
1. Cell membranes
2. Cell wall
3. Enzymes
4. Carbohydrates
Answer: 1
Q3. Minerals are absorbed by
the plants, through
1. Pressure flow
2. Diffusion
3. Active transport
4. Osmosis
Answer: 3
Q4. Magnesium is required
for
1. DNA replication
2. RNA synthesis
3. Stomatal movements
4. Synthesis of chlorophyll
Answer: 4
Q5. Potassium is employed in
1. Chlorophyll synthesis
2. Protein synthesis
3. Cementing synthesis
4. Opening and closing
stomata
Answer: 4
Q6. Calcium is a component
of
1. Middle lamella
2. Primary walls
3. Secondary walls
4. Chlorophyll
Answer: 1
Q7. Both nitrogen and
sulphur and required by
plants for
1. Chlorophyll synthesis
2. Enzymes
3. Cell wall
4. Stomatal movements
Answer: 2
Q8. Chlorosis results from
deficiency of
1. Chlorine
2. Sodium
3. Calcium
4. Magnesium
Answer: 4
Q9. Micronutrients mainly
function as
of a plant is derived from
elements obtained from
1. Soil
2. Air
3. Water
4. Decomposing organic
matter
Answer: 2
Q2.major function of
phosphorus is in the
formation of
1. Cell membranes
2. Cell wall
3. Enzymes
4. Carbohydrates
Answer: 1
Q3. Minerals are absorbed by
the plants, through
1. Pressure flow
2. Diffusion
3. Active transport
4. Osmosis
Answer: 3
Q4. Magnesium is required
for
1. DNA replication
2. RNA synthesis
3. Stomatal movements
4. Synthesis of chlorophyll
Answer: 4
Q5. Potassium is employed in
1. Chlorophyll synthesis
2. Protein synthesis
3. Cementing synthesis
4. Opening and closing
stomata
Answer: 4
Q6. Calcium is a component
of
1. Middle lamella
2. Primary walls
3. Secondary walls
4. Chlorophyll
Answer: 1
Q7. Both nitrogen and
sulphur and required by
plants for
1. Chlorophyll synthesis
2. Enzymes
3. Cell wall
4. Stomatal movements
Answer: 2
Q8. Chlorosis results from
deficiency of
1. Chlorine
2. Sodium
3. Calcium
4. Magnesium
Answer: 4
Q9. Micronutrients mainly
function as
UNIT-II : NUTRITION AND DIETETICS MCQs
Page 3
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1. Osmotic constituents of
cell sap
2. Components of
important biochemicals
3. Cofactors of enzymes
4. Constituents of
chlorophyll
Answer: 3
Q10. Critical elements are
1. Na, K and Ca
2. N, P and Mg
3. N, P and K
4. Mn, B and Mo
Answer: 3
Q11. Macronutrients are
elements that
1. Play major role in plant
nutrition
2. Are required in large
quantities in plants
3. From large molecules in
plants
4. None of the above
Answer: 2
Q12. Micronutrients/trace
elements are those that
1. Can be removed from
the plant without any
effect on it
2. Play a minor role in
plant nutrition
3. Form very small
molecules in plants
4. Are present/required in
small quantities in
plants
Answer: 4
Q13. In plant mineral
nutrition, elements are called
macro or micro-elements
depending upon their
1. Relative presence in
plant ash
2. Relative importance in
plant growth
3. Relative amount
required in plants
4. Relative availability in
soil
Answer: 3
Q14. Minerals are absorbed
in the form of
1. Molecules
2. Ions
3. Compounds
4. Mixtures
Answer: 2
Q15. Tracer elements are
those that are
1. Required in small
amount by the plant
Page 3
2020
1. Osmotic constituents of
cell sap
2. Components of
important biochemicals
3. Cofactors of enzymes
4. Constituents of
chlorophyll
Answer: 3
Q10. Critical elements are
1. Na, K and Ca
2. N, P and Mg
3. N, P and K
4. Mn, B and Mo
Answer: 3
Q11. Macronutrients are
elements that
1. Play major role in plant
nutrition
2. Are required in large
quantities in plants
3. From large molecules in
plants
4. None of the above
Answer: 2
Q12. Micronutrients/trace
elements are those that
1. Can be removed from
the plant without any
effect on it
2. Play a minor role in
plant nutrition
3. Form very small
molecules in plants
4. Are present/required in
small quantities in
plants
Answer: 4
Q13. In plant mineral
nutrition, elements are called
macro or micro-elements
depending upon their
1. Relative presence in
plant ash
2. Relative importance in
plant growth
3. Relative amount
required in plants
4. Relative availability in
soil
Answer: 3
Q14. Minerals are absorbed
in the form of
1. Molecules
2. Ions
3. Compounds
4. Mixtures
Answer: 2
Q15. Tracer elements are
those that are
1. Required in small
amount by the plant
UNIT-II : NUTRITION AND DIETETICS MCQs
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2020
2. Radioactive and can be
used to investigate a
process in the plant
3. First to be traced in the
plant
4. Present in traces in the
soil solution
Answer: 2
Q16. The absorption of
minerals due to difference in
the electropotential gradient
without use of energy is
1. Active absorption
2. Passive absorption
3. Osmotic absorption
4. None of the above
Answer: 2
Q17. Passive absorption of
minerals salts is not
dependent on
1. Diffusion
2. Osmosis
3. Donnan equilibrium
4. Ionic exchange
Answer: 2
Q18. Active absorption of
minerals salts makes use of
1. Ionic exchange
2. Carriers
3. Phosphorylation of
elements
4. None of the above
Answer: 2
Q19. Which of the following
does not operate in the
carrier concept of active
absorption of minerals
1. Electron transport
2. Contractile protein
3. Protein lecithin
4. Ascending water stream
Answer: 4
Q20. Absorbed minerals are
transported to other parts of
the plants by
1. Diffusion
2. Imbibitions
3. Ion exchange
4. Water stream
Answer: 4
Q21. A primary deficiency is
caused by insufficient by
absorption of
1. Magnesium
2. Manganese
3. Calcium
4. Potassium
Answer: 4
Q22. Downward passage of
mineral, from upper soil
layers to lower soil strata is
called
1. Percolation
Page 4
2020
2. Radioactive and can be
used to investigate a
process in the plant
3. First to be traced in the
plant
4. Present in traces in the
soil solution
Answer: 2
Q16. The absorption of
minerals due to difference in
the electropotential gradient
without use of energy is
1. Active absorption
2. Passive absorption
3. Osmotic absorption
4. None of the above
Answer: 2
Q17. Passive absorption of
minerals salts is not
dependent on
1. Diffusion
2. Osmosis
3. Donnan equilibrium
4. Ionic exchange
Answer: 2
Q18. Active absorption of
minerals salts makes use of
1. Ionic exchange
2. Carriers
3. Phosphorylation of
elements
4. None of the above
Answer: 2
Q19. Which of the following
does not operate in the
carrier concept of active
absorption of minerals
1. Electron transport
2. Contractile protein
3. Protein lecithin
4. Ascending water stream
Answer: 4
Q20. Absorbed minerals are
transported to other parts of
the plants by
1. Diffusion
2. Imbibitions
3. Ion exchange
4. Water stream
Answer: 4
Q21. A primary deficiency is
caused by insufficient by
absorption of
1. Magnesium
2. Manganese
3. Calcium
4. Potassium
Answer: 4
Q22. Downward passage of
mineral, from upper soil
layers to lower soil strata is
called
1. Percolation
UNIT-II : NUTRITION AND DIETETICS MCQs
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2020
2. Leaching
3. Weathering
4. Runaway
Answer: 2
Q23. A number of minerals
like Ca, Mg and K are held
over the surface of clay
particles because the latter
are
1. Negatively charged
2. Positively charged
3. Neutral
4. Having both positive and
negative residual
valencies
Answer: 1
Q24. Soil nitrate is more
likely to leach than
ammonium due to its
1. Small size
2. Negative charged
3. Being useless
4. Abundance
Answer: 2
Q25. The largest reservoir of
nitrogen is
1. Rocks
2. Sea
3. Air
4. Soil
Answer: 3
Q26. The enzymes required
for nitrogen fixation is
1. Nitrogen deaminase
2. Nitrodioxidase
3. Amino acid
decarboxylase
4. Nitrogenase
Answer: 4
Q27. Hydroponics is growing
plants in
1. Laboratory
2. Phytotron
3. Liquid culture medium
4. Solid culture medium
Answer: 3
Q28. Aeroponics is growing
plants in
1. Air
2. Satellites
3. Other planets and space
4. Stands with liquid spray
of their roots
Answer: 4
Q29. Nodule formation of
legume roots is reduced
during deficiency of
1. Sulphur
2. Boron
3. Nitrogen
4. Both A and B
Answer: 4
Page 5
2020
2. Leaching
3. Weathering
4. Runaway
Answer: 2
Q23. A number of minerals
like Ca, Mg and K are held
over the surface of clay
particles because the latter
are
1. Negatively charged
2. Positively charged
3. Neutral
4. Having both positive and
negative residual
valencies
Answer: 1
Q24. Soil nitrate is more
likely to leach than
ammonium due to its
1. Small size
2. Negative charged
3. Being useless
4. Abundance
Answer: 2
Q25. The largest reservoir of
nitrogen is
1. Rocks
2. Sea
3. Air
4. Soil
Answer: 3
Q26. The enzymes required
for nitrogen fixation is
1. Nitrogen deaminase
2. Nitrodioxidase
3. Amino acid
decarboxylase
4. Nitrogenase
Answer: 4
Q27. Hydroponics is growing
plants in
1. Laboratory
2. Phytotron
3. Liquid culture medium
4. Solid culture medium
Answer: 3
Q28. Aeroponics is growing
plants in
1. Air
2. Satellites
3. Other planets and space
4. Stands with liquid spray
of their roots
Answer: 4
Q29. Nodule formation of
legume roots is reduced
during deficiency of
1. Sulphur
2. Boron
3. Nitrogen
4. Both A and B
Answer: 4
UNIT-II : NUTRITION AND DIETETICS MCQs
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2020
Q30. Little leaf/leaf rosetting
is deficiency symptom of
1. Zn
2. Mn
3. Fe
4. B
Answer: 1
Q31. Internal cork of
Apple/browning of
Cauliflower is deficiency
symptom of
1. Mo
2. B
3. Cu
4. Zn
Answer: 2
Q32. Whiptail of crucifers is
due to deficiency of
1. Mo
2. Cu
3. Zn
4. P
Answer: 1
Q33. Common free ion in the
cell is
1. Iron
2. Potassium
3. Sulphate
4. Phosphate
Answer: 2
Q34. Which of the following
are the most abundant
elements in the living cells
1. C, H, S and P
2. C, O, N and P
3. C, H, O and N
4. C, H, Mg and Ca
Answer: 3
Q35. A fertilizer has a
formula of three figures 15-9-
9. They stand for percentage
of
1. N, Ca and Mg
2. Mg, P and K
3. Ca, N and Fe
4. N, P and K
Answer: 4
Q36. The raw material most
used by the plants is
1. O2
2. CO2
3. N2
4. K
Answer: 2
Q37. Mineral salts which are
absorbed by the roots from
the soil are in the form of
1. Very dilute solution
2. Dilute solution
3. Concentrated solution
4. Very concentrated
solution
Page 6
2020
Q30. Little leaf/leaf rosetting
is deficiency symptom of
1. Zn
2. Mn
3. Fe
4. B
Answer: 1
Q31. Internal cork of
Apple/browning of
Cauliflower is deficiency
symptom of
1. Mo
2. B
3. Cu
4. Zn
Answer: 2
Q32. Whiptail of crucifers is
due to deficiency of
1. Mo
2. Cu
3. Zn
4. P
Answer: 1
Q33. Common free ion in the
cell is
1. Iron
2. Potassium
3. Sulphate
4. Phosphate
Answer: 2
Q34. Which of the following
are the most abundant
elements in the living cells
1. C, H, S and P
2. C, O, N and P
3. C, H, O and N
4. C, H, Mg and Ca
Answer: 3
Q35. A fertilizer has a
formula of three figures 15-9-
9. They stand for percentage
of
1. N, Ca and Mg
2. Mg, P and K
3. Ca, N and Fe
4. N, P and K
Answer: 4
Q36. The raw material most
used by the plants is
1. O2
2. CO2
3. N2
4. K
Answer: 2
Q37. Mineral salts which are
absorbed by the roots from
the soil are in the form of
1. Very dilute solution
2. Dilute solution
3. Concentrated solution
4. Very concentrated
solution
UNIT-II : NUTRITION AND DIETETICS MCQs
Page 7
2020
Answer: 1
Q38. Minerals absorbed by
roots move to the leaf
through
1. Xylem
2. Phloem
3. Sieve tubes
4. None of the above
Answer: 1
Q39. Plants absorb mineral
salts from the soil solution
through
1. Semipermeable
membrane into the
cytoplasm
2. Perforation at the apex
of root-hairs only
3. The cell wall which is
semipermeable
4. None of the above
Answer: 1
Q40. Which of the following
is macronutrient
1. Ca
2. Mo
3. Mn
4. Zn
Answer: 1
Q41. Which of the following is
a micronutrient
1. Mg
2. Zn
3. Ca
4. P
Answer: 2
Q42. Which of following is
not an essential
micronutrient
1. Boron
2. Nickel
3. Manganese
4. Molybdenum
Answer: 2
Q43. Which of the following
elements is not required by
plant for their healthy normal
growth
1. Calcium
2. Magnesium
3. Lead
4. Iron
Answer: 3
Q44. Which one of the
following essential elements
can land plants normally
obtain directly from the air
1. Hydrogen
2. Carbon
3. Nitrogen
4. Phosphorus
Answer: 2
Q45. Which of the following
elements is necessary for
Page 7
2020
Answer: 1
Q38. Minerals absorbed by
roots move to the leaf
through
1. Xylem
2. Phloem
3. Sieve tubes
4. None of the above
Answer: 1
Q39. Plants absorb mineral
salts from the soil solution
through
1. Semipermeable
membrane into the
cytoplasm
2. Perforation at the apex
of root-hairs only
3. The cell wall which is
semipermeable
4. None of the above
Answer: 1
Q40. Which of the following
is macronutrient
1. Ca
2. Mo
3. Mn
4. Zn
Answer: 1
Q41. Which of the following is
a micronutrient
1. Mg
2. Zn
3. Ca
4. P
Answer: 2
Q42. Which of following is
not an essential
micronutrient
1. Boron
2. Nickel
3. Manganese
4. Molybdenum
Answer: 2
Q43. Which of the following
elements is not required by
plant for their healthy normal
growth
1. Calcium
2. Magnesium
3. Lead
4. Iron
Answer: 3
Q44. Which one of the
following essential elements
can land plants normally
obtain directly from the air
1. Hydrogen
2. Carbon
3. Nitrogen
4. Phosphorus
Answer: 2
Q45. Which of the following
elements is necessary for
UNIT-II : NUTRITION AND DIETETICS MCQs
Page
8
2020
translocation of sugars in
plants
1. Iron
2. Molybdenum
3. Manganese
4. Boron
Answer: 4
Q46. Which of the following
is present in the core of
chlorophyll molecule
1. Fe
2. Mg
3. K
4. Mn
Answer: 2
Q47. Which is not an essential
element for plants
1. Iron
2. Potassium
3. Zinc
4. Sodium
Answer: 4
Q48. Which one is an
inorganic nutrient
1. Cellulose
2. Vitamin
3. Calcium
4. Protein
Answer: 3
Q49. Chlorosis in plants
occur due to
1. High sunlight intensity
2. Low sunlight intensity
3. Absorption of yellow
pigments from the soil
4. Deficiency of Mg and Fe
in the soil
Answer: 4
Q50. Most of the plants
obtain nitrogen from the soil
in the form of
1. Free nitrogen gas
2. Nitric acid
3. Nitrites
4. Nitrates
Answer: 4
Q51. The science of food and
how the body uses it in
health and disease is called:
A. the dietary guidelines.
B. the food guide pyramid.
C. nutrition.
D. sensible eating.
Answer: d
Q52. Which of the following
would be considered
components of Public Health
Nutrition?
a) Dietary guidelines
b) Nutritional
epidemiology
Page
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translocation of sugars in
plants
1. Iron
2. Molybdenum
3. Manganese
4. Boron
Answer: 4
Q46. Which of the following
is present in the core of
chlorophyll molecule
1. Fe
2. Mg
3. K
4. Mn
Answer: 2
Q47. Which is not an essential
element for plants
1. Iron
2. Potassium
3. Zinc
4. Sodium
Answer: 4
Q48. Which one is an
inorganic nutrient
1. Cellulose
2. Vitamin
3. Calcium
4. Protein
Answer: 3
Q49. Chlorosis in plants
occur due to
1. High sunlight intensity
2. Low sunlight intensity
3. Absorption of yellow
pigments from the soil
4. Deficiency of Mg and Fe
in the soil
Answer: 4
Q50. Most of the plants
obtain nitrogen from the soil
in the form of
1. Free nitrogen gas
2. Nitric acid
3. Nitrites
4. Nitrates
Answer: 4
Q51. The science of food and
how the body uses it in
health and disease is called:
A. the dietary guidelines.
B. the food guide pyramid.
C. nutrition.
D. sensible eating.
Answer: d
Q52. Which of the following
would be considered
components of Public Health
Nutrition?
a) Dietary guidelines
b) Nutritional
epidemiology
Unit-III : TEXTILES
2
What is Textile terminologies- fibre, yarn, weave,
fabric etc., classification of fibers, yarns and
weaves, Identification of fibres and weaves?
INTRODUCTION
Plain
Cotton plain is woven the simplest link a simple crossbreeding
the warp and the weft. Cotton plain is the most widely used
textile fabrics in the production of technical fabrics, lining fabrics,
ladies and men’s dress and suit materials. Generally, fabrics made
using plain weave said plain. Our printed cotton plain is
called Diana which is the best selling of all textile fabrics from
our fabric shop online. Next we offer cotton plain Aruna, it is very
fine fabric. Grasi is the breathable fabric. Some example of fabric
with plain weave are organza, chiffon, taffeta or biaz
Flannel
Cotton flannel is fabric in plain weave. Flannel may be brushed
to create extra softness or remain unbrushed. The brushing process
is a mechanical process where a fine metal brush rubs the fabric to
create fine fibers from the loosely spun yarns. Typically are single
sided flannel or double sided flannel. Double-napped flannel refers
to a fabric that has been brushed on both sides. Flannel is quite
lightweight, gratifying and soft to the touch. Our flannel's printed
2
What is Textile terminologies- fibre, yarn, weave,
fabric etc., classification of fibers, yarns and
weaves, Identification of fibres and weaves?
INTRODUCTION
Plain
Cotton plain is woven the simplest link a simple crossbreeding
the warp and the weft. Cotton plain is the most widely used
textile fabrics in the production of technical fabrics, lining fabrics,
ladies and men’s dress and suit materials. Generally, fabrics made
using plain weave said plain. Our printed cotton plain is
called Diana which is the best selling of all textile fabrics from
our fabric shop online. Next we offer cotton plain Aruna, it is very
fine fabric. Grasi is the breathable fabric. Some example of fabric
with plain weave are organza, chiffon, taffeta or biaz
Flannel
Cotton flannel is fabric in plain weave. Flannel may be brushed
to create extra softness or remain unbrushed. The brushing process
is a mechanical process where a fine metal brush rubs the fabric to
create fine fibers from the loosely spun yarns. Typically are single
sided flannel or double sided flannel. Double-napped flannel refers
to a fabric that has been brushed on both sides. Flannel is quite
lightweight, gratifying and soft to the touch. Our flannel's printed
Unit-III : TEXTILES
3
cotton fabrics are calling Elmosa. Flannel is commonly used to
make tartan clothing, blankets, bedding sets and bed sheets.
Flannel fabrics are widely used in sleepwear of all textile fabrics.
Sateen
Cotton sateen is fabric in satin weave with a high sheen on the
face side, where a predominance of warp threads. The basic form is
a five-thread. Has the right or left direction by the direction of
binding points in its structure. It is used in weaving brocade, satin,
damask and sateen. Cotton sateen is used to sewing
3
cotton fabrics are calling Elmosa. Flannel is commonly used to
make tartan clothing, blankets, bedding sets and bed sheets.
Flannel fabrics are widely used in sleepwear of all textile fabrics.
Sateen
Cotton sateen is fabric in satin weave with a high sheen on the
face side, where a predominance of warp threads. The basic form is
a five-thread. Has the right or left direction by the direction of
binding points in its structure. It is used in weaving brocade, satin,
damask and sateen. Cotton sateen is used to sewing
Unit-III : TEXTILES
4
luxury bedding sets, curtains and blouses, evening gown or
underwear and nightwear.
Twill
Cotton twill we recognize by the fact that i tis made by a set of
diagonal parallel lines going to the fabric surface from right to left or
in the opposite direction. I tis used on technical fabrics, lining, ladies
dress materials, men‘s suits, military and police uniforms. The most
widespread and best known use id in the production of denim from
which to sew jeans.
4
luxury bedding sets, curtains and blouses, evening gown or
underwear and nightwear.
Twill
Cotton twill we recognize by the fact that i tis made by a set of
diagonal parallel lines going to the fabric surface from right to left or
in the opposite direction. I tis used on technical fabrics, lining, ladies
dress materials, men‘s suits, military and police uniforms. The most
widespread and best known use id in the production of denim from
which to sew jeans.
Unit-III : TEXTILES
5
Flax
Traditional material of plant origin. From the plants are
processed stemp, from which is possible on textile use utilize only
about 10%. Flax is stronger than cotton, good wicks moisture and
heat. Flaxy and blended fabrics are used for summer outerwear and
summer shoes, decoration, canvas and bookbinding.
Viscose
Viscose stands on the border between artificial and natural
fibers. Viscose is composed of pure cellulose obtained by
processing cotton as a waste or wood processing. It is thus
chemically produced from natural raw materials. Fibers have
properties of cotton, including a creasy and manufactured fabrics
5
Flax
Traditional material of plant origin. From the plants are
processed stemp, from which is possible on textile use utilize only
about 10%. Flax is stronger than cotton, good wicks moisture and
heat. Flaxy and blended fabrics are used for summer outerwear and
summer shoes, decoration, canvas and bookbinding.
Viscose
Viscose stands on the border between artificial and natural
fibers. Viscose is composed of pure cellulose obtained by
processing cotton as a waste or wood processing. It is thus
chemically produced from natural raw materials. Fibers have
properties of cotton, including a creasy and manufactured fabrics
Unit-III : TEXTILES
6
are often a mixture of viscose and cotton or wool. Fabric keep
natural character and viscose reduce final price.
CLASSIFICATION OF YARNS
Almost any textile yarn can be used to produce such interlaced
fabrics as woven and knitted types. In weaving, the warp, or
lengthwise, yarns are subjected to greater stress and are usually
stronger, smoother, and more even and have tighter twist than
the weft, or crosswise, yarns. A sizing (stiffening) material such
as starch may be applied to warp yarns, increasing their strength to
withstand the stresses of fabric construction operations. Weft yarns,
subjected to little stress during weaving, may be quite fragile.
Warp and weft threads used in the same fabric may be of differing
diameter, producing such special effects as ribbing or cording in the
fabric. Special effects may also be obtained by combining warp and
weft yarns of fibre from differing origin, or with different degrees of
twist, or by introducing metallic threads into weaves composed of
other fibres.
Yarns for machine knitting are usually loosely twisted because
softness is desired in knit fabrics.
Types of yarn
Yarns can be described as single, or one-ply; ply, plied, or
folded; or as cord, including cable and hawser types.
Single yarns
Single, or one-ply, yarns are single strands composed of fibres held
together by at least a small amount of twist; or of filaments grouped
together either with or without twist; or of narrow strips of material;
or of single synthetic filaments extruded in sufficient thickness for
use alone as yarn (monofilaments). Single yarns of the spun type,
6
are often a mixture of viscose and cotton or wool. Fabric keep
natural character and viscose reduce final price.
CLASSIFICATION OF YARNS
Almost any textile yarn can be used to produce such interlaced
fabrics as woven and knitted types. In weaving, the warp, or
lengthwise, yarns are subjected to greater stress and are usually
stronger, smoother, and more even and have tighter twist than
the weft, or crosswise, yarns. A sizing (stiffening) material such
as starch may be applied to warp yarns, increasing their strength to
withstand the stresses of fabric construction operations. Weft yarns,
subjected to little stress during weaving, may be quite fragile.
Warp and weft threads used in the same fabric may be of differing
diameter, producing such special effects as ribbing or cording in the
fabric. Special effects may also be obtained by combining warp and
weft yarns of fibre from differing origin, or with different degrees of
twist, or by introducing metallic threads into weaves composed of
other fibres.
Yarns for machine knitting are usually loosely twisted because
softness is desired in knit fabrics.
Types of yarn
Yarns can be described as single, or one-ply; ply, plied, or
folded; or as cord, including cable and hawser types.
Single yarns
Single, or one-ply, yarns are single strands composed of fibres held
together by at least a small amount of twist; or of filaments grouped
together either with or without twist; or of narrow strips of material;
or of single synthetic filaments extruded in sufficient thickness for
use alone as yarn (monofilaments). Single yarns of the spun type,
Unit-III : TEXTILES
7
composed of many short fibres, require twist to hold them together
and may be made with either S-twist or Z-twist. Single yarns are
used to make the greatest variety of fabrics.
Ply yarns
Ply, plied, or folded, yarns are composed of two or more single
yarns twisted together. Two-ply yarn, for example, is composed of
two single strands; three-ply yarn is composed of three single
strands. In making ply yarns from spun strands, the individual
strands are usually each twisted in one direction and are then
combined and twisted in the opposite direction. When both the
single strands and the final ply yarns are twisted in the same
direction, the fibre is firmer, producing harder texture and reducing
flexibility. Ply yarns provide strength for heavy industrial fabrics and
are also used for delicate-looking sheer fabrics.
Cord yarns
Cord yarns are produced by twisting ply yarns together, with
the final twist usually applied in the opposite direction of the ply
7
composed of many short fibres, require twist to hold them together
and may be made with either S-twist or Z-twist. Single yarns are
used to make the greatest variety of fabrics.
Ply yarns
Ply, plied, or folded, yarns are composed of two or more single
yarns twisted together. Two-ply yarn, for example, is composed of
two single strands; three-ply yarn is composed of three single
strands. In making ply yarns from spun strands, the individual
strands are usually each twisted in one direction and are then
combined and twisted in the opposite direction. When both the
single strands and the final ply yarns are twisted in the same
direction, the fibre is firmer, producing harder texture and reducing
flexibility. Ply yarns provide strength for heavy industrial fabrics and
are also used for delicate-looking sheer fabrics.
Cord yarns
Cord yarns are produced by twisting ply yarns together, with
the final twist usually applied in the opposite direction of the ply
Unit-III : TEXTILES
8
twist. Cable cords may follow an SZS form, with S-twisted singles
made into Z-twisted plies that are then combined with an S-twist, or
may follow a ZSZ form. Hawser cord may follow an SSZ or a ZZS
pattern. Cord yarns may be used as rope or twine, may be made
into very heavy industrial fabrics, or may be composed of extremely
fine fibres that are made up into sheer dress fabrics.
diagram of single, ply, and cord yarnsSingle, ply, and cord
yarns.Encyclopædia Britannica, Inc.
Novelty yarns
Novelty yarns include a wide variety of yarns made with
such special effects as slubs, produced by intentionally including
small lumps in the yarn structure, and synthetic yarns with varying
thickness introduced during production. Natural fibres, including
some linens, wools to be woven into tweed, and the uneven
filaments of some types of silk cloth are allowed to retain their
normal irregularities, producing the characteristic uneven surface of
the finished fabric. Synthetic fibres, which can be modified during
production, are especially adaptable for special effects such as
crimping and texturizing.
8
twist. Cable cords may follow an SZS form, with S-twisted singles
made into Z-twisted plies that are then combined with an S-twist, or
may follow a ZSZ form. Hawser cord may follow an SSZ or a ZZS
pattern. Cord yarns may be used as rope or twine, may be made
into very heavy industrial fabrics, or may be composed of extremely
fine fibres that are made up into sheer dress fabrics.
diagram of single, ply, and cord yarnsSingle, ply, and cord
yarns.Encyclopædia Britannica, Inc.
Novelty yarns
Novelty yarns include a wide variety of yarns made with
such special effects as slubs, produced by intentionally including
small lumps in the yarn structure, and synthetic yarns with varying
thickness introduced during production. Natural fibres, including
some linens, wools to be woven into tweed, and the uneven
filaments of some types of silk cloth are allowed to retain their
normal irregularities, producing the characteristic uneven surface of
the finished fabric. Synthetic fibres, which can be modified during
production, are especially adaptable for special effects such as
crimping and texturizing.
Unit-III : TEXTILES
9
Textured yarns
Texturizing processes were originally applied to synthetic
fibres to reduce such characteristics as transparency, slipperiness,
and the possibility of pilling (formation of small fibre tangles on a
fabric surface). Texturizing processes make yarns more opaque,
improve appearance and texture, and increase warmth and
absorbency. Textured yarns are synthetic continuous filaments,
modified to impart special texture and appearance. In the production
of abraded yarns, the surfaces are roughened or cut at various
intervals and given added twist, producing a hairy effect.
9
Textured yarns
Texturizing processes were originally applied to synthetic
fibres to reduce such characteristics as transparency, slipperiness,
and the possibility of pilling (formation of small fibre tangles on a
fabric surface). Texturizing processes make yarns more opaque,
improve appearance and texture, and increase warmth and
absorbency. Textured yarns are synthetic continuous filaments,
modified to impart special texture and appearance. In the production
of abraded yarns, the surfaces are roughened or cut at various
intervals and given added twist, producing a hairy effect.
Unit-III : TEXTILES
10
Examples of textured yarns
Bulking creates air spaces in the yarns, imparting absorbency
and improving ventilation. Bulk is frequently introduced by crimping,
imparting waviness similar to the natural crimp of wool fibre; by
curling, producing curls or loops at various intervals; or by coiling,
imparting stretch. Such changes are usually set by heat application,
although chemical treatments are sometimes employed. In the early
1970s bulky yarns were most frequently produced by the “false
twist” method, a continuous process in which the filament yarn is
twisted and set and then untwisted and heated again to either
stabilize or destroy the twist. The “stuffing box” method is often
applied to nylon, a process in which the filament yarn is compressed
in a heated tube, imparting a zigzag crimp, then slowly withdrawn.
In the knit-de-knit process, a synthetic yarn is knitted, heat is
applied to set the loops formed by knitting, and the yarn is then
unraveled and lightly twisted, thus producing the desired texture in
the completed fabric.
Bulk may be introduced chemically by combining filaments of both
high and low shrinkage potential in the same yarn, then subjecting
the yarn to washing or steaming, causing the high shrinkage
filaments to react, producing a bulked yarn without stretch. A yarn
may be air bulked by enclosing it in a chamber where it is subjected
to a high-pressure jet of air, blowing the individual filaments into
random loops that separate, increasing the bulk of the material.
Stretch yarns
Stretch yarns are frequently continuous-filament synthetic
yarns that are very tightly twisted, heat-set, and then untwisted,
producing a spiral crimp giving a springy character. Although bulk is
imparted in the process, a very high amount of twist is required to
produce yarn that has not only bulk, but also stretch.
10
Examples of textured yarns
Bulking creates air spaces in the yarns, imparting absorbency
and improving ventilation. Bulk is frequently introduced by crimping,
imparting waviness similar to the natural crimp of wool fibre; by
curling, producing curls or loops at various intervals; or by coiling,
imparting stretch. Such changes are usually set by heat application,
although chemical treatments are sometimes employed. In the early
1970s bulky yarns were most frequently produced by the “false
twist” method, a continuous process in which the filament yarn is
twisted and set and then untwisted and heated again to either
stabilize or destroy the twist. The “stuffing box” method is often
applied to nylon, a process in which the filament yarn is compressed
in a heated tube, imparting a zigzag crimp, then slowly withdrawn.
In the knit-de-knit process, a synthetic yarn is knitted, heat is
applied to set the loops formed by knitting, and the yarn is then
unraveled and lightly twisted, thus producing the desired texture in
the completed fabric.
Bulk may be introduced chemically by combining filaments of both
high and low shrinkage potential in the same yarn, then subjecting
the yarn to washing or steaming, causing the high shrinkage
filaments to react, producing a bulked yarn without stretch. A yarn
may be air bulked by enclosing it in a chamber where it is subjected
to a high-pressure jet of air, blowing the individual filaments into
random loops that separate, increasing the bulk of the material.
Stretch yarns
Stretch yarns are frequently continuous-filament synthetic
yarns that are very tightly twisted, heat-set, and then untwisted,
producing a spiral crimp giving a springy character. Although bulk is
imparted in the process, a very high amount of twist is required to
produce yarn that has not only bulk, but also stretch.
Textiles MCQs
2
1. What fiber is a synthetic
one composed by aliphatic or
semi-aromatic polyamides?
A Cellulose acetate
B Wool
C Nylon
D Cotton
Answer: c
2. The fibers from petroleum
are know as...
A Natural fibers
B Dirty fibers
C Synthetic fibers
D Artificial fibers
Answer: c
3. What fabric is made with
the fibers of flax plant?
A Cotton
B Silk
C Linen
D Polyester
Answer: c
4. Which is the synthetic fiber
most used now?
A Cellulose acetate
B Kevlar
C rayon
D Polyester
Answer: d
5. How can we divide the
different kinds of natural
fibers?
A Fibers of petroleum and
cellulosic origen
B Fibers of goats and
sheeps origen
C Fibers of anima and
mineral origen
D Fibers of animal and
vegetal origen
Answer: d
6. Which of the next fibers is
a synthetic one?
A All of the above
B Elastane
C Nylon
D Polyester
Answer: a
7. Synthetic fiber known for
its exceptional elasticity.
A Elastane
B Cellulose acetate
C Polyester
D Wool
Answer: a
2
1. What fiber is a synthetic
one composed by aliphatic or
semi-aromatic polyamides?
A Cellulose acetate
B Wool
C Nylon
D Cotton
Answer: c
2. The fibers from petroleum
are know as...
A Natural fibers
B Dirty fibers
C Synthetic fibers
D Artificial fibers
Answer: c
3. What fabric is made with
the fibers of flax plant?
A Cotton
B Silk
C Linen
D Polyester
Answer: c
4. Which is the synthetic fiber
most used now?
A Cellulose acetate
B Kevlar
C rayon
D Polyester
Answer: d
5. How can we divide the
different kinds of natural
fibers?
A Fibers of petroleum and
cellulosic origen
B Fibers of goats and
sheeps origen
C Fibers of anima and
mineral origen
D Fibers of animal and
vegetal origen
Answer: d
6. Which of the next fibers is
a synthetic one?
A All of the above
B Elastane
C Nylon
D Polyester
Answer: a
7. Synthetic fiber known for
its exceptional elasticity.
A Elastane
B Cellulose acetate
C Polyester
D Wool
Answer: a
Textiles MCQs
3
8. Synthetic fiber used as a
high-strength material.
A Kevlar
B Silk
C Nylon
D Rayon
Answer: a
9. Protein fiber composed
mainly of fibroin and
produced by certain insect
larvae to form cocoons.
A Wool
B Cotton
C Silk
D Linen
Answer: c
10. Which country is the most
important fibers importer
now?
A Germany
B EEUU
C China
D Andorra
Answer: c
11. Caustic soda mercerization of
cotton is carried out for
improvement a of
a. Strength and luster
b. Whiteness
c. Wetting
Answer: a
12. The tensile strength of the fiber
is ______________
a) Very Low
b) Low
c) High
d) Intermediate
Answer: c
Explanation: The tensile strength of
the fiber is high and depends upon
the strength of the chemical bonds
of the polymer chains.
13. Which of the following type of
bonding maintains the alignment of
chains of the polyester?
a) Vander Waal’s force
b) Dipole-dipole attraction
c) Hydrogen bonding
d) Covalent bonding
Answer: b
Explanation: Dipole-dipole attraction
are induced due to the dipole
formed by the alignment of negative
and positive charges and hence this
type of bonding maintains the
alignment of chains of the polyester.
3
8. Synthetic fiber used as a
high-strength material.
A Kevlar
B Silk
C Nylon
D Rayon
Answer: a
9. Protein fiber composed
mainly of fibroin and
produced by certain insect
larvae to form cocoons.
A Wool
B Cotton
C Silk
D Linen
Answer: c
10. Which country is the most
important fibers importer
now?
A Germany
B EEUU
C China
D Andorra
Answer: c
11. Caustic soda mercerization of
cotton is carried out for
improvement a of
a. Strength and luster
b. Whiteness
c. Wetting
Answer: a
12. The tensile strength of the fiber
is ______________
a) Very Low
b) Low
c) High
d) Intermediate
Answer: c
Explanation: The tensile strength of
the fiber is high and depends upon
the strength of the chemical bonds
of the polymer chains.
13. Which of the following type of
bonding maintains the alignment of
chains of the polyester?
a) Vander Waal’s force
b) Dipole-dipole attraction
c) Hydrogen bonding
d) Covalent bonding
Answer: b
Explanation: Dipole-dipole attraction
are induced due to the dipole
formed by the alignment of negative
and positive charges and hence this
type of bonding maintains the
alignment of chains of the polyester.
Textiles MCQs
4
14. Nylon-66, PET and PAN all have
Tg around ____________
a) 100
0
C
b) 200
0
C
c) 300
0
C
d) 500
0
C
Answer: a
Explanation: Nylon-66, PET and PAN
all have Tg around 100
0
C. The glass-
transition temperature Tg of a
material characterizes the range of
temperatures over which this glass
transition occurs. It is always lower
than the melting temperature, of the
crystalline state of the material, if
one exists.
15. Hydrogen bonding is responsible
for maintaining the alignment of
____________
a) Stereoregular chains of isotactic
polypropylene
b) Polyesters
c) Polyacrylonitrile
d) Polyamides
Answer: d
Explanation: Hydrogen bonding is
responsible for maintaining the
alignment of polyamides and
polyurethanes. Polyamides are
polymer of a type made by the
linkage of an amino group of one
molecule and a carboxylic acid group
of another.
16. Nylon-6 can be prepared by ring
opening polymerisation of
____________
a) Amino caproic acid
b) Caprolactum
c) Adipic acid
d) Terephthalic acid
Answer: b
Explanation: Nylon-6 can be
prepared by ring opening
polymerisation of caprolactum.
Caprolactum has 6 carbons and
hence, Nylon-6.
17. Which of the following is the
third step for the synthesis of nylon-
6?
a) Conversion of cyclohexane into
cyclohexanone
b) Ring opening polymerisation of
caprolactum
c) Conversion of cyclohexanone-
oxime into caprolactum
d) Conversion of cyclohexanone into
cyclohexanone-oxime
Answer: c
Explanation: Conversion of
cyclohexane into cyclohexanone is
the initial step. Then the second step
is the conversion of cyclohexanone
into cyclohexanone-oxime and then
the conversion of cyclohexanone-
oxime into caprolactum is the third
step for the synthesis of nylon-6.
4
14. Nylon-66, PET and PAN all have
Tg around ____________
a) 100
0
C
b) 200
0
C
c) 300
0
C
d) 500
0
C
Answer: a
Explanation: Nylon-66, PET and PAN
all have Tg around 100
0
C. The glass-
transition temperature Tg of a
material characterizes the range of
temperatures over which this glass
transition occurs. It is always lower
than the melting temperature, of the
crystalline state of the material, if
one exists.
15. Hydrogen bonding is responsible
for maintaining the alignment of
____________
a) Stereoregular chains of isotactic
polypropylene
b) Polyesters
c) Polyacrylonitrile
d) Polyamides
Answer: d
Explanation: Hydrogen bonding is
responsible for maintaining the
alignment of polyamides and
polyurethanes. Polyamides are
polymer of a type made by the
linkage of an amino group of one
molecule and a carboxylic acid group
of another.
16. Nylon-6 can be prepared by ring
opening polymerisation of
____________
a) Amino caproic acid
b) Caprolactum
c) Adipic acid
d) Terephthalic acid
Answer: b
Explanation: Nylon-6 can be
prepared by ring opening
polymerisation of caprolactum.
Caprolactum has 6 carbons and
hence, Nylon-6.
17. Which of the following is the
third step for the synthesis of nylon-
6?
a) Conversion of cyclohexane into
cyclohexanone
b) Ring opening polymerisation of
caprolactum
c) Conversion of cyclohexanone-
oxime into caprolactum
d) Conversion of cyclohexanone into
cyclohexanone-oxime
Answer: c
Explanation: Conversion of
cyclohexane into cyclohexanone is
the initial step. Then the second step
is the conversion of cyclohexanone
into cyclohexanone-oxime and then
the conversion of cyclohexanone-
oxime into caprolactum is the third
step for the synthesis of nylon-6.
Textiles MCQs
5
Ring opening polymerisation of
caprolactum is the last step.
18. The cyclohexanone is converted
into cyclohexanone-oxime by
____________
a) Treatment with hydroxylamine
b) Oxidation
c) Reduction
d) Backmann rearrangement
Answer: a
Explanation: The cyclohexanone is
converted into cyclohexanone-oxime
by treatment with hydroxylamine
because hydroxylamine act as a
catalyst for this reaction. This is the
second step for the synthesis of
Nylon-6.
19. Nylon-6,6 is made by the
condensation polymerisation of
hexamethylene diamine and adipic
acid in the molar ratio of
____________
a) 2 : 3
b) 1 : 2
c) 3 : 5
d) 1 : 1
Answer: d
Explanation: Nylon-6, 6 is made by
the condensation polymerisation of
hexamethylene diamine and adipic
acid in the molar ratio of 1 : 1.
Equivalent amounts of
hexamethylene diamine and adipic
acid are combined with water in a
reactor.
20. The nylon-6, 6 have high
crystallinity which imparts?
a) Low strength
b) Low meting point
c) Toughness and elasticity
d) Retention to poor mechanical
properties
Answer: c
Explanation: The nylon-6, 6 have
high crystallinity which imparts high
strength, high melting point,
elasticity, toughness and retention
to good mechanical properties.
21. Nylons are polar polymers and
have good hydrocarbon resistance.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Nylons are polar
polymers and have good
hydrocarbon resistance. Nylon resins
are widely used in the automobile
industry especially in the engine
compartment.
22. Which of the following is not an
application of nylon-6, 6?
a) Durable hair combs
b) Adhesives
c) Tyre cords
d) Medicine and pharmacy
5
Ring opening polymerisation of
caprolactum is the last step.
18. The cyclohexanone is converted
into cyclohexanone-oxime by
____________
a) Treatment with hydroxylamine
b) Oxidation
c) Reduction
d) Backmann rearrangement
Answer: a
Explanation: The cyclohexanone is
converted into cyclohexanone-oxime
by treatment with hydroxylamine
because hydroxylamine act as a
catalyst for this reaction. This is the
second step for the synthesis of
Nylon-6.
19. Nylon-6,6 is made by the
condensation polymerisation of
hexamethylene diamine and adipic
acid in the molar ratio of
____________
a) 2 : 3
b) 1 : 2
c) 3 : 5
d) 1 : 1
Answer: d
Explanation: Nylon-6, 6 is made by
the condensation polymerisation of
hexamethylene diamine and adipic
acid in the molar ratio of 1 : 1.
Equivalent amounts of
hexamethylene diamine and adipic
acid are combined with water in a
reactor.
20. The nylon-6, 6 have high
crystallinity which imparts?
a) Low strength
b) Low meting point
c) Toughness and elasticity
d) Retention to poor mechanical
properties
Answer: c
Explanation: The nylon-6, 6 have
high crystallinity which imparts high
strength, high melting point,
elasticity, toughness and retention
to good mechanical properties.
21. Nylons are polar polymers and
have good hydrocarbon resistance.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Nylons are polar
polymers and have good
hydrocarbon resistance. Nylon resins
are widely used in the automobile
industry especially in the engine
compartment.
22. Which of the following is not an
application of nylon-6, 6?
a) Durable hair combs
b) Adhesives
c) Tyre cords
d) Medicine and pharmacy
Textiles MCQs
6
Answer: b
Explanation: Durable hair combs,
tyre cords, medicine and pharmacy
are some of the applications of
nylon-6, 6.
23. Nylon-6, 6 have application in
medicine and pharmacy because of
____________
a) Elasticity
b) Toughness
c) Good hydrocarbon resistance
d) Sterilisability
Answer: d
Explanation: Nylon-6, 6 have
applications in medicine and
pharmacy because of sterilisability.
It is also used as an engineering
material in bearings and gears due
to its good abrasion resistance and
self-lubricating properties.
24. The other name for dacron is
____________
a) Polyethylene terephthalate
b) Polyacrylonitrile
c) Polyamidenitrile
d) Polyethylene caprolactum
Answer: a
Explanation: The other name for
dacron is polyethylene
terephthalate. It is the most
common thermoplastic polymer
resin of the polyester family and is
used in fibers for clothing, containers
for liquids and foods.
25. PET is prepared by heating
dimethyl terephthalate and ethylene
glycol in ____________
a) Acidic medium
b) Basic medium
c) Neutral medium
d) Water
Answer: b
Explanation: PET is prepared by
heating dimethyl terephthalate and
ethylene glycol in a basic medium at
moderate pressure (2.7–5.5 bar) and
high temperature (220–260 °C).
26. Terephthalic acid is converted
into its dimethyl ester by treating it
with ____________
a) Methyl chloride
b) Hydroxylamine
c) Methyl alcohol
d) Ethylene glycol
Answer: c
Explanation: Terephthalic acid is
converted into its dimethyl ester by
treating it with methyl alcohol. At
high temperature, TPA crystals
constantly dissolve and reform
which increases the release of 4-
formylbenzoic acid in solution where
oxidation can be completed.
6
Answer: b
Explanation: Durable hair combs,
tyre cords, medicine and pharmacy
are some of the applications of
nylon-6, 6.
23. Nylon-6, 6 have application in
medicine and pharmacy because of
____________
a) Elasticity
b) Toughness
c) Good hydrocarbon resistance
d) Sterilisability
Answer: d
Explanation: Nylon-6, 6 have
applications in medicine and
pharmacy because of sterilisability.
It is also used as an engineering
material in bearings and gears due
to its good abrasion resistance and
self-lubricating properties.
24. The other name for dacron is
____________
a) Polyethylene terephthalate
b) Polyacrylonitrile
c) Polyamidenitrile
d) Polyethylene caprolactum
Answer: a
Explanation: The other name for
dacron is polyethylene
terephthalate. It is the most
common thermoplastic polymer
resin of the polyester family and is
used in fibers for clothing, containers
for liquids and foods.
25. PET is prepared by heating
dimethyl terephthalate and ethylene
glycol in ____________
a) Acidic medium
b) Basic medium
c) Neutral medium
d) Water
Answer: b
Explanation: PET is prepared by
heating dimethyl terephthalate and
ethylene glycol in a basic medium at
moderate pressure (2.7–5.5 bar) and
high temperature (220–260 °C).
26. Terephthalic acid is converted
into its dimethyl ester by treating it
with ____________
a) Methyl chloride
b) Hydroxylamine
c) Methyl alcohol
d) Ethylene glycol
Answer: c
Explanation: Terephthalic acid is
converted into its dimethyl ester by
treating it with methyl alcohol. At
high temperature, TPA crystals
constantly dissolve and reform
which increases the release of 4-
formylbenzoic acid in solution where
oxidation can be completed.
Textiles MCQs
7
27. Blends of terylene fibers with
wool have better crease and wrinkle
resistance, they are more durable,
higher strength, do not shrink and
are not attacked by moths.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Blends of terylene
fibers with wool have better crease
and wrinkle resistance, they are
more durable, higher strength, do
not shrink and are not attacked by
moths. Terylene polyester staple
fiber is being used in staple-fibre
form in blends with both natural and
other synthetic fibers.
28. Which of the following is not an
application of dacron?
a) Magnetic recording tapes
b) Wide-necked jars for coffee
c) Car heater
d) Window shades
Answer: d
Explanation: Magnetic recording
tapes, wide-necked jars for coffee,
car heater are some of the
applications of dacron.
29. Acrylonitrile is ____________
a) Vinyl chloride
b) Methyl alcohol
c) Methyl chloride
d) Vinyl cyanide
Answer: d
Explanation: Acrylonitrile is a vinyl
cyanide. It is an organic compound
with the formula CH2CHCN and is
colorless volatile liquid, although
commercial samples can be yellow
due to impurities.
30. Select the incorrect statement
from the following option.
a) Orlon is the trade name of
polyacrylonitrile
b) Orlon fibers are quick drying and
resistant to water
c) Orlon fibers are less resistant to
acid, gases than nylon
d) Orlon fibers are used for
manufacturing window shades
Answer: c
Explanation: Orlon fibers are more
resistant to acid, gases than nylon.
All the other options are correct.
31. Polyacrylonitrile can be dissolved
in its monomer so it can be shaped
by bulk casting.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Polyacrylonitrile does
not dissolved in its monomer so it
cannot be shaped by bulk casting.
7
27. Blends of terylene fibers with
wool have better crease and wrinkle
resistance, they are more durable,
higher strength, do not shrink and
are not attacked by moths.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Blends of terylene
fibers with wool have better crease
and wrinkle resistance, they are
more durable, higher strength, do
not shrink and are not attacked by
moths. Terylene polyester staple
fiber is being used in staple-fibre
form in blends with both natural and
other synthetic fibers.
28. Which of the following is not an
application of dacron?
a) Magnetic recording tapes
b) Wide-necked jars for coffee
c) Car heater
d) Window shades
Answer: d
Explanation: Magnetic recording
tapes, wide-necked jars for coffee,
car heater are some of the
applications of dacron.
29. Acrylonitrile is ____________
a) Vinyl chloride
b) Methyl alcohol
c) Methyl chloride
d) Vinyl cyanide
Answer: d
Explanation: Acrylonitrile is a vinyl
cyanide. It is an organic compound
with the formula CH2CHCN and is
colorless volatile liquid, although
commercial samples can be yellow
due to impurities.
30. Select the incorrect statement
from the following option.
a) Orlon is the trade name of
polyacrylonitrile
b) Orlon fibers are quick drying and
resistant to water
c) Orlon fibers are less resistant to
acid, gases than nylon
d) Orlon fibers are used for
manufacturing window shades
Answer: c
Explanation: Orlon fibers are more
resistant to acid, gases than nylon.
All the other options are correct.
31. Polyacrylonitrile can be dissolved
in its monomer so it can be shaped
by bulk casting.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Polyacrylonitrile does
not dissolved in its monomer so it
cannot be shaped by bulk casting.
Textiles MCQs
8
32.----------------------------is more than
just clothing.
a) Apparel.
b) Garment.
c) Clothing.
d) Fashion.
Answer: d
33.-------------------------is a general
term referring to actual objects
related to the human body.
a) Costume.
b) Wardrobe.
c) Clothing.
d) Wear ability.
Answer: c
34. Historians have propounded
4.different explanations regarding
factors affecting clothing.
a) Protection.
b) Rituals.
c)Identification.
d)Adornment.
e) All the above.
Answer: e
35.----------------- and ---------------------
are also indicating of the social and
marital status of women.
a) Dress and ornament’s.
b) Mangalsutra.
c) Sindoor.
d) Black scarf.
Answer: a
36. In India, the coloured powder
put in the hair parting called -----------
------is a visual indicator of married
status of women.
a) Sandal powder.
b) Sin door powder.
c) Perfume.
d) Turmeric.
Answer: b
37. From the late 19th century a dust
coloured light weight cotton fabric
called---------------------was used by
the Indian Army during the British
Raj.
a) Poplin.
b) Khaki.
c) Silk.
d) Polyester.
Answer: b
38. Ritu Kumar was one of the
earliest pioneers of fashion with
extensive research in to block prints
and innovative application of the
technique of---------------------------------
----
a) Phulkari.
b) Mirror work.
c) Zardosiembroidery.
d) Dye-prints.
8
32.----------------------------is more than
just clothing.
a) Apparel.
b) Garment.
c) Clothing.
d) Fashion.
Answer: d
33.-------------------------is a general
term referring to actual objects
related to the human body.
a) Costume.
b) Wardrobe.
c) Clothing.
d) Wear ability.
Answer: c
34. Historians have propounded
4.different explanations regarding
factors affecting clothing.
a) Protection.
b) Rituals.
c)Identification.
d)Adornment.
e) All the above.
Answer: e
35.----------------- and ---------------------
are also indicating of the social and
marital status of women.
a) Dress and ornament’s.
b) Mangalsutra.
c) Sindoor.
d) Black scarf.
Answer: a
36. In India, the coloured powder
put in the hair parting called -----------
------is a visual indicator of married
status of women.
a) Sandal powder.
b) Sin door powder.
c) Perfume.
d) Turmeric.
Answer: b
37. From the late 19th century a dust
coloured light weight cotton fabric
called---------------------was used by
the Indian Army during the British
Raj.
a) Poplin.
b) Khaki.
c) Silk.
d) Polyester.
Answer: b
38. Ritu Kumar was one of the
earliest pioneers of fashion with
extensive research in to block prints
and innovative application of the
technique of---------------------------------
----
a) Phulkari.
b) Mirror work.
c) Zardosiembroidery.
d) Dye-prints.
UNIT-IV : APPAREL DESIGNING
D i w a k a r E d u c a t i o n H u b
Page 2
What is Body measurements-procedure, need,
figure types and anthropometry?
There are a variety of reasons why you may want to take your body
measurements. You could be making, tailoring, or purchasing
clothes, or you may be trying to gauge weight loss. Different
purposes will require different measurements but all are easy to
take with basic tools and maybe a helping hand. Use the following
steps when you take your measurements.
Method1
Using a Tape Measure
Use the correct type of tape measure. When taking body
measurements, you need to use the correct type of tape measure.
You will want to use a soft cloth or flexible plastic/rubber tape
measure, such as is used in sewing. Do not use a metal measuring
tape such as is used in construction.
2.Stand correctly. Stand straight, tall, and breathe normally when
taking measurements. Some measurements may be taken better
when exhaling, some when inhaling (it will depend on the purpose
of the measurement). This may be difficult to do yourself, so get a
friend to help you.
3.Measure correctly. You want to be sure that when you measure,
the tape is straight and in line with the appropriate body part. For
example, for most circumference measurements the tape will need
to be parallel to the floor while while lengths will need to be either
parallel or perpendicular (based on the line orientation of the body
part being measured).
D i w a k a r E d u c a t i o n H u b
Page 2
What is Body measurements-procedure, need,
figure types and anthropometry?
There are a variety of reasons why you may want to take your body
measurements. You could be making, tailoring, or purchasing
clothes, or you may be trying to gauge weight loss. Different
purposes will require different measurements but all are easy to
take with basic tools and maybe a helping hand. Use the following
steps when you take your measurements.
Method1
Using a Tape Measure
Use the correct type of tape measure. When taking body
measurements, you need to use the correct type of tape measure.
You will want to use a soft cloth or flexible plastic/rubber tape
measure, such as is used in sewing. Do not use a metal measuring
tape such as is used in construction.
2.Stand correctly. Stand straight, tall, and breathe normally when
taking measurements. Some measurements may be taken better
when exhaling, some when inhaling (it will depend on the purpose
of the measurement). This may be difficult to do yourself, so get a
friend to help you.
3.Measure correctly. You want to be sure that when you measure,
the tape is straight and in line with the appropriate body part. For
example, for most circumference measurements the tape will need
to be parallel to the floor while while lengths will need to be either
parallel or perpendicular (based on the line orientation of the body
part being measured).
UNIT-IV : APPAREL DESIGNING
D i w a k a r E d u c a t i o n H u b
Page 3
4.Wear appropriate clothing. You can’t get a very accurate
measurement when wearing baggy or thick clothing, so try to wear
clothes which fit closely or wear nothing at all. Similarly, breast
measurements for women will be most accurate when wearing a
well-fitting, unpadded bra.
If measuring for clothes tailoring, some measurements
will need to be taken with clothing on, such as pants
measurements and shoulder measurements.
5.Know when to measure circumference vs length. Different
measurements will need to be either circumference measurements
(the measurement around something) or length measurements (the
measurement between two straight points). Which is necessary
should be obvious but all will be indicated in the instructions below.
6.Write down your measurements. Make sure that you write down
the measurements as you take them, so that you do not forget them
and need to take them again.
Method2
1.Measure your upper arm. Measure the circumference around
the thickest part of your upper arm, usually at the bicep.
2.Measure your chest. Measure the circumference around your
chest at its widest point. For most men this will be at the armpits, for
most women this will be at the nipple line.[3]
3.Measure your waist. Measure the circumference around your
natural waist and your lower waist (two separate measurements).
The natural waist is the smallest point of your waist (unlike where
clothes’ waistlines are located these days) and is usually an inch or
two above your bellybutton.[4] Your lower waist is the widest part of
D i w a k a r E d u c a t i o n H u b
Page 3
4.Wear appropriate clothing. You can’t get a very accurate
measurement when wearing baggy or thick clothing, so try to wear
clothes which fit closely or wear nothing at all. Similarly, breast
measurements for women will be most accurate when wearing a
well-fitting, unpadded bra.
If measuring for clothes tailoring, some measurements
will need to be taken with clothing on, such as pants
measurements and shoulder measurements.
5.Know when to measure circumference vs length. Different
measurements will need to be either circumference measurements
(the measurement around something) or length measurements (the
measurement between two straight points). Which is necessary
should be obvious but all will be indicated in the instructions below.
6.Write down your measurements. Make sure that you write down
the measurements as you take them, so that you do not forget them
and need to take them again.
Method2
1.Measure your upper arm. Measure the circumference around
the thickest part of your upper arm, usually at the bicep.
2.Measure your chest. Measure the circumference around your
chest at its widest point. For most men this will be at the armpits, for
most women this will be at the nipple line.[3]
3.Measure your waist. Measure the circumference around your
natural waist and your lower waist (two separate measurements).
The natural waist is the smallest point of your waist (unlike where
clothes’ waistlines are located these days) and is usually an inch or
two above your bellybutton.[4] Your lower waist is the widest part of
UNIT-IV : APPAREL DESIGNING
D i w a k a r E d u c a t i o n H u b
Page 4
your waist, usually at the bellybutton or just below, where weight is
generally gained first.
4.Measure your hips. Measure the circumference around your hips
at the widest point. This will usually be roughly just above the crotch
line.
5.Measure your upper thigh. Measure the circumference around
your upper thigh at its widest point. This is usually ½ to 3/4’s of the
way up your thigh, from the knee.
6.Measure your calves. Measure the circumference around your
calf at its widest point, usually roughly ¾ of the way up from the
ankle.
7.Measure your weight. For weight monitoring, you may include
your body weight as a body measurement. This measurement will
need to be taken with a scale, either electronic or manual. You can
find scales for sale at many stores, or for use at gyms and doctor’s
offices.
8.Measure your height. The easiest way to measure your height is
to stand straight with no shoes on and place your back against a
wall. Using a pencil, place the pencil flat against the top of your
head with the writing end against the wall. Carefully mark your
height against the wall. Step away and measure from the mark
down to the floor using any measuring tape.
9.Calculate your body fat or BMI. You may wish to use the above
measurements to calculate your body fat or BMI if you are intending
to monitor your weight loss. Be aware that body fat calculations are
frequently inaccurate or unreliable, though BMI is a fairly accurate
way of measuring your weight (unless you are a fit athlete, in which
case better not).
D i w a k a r E d u c a t i o n H u b
Page 4
your waist, usually at the bellybutton or just below, where weight is
generally gained first.
4.Measure your hips. Measure the circumference around your hips
at the widest point. This will usually be roughly just above the crotch
line.
5.Measure your upper thigh. Measure the circumference around
your upper thigh at its widest point. This is usually ½ to 3/4’s of the
way up your thigh, from the knee.
6.Measure your calves. Measure the circumference around your
calf at its widest point, usually roughly ¾ of the way up from the
ankle.
7.Measure your weight. For weight monitoring, you may include
your body weight as a body measurement. This measurement will
need to be taken with a scale, either electronic or manual. You can
find scales for sale at many stores, or for use at gyms and doctor’s
offices.
8.Measure your height. The easiest way to measure your height is
to stand straight with no shoes on and place your back against a
wall. Using a pencil, place the pencil flat against the top of your
head with the writing end against the wall. Carefully mark your
height against the wall. Step away and measure from the mark
down to the floor using any measuring tape.
9.Calculate your body fat or BMI. You may wish to use the above
measurements to calculate your body fat or BMI if you are intending
to monitor your weight loss. Be aware that body fat calculations are
frequently inaccurate or unreliable, though BMI is a fairly accurate
way of measuring your weight (unless you are a fit athlete, in which
case better not).
UNIT-IV : APPAREL DESIGNING
D i w a k a r E d u c a t i o n H u b
Page 5
What is Equipments and tools used for
manufacturing garments-advancements and
attachments used for sewing machine. Types of
machines used and their parts?
At some point, we all think of starting own business rather than
continuing our day job till the retirement. If you are one of such
thinkers, this post is for you. Let me share that there are many fields
for starting a business from scratch you can choose.
Starting a business in the garment industry can be considered as
one such good option. You can start your business in garment
manufacturing sector or start your own clothing label (brands) and
open a retail store. It not necessary that the guy who has
experience in the apparel industry can only start a business in
readymade garment manufacturing and other can’t. Anyone can
enter into garment manufacturing business. I have seen many
newcomers are from different fields like IT professionals, bankers
and HR professionals have started their business in this industry.
Product designing and pattern making
Garment pattern made prior to garment sample development.
The pattern for a style can be made manually.
For the pattern making of the sample products, you may be
interested in software. For this, you can purchase CAD (computer-
aided design). There are other components of the CAD systems –
pattern grading, Marker planning, Nesting, Pattern digitization. For
printing the marker paper, you need a plotter machine. With the help
of CAD software, you can estimate fabric requirement accurately
and improve the garment fit.
D i w a k a r E d u c a t i o n H u b
Page 5
What is Equipments and tools used for
manufacturing garments-advancements and
attachments used for sewing machine. Types of
machines used and their parts?
At some point, we all think of starting own business rather than
continuing our day job till the retirement. If you are one of such
thinkers, this post is for you. Let me share that there are many fields
for starting a business from scratch you can choose.
Starting a business in the garment industry can be considered as
one such good option. You can start your business in garment
manufacturing sector or start your own clothing label (brands) and
open a retail store. It not necessary that the guy who has
experience in the apparel industry can only start a business in
readymade garment manufacturing and other can’t. Anyone can
enter into garment manufacturing business. I have seen many
newcomers are from different fields like IT professionals, bankers
and HR professionals have started their business in this industry.
Product designing and pattern making
Garment pattern made prior to garment sample development.
The pattern for a style can be made manually.
For the pattern making of the sample products, you may be
interested in software. For this, you can purchase CAD (computer-
aided design). There are other components of the CAD systems –
pattern grading, Marker planning, Nesting, Pattern digitization. For
printing the marker paper, you need a plotter machine. With the help
of CAD software, you can estimate fabric requirement accurately
and improve the garment fit.
UNIT-IV : APPAREL DESIGNING
D i w a k a r E d u c a t i o n H u b
Page 6
Fabric testing and fabric inspection
In garment manufacturing, fabric plays an important role in the
garment quality and product valuation as well as customer demand.
Secondly, 60-70 percentage cost incurred in fabrics in total garment
costing. That is why purchasing the right quality fabric for your
products is necessary. For the verifying the fabric quality parameter,
garment manufacturers prefer to set-up in-house fabric testing. You
may also like to purchase some basic fabric testing equipment – like
Fabric GSM testing machine,
weighing scale,
Meter scale,
Fabric inspection (visual inspection machine).
Color cabinet
Fibre content
Sample washing machine and Tumble drier
Fabric handing equipment in the fabric store
Fabric spreading machines
For small-scale garment manufacturing, manual spreading is
viable. But if you want to scale up your business and improve
cutting room productivity and reduce cutting room manpower,
automatic spreading machines must be considered. See this post to
D i w a k a r E d u c a t i o n H u b
Page 6
Fabric testing and fabric inspection
In garment manufacturing, fabric plays an important role in the
garment quality and product valuation as well as customer demand.
Secondly, 60-70 percentage cost incurred in fabrics in total garment
costing. That is why purchasing the right quality fabric for your
products is necessary. For the verifying the fabric quality parameter,
garment manufacturers prefer to set-up in-house fabric testing. You
may also like to purchase some basic fabric testing equipment – like
Fabric GSM testing machine,
weighing scale,
Meter scale,
Fabric inspection (visual inspection machine).
Color cabinet
Fibre content
Sample washing machine and Tumble drier
Fabric handing equipment in the fabric store
Fabric spreading machines
For small-scale garment manufacturing, manual spreading is
viable. But if you want to scale up your business and improve
cutting room productivity and reduce cutting room manpower,
automatic spreading machines must be considered. See this post to
UNIT-IV : APPAREL DESIGNING
D i w a k a r E d u c a t i o n H u b
Page 7
learn more about automatic fabric spreading process and auto
spreading machines.
Cutting table
You need cutting tables for fabric layering. You need a wide
and long table depending on the marker length and maximum fabric
width to be used. A number of fabric layers are spread over on the
flat table and whole plies are cut together as per marker. For check
and stripe design fabric layering where you need to match fabric
stripe and checks in the garment, a pin table is commonly used.
Cutting room machines and equipment
For the garment making fabric sheets need to cut as per
patterns. Various types of cutting machines are available for fabric
cutting. for cutting the fabric you can use a straight knife cutting
machine. For cutting few numbers of plies you can use round knife
cutting machine instead of the straight knife cutting machine. For
cutting small garment parts a band knife cutting machine is very
helpful.
Other fabric cutting machine, for the cutting room you may need
A fusing machine,
Ply number machine,
Piping cutting machine (automatic rib cutting machine)
Racks for storing cutting
Trolley for moving cutting from bundle section to sewing lines
D i w a k a r E d u c a t i o n H u b
Page 7
learn more about automatic fabric spreading process and auto
spreading machines.
Cutting table
You need cutting tables for fabric layering. You need a wide
and long table depending on the marker length and maximum fabric
width to be used. A number of fabric layers are spread over on the
flat table and whole plies are cut together as per marker. For check
and stripe design fabric layering where you need to match fabric
stripe and checks in the garment, a pin table is commonly used.
Cutting room machines and equipment
For the garment making fabric sheets need to cut as per
patterns. Various types of cutting machines are available for fabric
cutting. for cutting the fabric you can use a straight knife cutting
machine. For cutting few numbers of plies you can use round knife
cutting machine instead of the straight knife cutting machine. For
cutting small garment parts a band knife cutting machine is very
helpful.
Other fabric cutting machine, for the cutting room you may need
A fusing machine,
Ply number machine,
Piping cutting machine (automatic rib cutting machine)
Racks for storing cutting
Trolley for moving cutting from bundle section to sewing lines
UNIT-IV : APPAREL DESIGNING
D i w a k a r E d u c a t i o n H u b
Page 8
Heat transfer printer – if your designs have printed labels and
logo, you can install the heat transfer printer and do the
printing job in-house.
With the technology advancement, cutting automation is preferred
by medium and large-scale garment manufacturers. Cutting room
efficiency is improved by many folds after using automatic textile
fabric cutting machine.
Sewing machines
Sewing machines are the heart of the garment manufacturing
factories. Different types of sewing machines are available for
making the garment products. You need to select the right mix of
sewing machines for your products or product groups. For the
selection of sewing machines and the number of sewing machines
need to be purchased for setting up your factory, you can take
advice from an expert. Just for your quick reference, a list of sewing
machines is shown below.
Single Needle Lock Stitch (three different types of SNLS
machines are used depending on the operation. Normal
lockstitch machine, with under bed trimmer and equipped with
edge cutter)
Feed off the Arm
Single needle chain stitch machine
Multi-needle chain stitch machine (e.g. Kansai Special)
Overlock sewing machines
Flatlock machines – Flatbed and cylinder bed types
D i w a k a r E d u c a t i o n H u b
Page 8
Heat transfer printer – if your designs have printed labels and
logo, you can install the heat transfer printer and do the
printing job in-house.
With the technology advancement, cutting automation is preferred
by medium and large-scale garment manufacturers. Cutting room
efficiency is improved by many folds after using automatic textile
fabric cutting machine.
Sewing machines
Sewing machines are the heart of the garment manufacturing
factories. Different types of sewing machines are available for
making the garment products. You need to select the right mix of
sewing machines for your products or product groups. For the
selection of sewing machines and the number of sewing machines
need to be purchased for setting up your factory, you can take
advice from an expert. Just for your quick reference, a list of sewing
machines is shown below.
Single Needle Lock Stitch (three different types of SNLS
machines are used depending on the operation. Normal
lockstitch machine, with under bed trimmer and equipped with
edge cutter)
Feed off the Arm
Single needle chain stitch machine
Multi-needle chain stitch machine (e.g. Kansai Special)
Overlock sewing machines
Flatlock machines – Flatbed and cylinder bed types
UNIT-IV : APPAREL DESIGNING
D i w a k a r E d u c a t i o n H u b
Page 9
Double-needle lockstitch machine
Button holing machine
Button Sewing machine
Zig-zag sewing machine
Snap button attaching machine
For the garment sewing, there are many automatic and semi-
automatic machines are available. Some of the automatic sewing
machines are sewing operation and product specific. Like trouser
back pocket welting machine, Jeans back pocket setter and pocket
attachment in back panels. Logo embroidery machine.
Sewing room equipment (non-sewing machine)
Sewing room equipment includes – material handling systems,
sewing machine attachment and guides, WIP storing crate or bins,
and material transportation equipment. See the detailed list of non-
sewing machines and equipment Sewing is an important operation
in apparel manufacturing. It is called the heart of garments
manufacturing industry.
Before making a perfect garments, different cutting parts are joined
together and make a quality garment for the customer or buyer with
the help of various types of sewing machines, threads, needles,
tools and equipments. To get a quality products or garments sewing
section must be follow all the buyers’ specifications and
requirements.
What kind of tools, equipments and machines are essential for
sewing department in apparel industry? To get remarkable changes
on productions, every apparel professionals and apparel related
peoples should know about this topic Various types of machine,
D i w a k a r E d u c a t i o n H u b
Page 9
Double-needle lockstitch machine
Button holing machine
Button Sewing machine
Zig-zag sewing machine
Snap button attaching machine
For the garment sewing, there are many automatic and semi-
automatic machines are available. Some of the automatic sewing
machines are sewing operation and product specific. Like trouser
back pocket welting machine, Jeans back pocket setter and pocket
attachment in back panels. Logo embroidery machine.
Sewing room equipment (non-sewing machine)
Sewing room equipment includes – material handling systems,
sewing machine attachment and guides, WIP storing crate or bins,
and material transportation equipment. See the detailed list of non-
sewing machines and equipment Sewing is an important operation
in apparel manufacturing. It is called the heart of garments
manufacturing industry.
Before making a perfect garments, different cutting parts are joined
together and make a quality garment for the customer or buyer with
the help of various types of sewing machines, threads, needles,
tools and equipments. To get a quality products or garments sewing
section must be follow all the buyers’ specifications and
requirements.
What kind of tools, equipments and machines are essential for
sewing department in apparel industry? To get remarkable changes
on productions, every apparel professionals and apparel related
peoples should know about this topic Various types of machine,
UNIT-IV : APPAREL DESIGNING
D i w a k a r E d u c a t i o n H u b
Page 10
tools, and equipment’s for sewing dept. in RMG industry
Different types of machine, tools and equipment’s for sewing
section is must be needed to get desire products. To increase
garments production Quality inspector or supervisor always follows
up these kinds of machine, tools and equipments for sewing in the
garments industry.
Finishing machines and equipment
Finishing room activities involve garment checking, repair
defective garment, stain removing, mending, thread cutting, thread
removing, garment pressing and folding the garment. For these
processes, various types of finishing equipment are required. Like,
garment pressing equipment - Vacuum table and Steam iron for
pressing garments,
Garment checking tables,
Spotting gun etc.
Thread trimmers
For the garment finishing, various type finishing equipment is
there. Like bulk pressing, Tunnel finishing etc.
Garment packing
Garment folding is normally done manually. But garment
folding template is available in the market. In the garment packing
stage, hang tags must be attached to the garment. For tagging, you
need tag gun machine.
If you are making kids garment, one of compliance parameter, all
garments must be passed under needle detector machines. You
may need to buy a needle detector machine Types of Sewing
D i w a k a r E d u c a t i o n H u b
Page 10
tools, and equipment’s for sewing dept. in RMG industry
Different types of machine, tools and equipment’s for sewing
section is must be needed to get desire products. To increase
garments production Quality inspector or supervisor always follows
up these kinds of machine, tools and equipments for sewing in the
garments industry.
Finishing machines and equipment
Finishing room activities involve garment checking, repair
defective garment, stain removing, mending, thread cutting, thread
removing, garment pressing and folding the garment. For these
processes, various types of finishing equipment are required. Like,
garment pressing equipment - Vacuum table and Steam iron for
pressing garments,
Garment checking tables,
Spotting gun etc.
Thread trimmers
For the garment finishing, various type finishing equipment is
there. Like bulk pressing, Tunnel finishing etc.
Garment packing
Garment folding is normally done manually. But garment
folding template is available in the market. In the garment packing
stage, hang tags must be attached to the garment. For tagging, you
need tag gun machine.
If you are making kids garment, one of compliance parameter, all
garments must be passed under needle detector machines. You
may need to buy a needle detector machine Types of Sewing
APPAREL DESIGNING MCQs
2
Question 1
What is the density of fat free mass?
a) 0.900 g/cm
3
b) 0.730 g/cm
3
c) 1.100 g/cm
3
d) None of the above
Answer: c
Question 2
What is the typical body composition of
a normal weight young adult man?
a) Fat = 17%, Fat Free Mass=83%,
Intracellular Fluid= 40%, Extracellular
Fluid= 20%
b) Fat = 83%, Fat Free Mass=40%,
Intracellular Fluid= 17%, Extracellular
Fluid= 20%
c) Fat = 20%, Fat Free Mass=17%,
Intracellular Fluid= 40%, Extracellular
Fluid= 83%
d) Fat = 40%, Fat Free Mass=20%,
Intracellular Fluid= 17%, Extracellular
Fluid= 83%
Answer: a
Question 3
Which one of these organs has the
lowest energy expenditure per unit of
body mass (kg)?
a) Brain
b) Kidney
c) Liver
d) Skeletal Muscle
Answer: d
Question 4
What is the phenotype of a congenital
disorder impairing the secretion of
leptin?
a) Normal energy intake, normal
body weight and hyperthyroidism
b) Obesity, excess energy intake,
normal growth and hypoinsulinaemia
c) Obesity, abnormal growth,
hypothyroidism, hyperinsulinaemia
d) Underweight, abnormal growth,
hypothyroidism, hyperinsulinaemia
Answer: c
Question 5
Which of the following changes in body
composition are associated with ageing
in older adults?
a) Increased bone mass
b) Increased muscle mass
c) Increased body fat
d) All of the above
Answer: c
Question 6
What is a major limitation of using
BMI (body mass index) as a method of
body fat measurements?
a) It is not an accurate measure for
average people
b) It is more accurate than height-
weight tables
2
Question 1
What is the density of fat free mass?
a) 0.900 g/cm
3
b) 0.730 g/cm
3
c) 1.100 g/cm
3
d) None of the above
Answer: c
Question 2
What is the typical body composition of
a normal weight young adult man?
a) Fat = 17%, Fat Free Mass=83%,
Intracellular Fluid= 40%, Extracellular
Fluid= 20%
b) Fat = 83%, Fat Free Mass=40%,
Intracellular Fluid= 17%, Extracellular
Fluid= 20%
c) Fat = 20%, Fat Free Mass=17%,
Intracellular Fluid= 40%, Extracellular
Fluid= 83%
d) Fat = 40%, Fat Free Mass=20%,
Intracellular Fluid= 17%, Extracellular
Fluid= 83%
Answer: a
Question 3
Which one of these organs has the
lowest energy expenditure per unit of
body mass (kg)?
a) Brain
b) Kidney
c) Liver
d) Skeletal Muscle
Answer: d
Question 4
What is the phenotype of a congenital
disorder impairing the secretion of
leptin?
a) Normal energy intake, normal
body weight and hyperthyroidism
b) Obesity, excess energy intake,
normal growth and hypoinsulinaemia
c) Obesity, abnormal growth,
hypothyroidism, hyperinsulinaemia
d) Underweight, abnormal growth,
hypothyroidism, hyperinsulinaemia
Answer: c
Question 5
Which of the following changes in body
composition are associated with ageing
in older adults?
a) Increased bone mass
b) Increased muscle mass
c) Increased body fat
d) All of the above
Answer: c
Question 6
What is a major limitation of using
BMI (body mass index) as a method of
body fat measurements?
a) It is not an accurate measure for
average people
b) It is more accurate than height-
weight tables
APPAREL DESIGNING MCQs
3
c) It does not distinguish between
fat and fat free mass
d) All of the above
Answer: c
Question 7
What stable isotope is commonly given
for the measurement of total body
water?
a) Deuterium
b) Carbon 13
c) Nitrogen 15
d) Oxygen 18
Answer: a
Question 8
Which body composition method would
you use to measure body mineral
content?
a) Magnetic Resonance Imaging
b) Dual-energy X-ray
absorptiometry
c) Isotope dilution
d) Skinfold Thickness
Answer: b
Question 9
When using bioelectrical impedance for
measuring body composition, why does
an electrical current travel faster
through muscle than it does through
fat?
a) Muscle contains less water than
fat
b) Muscle contains more water than
fat
c) Muscle weighs more than fat
d) Muscle weighs less than fat
Answer: b
Question 10
What is the best method to estimate
changes in body fat during weight loss?
a) BMI
b) DXA
c) Four-compartment model
d) MRI
Answer: c
11. What kind of stitch would be most
commonly used for a hem?
Running stitch
Blind stitch
Whipstitch
Overcast stitch
Answer: b
12. On a sewing machine, what do you
call the part which holds the fabric in
place?
Surface plate
Fabric gauge
Presser foot
Tension control
Answer: c
13. If someone uses your good, sharp
sewing scissors to cut something other
3
c) It does not distinguish between
fat and fat free mass
d) All of the above
Answer: c
Question 7
What stable isotope is commonly given
for the measurement of total body
water?
a) Deuterium
b) Carbon 13
c) Nitrogen 15
d) Oxygen 18
Answer: a
Question 8
Which body composition method would
you use to measure body mineral
content?
a) Magnetic Resonance Imaging
b) Dual-energy X-ray
absorptiometry
c) Isotope dilution
d) Skinfold Thickness
Answer: b
Question 9
When using bioelectrical impedance for
measuring body composition, why does
an electrical current travel faster
through muscle than it does through
fat?
a) Muscle contains less water than
fat
b) Muscle contains more water than
fat
c) Muscle weighs more than fat
d) Muscle weighs less than fat
Answer: b
Question 10
What is the best method to estimate
changes in body fat during weight loss?
a) BMI
b) DXA
c) Four-compartment model
d) MRI
Answer: c
11. What kind of stitch would be most
commonly used for a hem?
Running stitch
Blind stitch
Whipstitch
Overcast stitch
Answer: b
12. On a sewing machine, what do you
call the part which holds the fabric in
place?
Surface plate
Fabric gauge
Presser foot
Tension control
Answer: c
13. If someone uses your good, sharp
sewing scissors to cut something other
APPAREL DESIGNING MCQs
4
than fabric, what can you cut to give
them back at least a little of their edge?
A thin fabric such as silk
Cotton batting
A thick fabric such as corduroy
Fine grade sandpaper
Answer: d
14. Tulle and toile are different terms
for the same fabric.
True
False
Answer: False
15. One way to finish a seam and keep
the fabric from raveling is to trim them
with what special type of shears?
Fiskars
Gingher
Pinking
Wiss
Answer: c
16. Will a bias-cut pattern require more
fabric than one cut on the grain of the
fabric?
Yes
No
Answer: Yes
17. A tailored garment will usually
require this sewing technique to fit
correctly on the more curved portions
of the body.
Sizing
Darts
Bar tacks
Notches
Answer: b
18. This type of stitch is useful before
your final stitching for holding together
pieces that are difficult to pin. It is also
used for gathering.
Answer: Baste
19. What is the most common way to
put together your fabric pieces when
sewing seams?
Wrong sides together
It doesn't really matter
One right side to one wrong side
Right sides together
Answer: d
20. When you make a mistake in
sewing, what essential tool might you
need?
Seam ripper
Serger
Pincushion
Sewing gauge
Answer: a
21. Pattern making is basically
divided in to
a)................ b)................
Answer: a) drafting, b) draping
4
than fabric, what can you cut to give
them back at least a little of their edge?
A thin fabric such as silk
Cotton batting
A thick fabric such as corduroy
Fine grade sandpaper
Answer: d
14. Tulle and toile are different terms
for the same fabric.
True
False
Answer: False
15. One way to finish a seam and keep
the fabric from raveling is to trim them
with what special type of shears?
Fiskars
Gingher
Pinking
Wiss
Answer: c
16. Will a bias-cut pattern require more
fabric than one cut on the grain of the
fabric?
Yes
No
Answer: Yes
17. A tailored garment will usually
require this sewing technique to fit
correctly on the more curved portions
of the body.
Sizing
Darts
Bar tacks
Notches
Answer: b
18. This type of stitch is useful before
your final stitching for holding together
pieces that are difficult to pin. It is also
used for gathering.
Answer: Baste
19. What is the most common way to
put together your fabric pieces when
sewing seams?
Wrong sides together
It doesn't really matter
One right side to one wrong side
Right sides together
Answer: d
20. When you make a mistake in
sewing, what essential tool might you
need?
Seam ripper
Serger
Pincushion
Sewing gauge
Answer: a
21. Pattern making is basically
divided in to
a)................ b)................
Answer: a) drafting, b) draping
APPAREL DESIGNING MCQs
5
22. The block pattern is placed
(or) wheeled on to pattern paper
to produce the .................
1. Answer: working pattern
23. A garment is a product
a. Two Dimensional
b. (b) Three Dimensional
c. (c) Four Dimensional
d. (d) None above
Answer: b
24. Pattern is a replica or a
garment (say True / False)
Answer: bT
25. Black pattern does not
included seam allowance, in lays
and hem allowance. (say True /
False)
Answer: T
26. A system of pattern making
deperds on a series figure
measurement to complete the
paper pattern.
a. Trueing
b. (b) Basic pattern set
c. (c) pattern drathing
d. (d) pattern draping
Answer: c
27. A two - dimensional piece or
fabric draped around a form, a
figure conferming to its shape
creating a three - dimensional
fabric pattern.
a. Drafting or pattern
b. (b) pattern draping
c. (c) Trueing
d. (d) set of pattern
Answer: b
28. A 5 - piece pattern set,
consisting of a front / back /
sleeve and skirt front, back is
called
a. Drafting
b. (b) Draping
c. (c) Trueing
d. (d) Basic pattern set
Answer: d
29. is the measurement added to
the patterns and line for comfort
(a) Test - fit
(b) (b) Ease
(c) (c) Figure balance
(d) (d) Fabric balance
Answer: b
30. A muslin garments cut from a
first pattern is called..............
a. Sample
b. (b) Template
c. (c) Test - fit
d. (d) Dress
Answer: c
31. a wedge - shape cutout in a
pattern used as a means of
controlling the fit of the garment
(a) Ease
(b) Garment balance
(c) Tracing
(d) Dart
Answer: d
5
22. The block pattern is placed
(or) wheeled on to pattern paper
to produce the .................
1. Answer: working pattern
23. A garment is a product
a. Two Dimensional
b. (b) Three Dimensional
c. (c) Four Dimensional
d. (d) None above
Answer: b
24. Pattern is a replica or a
garment (say True / False)
Answer: bT
25. Black pattern does not
included seam allowance, in lays
and hem allowance. (say True /
False)
Answer: T
26. A system of pattern making
deperds on a series figure
measurement to complete the
paper pattern.
a. Trueing
b. (b) Basic pattern set
c. (c) pattern drathing
d. (d) pattern draping
Answer: c
27. A two - dimensional piece or
fabric draped around a form, a
figure conferming to its shape
creating a three - dimensional
fabric pattern.
a. Drafting or pattern
b. (b) pattern draping
c. (c) Trueing
d. (d) set of pattern
Answer: b
28. A 5 - piece pattern set,
consisting of a front / back /
sleeve and skirt front, back is
called
a. Drafting
b. (b) Draping
c. (c) Trueing
d. (d) Basic pattern set
Answer: d
29. is the measurement added to
the patterns and line for comfort
(a) Test - fit
(b) (b) Ease
(c) (c) Figure balance
(d) (d) Fabric balance
Answer: b
30. A muslin garments cut from a
first pattern is called..............
a. Sample
b. (b) Template
c. (c) Test - fit
d. (d) Dress
Answer: c
31. a wedge - shape cutout in a
pattern used as a means of
controlling the fit of the garment
(a) Ease
(b) Garment balance
(c) Tracing
(d) Dart
Answer: d
APPAREL DESIGNING MCQs
6
32. The direction in which the
yarn is passing in the fabric.
a. Fibre
b. Grain
c. (c) Length wise
d. (d) Cross wise
Answer: b
33. Yarns parallel to selvedge and
at right angler to the cross grain
of woven fabric is called ...........
a. Cross Grain
b. (b) Balance live
c. (c) Bias (45’
d. ) (d) Length Grain
Answer: d
34. Finding and adjusting the
difference between joining
pattern parts to improve the
hang and fit of the garment is
called ...............
a. Garment balance
b. (b) Bicep line
c. (c) Pattern balance
d. (d) Grain
Answer: b
35. is the process of matching
two components to establish,
grain line, scane length and
pattern is
introduced
(a) Garment balance
(b) (b) Pattern balance
(c) (c) Fabric balance
(d) (d) Grain
Answer: a
36. A slanting or diagonal line cut
or sewn across the weave of the
cloth is called ...................
(a) Selvedge
(b) (b) Bias
(c) (c) Bowing
(d) (d) Muslin
Answer: b
37. is a line drawn on each
pattern piece to indicate low the
pattern should the aligned with
the length grain of the fabric
a. True bias
b. (b) Thick line
c. (c) Pattern grain line
d. (d) Arrows
Answer: c
38. at the top or the bottom
indicates that the pattern must
be placed in one direction only
a. Vertical
b. (b) Cross - wise
c. (c) Grain line with arrows
d. (d) Horizontal
Answer: c
39. grain line is drawn parallel
with center for garments to be
cut on straight grain
a. Cross wise
b. (b) Vertical
c. (c) Horizontal
d. (d) Bias
Answer: b
40. Garment cutting and
6
32. The direction in which the
yarn is passing in the fabric.
a. Fibre
b. Grain
c. (c) Length wise
d. (d) Cross wise
Answer: b
33. Yarns parallel to selvedge and
at right angler to the cross grain
of woven fabric is called ...........
a. Cross Grain
b. (b) Balance live
c. (c) Bias (45’
d. ) (d) Length Grain
Answer: d
34. Finding and adjusting the
difference between joining
pattern parts to improve the
hang and fit of the garment is
called ...............
a. Garment balance
b. (b) Bicep line
c. (c) Pattern balance
d. (d) Grain
Answer: b
35. is the process of matching
two components to establish,
grain line, scane length and
pattern is
introduced
(a) Garment balance
(b) (b) Pattern balance
(c) (c) Fabric balance
(d) (d) Grain
Answer: a
36. A slanting or diagonal line cut
or sewn across the weave of the
cloth is called ...................
(a) Selvedge
(b) (b) Bias
(c) (c) Bowing
(d) (d) Muslin
Answer: b
37. is a line drawn on each
pattern piece to indicate low the
pattern should the aligned with
the length grain of the fabric
a. True bias
b. (b) Thick line
c. (c) Pattern grain line
d. (d) Arrows
Answer: c
38. at the top or the bottom
indicates that the pattern must
be placed in one direction only
a. Vertical
b. (b) Cross - wise
c. (c) Grain line with arrows
d. (d) Horizontal
Answer: c
39. grain line is drawn parallel
with center for garments to be
cut on straight grain
a. Cross wise
b. (b) Vertical
c. (c) Horizontal
d. (d) Bias
Answer: b
40. Garment cutting and
APPAREL DESIGNING MCQs
7
manufacturing is based on
...............
a. Measurements
b. (b) Fit
c. (c) Style
d. (d) Fullness
Answer: a
41. The study or man and his
measurement is called ..............
a. Anatomy
b. (b) Anthropology
c. (c) Anthropometry
d. (d) Architecture
Answer: b
42. Component pattern template
are used in shop floor (True /
False)
Answer: T
43. Muslin cloth is used on dress
form for draping (True / False)
Answer: T
44. Which are the following
pattern making is / are widely
used in garment industry in
Bangladesh?
a. Draping
b. (b) Template
c. (c) Industrial pattern making
d. (d) Block pattern
Answer: c
45. Effectively lay length is
reduced while fabric width is
wider (True / False)
Answer: T
46. Effectively lay length reduced
while cloth width in wider (True /
False)
Answer: F
47. Any product capable of being
spun/ woven or otherwise made
into a fabric is
a. Fiber
b. (b) Yarn
c. (c) Thread
d. (d) Cotton
Answer: a
48. Conversion of a yarn is
carried out by a process termed
as
a. weaving
b. (b) spinning
c. (c) combing
d. (d) carding
Answer: b
49. A primary property of a textile
fiber which refers to adequate
strength is
a. Cohesiveness
b. (b) flexibility
c. (c) density
d. (d) tenacity
Answer: b
50. Find the odd one out
a) cotton
b) jute
7
manufacturing is based on
...............
a. Measurements
b. (b) Fit
c. (c) Style
d. (d) Fullness
Answer: a
41. The study or man and his
measurement is called ..............
a. Anatomy
b. (b) Anthropology
c. (c) Anthropometry
d. (d) Architecture
Answer: b
42. Component pattern template
are used in shop floor (True /
False)
Answer: T
43. Muslin cloth is used on dress
form for draping (True / False)
Answer: T
44. Which are the following
pattern making is / are widely
used in garment industry in
Bangladesh?
a. Draping
b. (b) Template
c. (c) Industrial pattern making
d. (d) Block pattern
Answer: c
45. Effectively lay length is
reduced while fabric width is
wider (True / False)
Answer: T
46. Effectively lay length reduced
while cloth width in wider (True /
False)
Answer: F
47. Any product capable of being
spun/ woven or otherwise made
into a fabric is
a. Fiber
b. (b) Yarn
c. (c) Thread
d. (d) Cotton
Answer: a
48. Conversion of a yarn is
carried out by a process termed
as
a. weaving
b. (b) spinning
c. (c) combing
d. (d) carding
Answer: b
49. A primary property of a textile
fiber which refers to adequate
strength is
a. Cohesiveness
b. (b) flexibility
c. (c) density
d. (d) tenacity
Answer: b
50. Find the odd one out
a) cotton
b) jute
APPAREL DESIGNING MCQs
8
c) linen
d) silk
Answer: d
51. The basis of poly propylene
fibers are
a) methane
b) propane
c) propylene
d) ethane
Answer: b
52. The secondary property of a
textile fiber is
a) tenacity
b) luster
c) flexibility
d) uniformity
Answer: b
53. Fibers that are measured in
centimeters or inch are
a) staplefibers
b) filament fibers
c) shorfibres
d) long fibres
Answer: a
54. Fibres that are measured in
miles or kilometers are
a) staplefibres
b) filament fibres
c) shortfibres
d) long fibres
Answer: b
55. Tenacity is the term usually
applied to the strength of
a) fibre
b) yarn
c) fabric
d) cotton
Answer: a
56. Denier is the term applied to
the strength of
a) fibre
b) yarn
c) fabric
d) cotton
Answer: b
57. The property of bending
without breaking is
a) bending sterngth
b) flexibility
c) spinning quality
d) tenacity
Answer: b
58. Cohesiveness is otherwise
termed as
a) spinning quality
b) uniformity
c) adhesivity
d) tenacity
Answer: a
59. Texturizing is the processes
that introduce
a) coils
b) crimp
c) zigzag shaping
d) all the above
Answer: d
60. Density is expressed as
a) mass per unit volume
b) relative mass per unit volume
c) none of the above
8
c) linen
d) silk
Answer: d
51. The basis of poly propylene
fibers are
a) methane
b) propane
c) propylene
d) ethane
Answer: b
52. The secondary property of a
textile fiber is
a) tenacity
b) luster
c) flexibility
d) uniformity
Answer: b
53. Fibers that are measured in
centimeters or inch are
a) staplefibers
b) filament fibers
c) shorfibres
d) long fibres
Answer: a
54. Fibres that are measured in
miles or kilometers are
a) staplefibres
b) filament fibres
c) shortfibres
d) long fibres
Answer: b
55. Tenacity is the term usually
applied to the strength of
a) fibre
b) yarn
c) fabric
d) cotton
Answer: a
56. Denier is the term applied to
the strength of
a) fibre
b) yarn
c) fabric
d) cotton
Answer: b
57. The property of bending
without breaking is
a) bending sterngth
b) flexibility
c) spinning quality
d) tenacity
Answer: b
58. Cohesiveness is otherwise
termed as
a) spinning quality
b) uniformity
c) adhesivity
d) tenacity
Answer: a
59. Texturizing is the processes
that introduce
a) coils
b) crimp
c) zigzag shaping
d) all the above
Answer: d
60. Density is expressed as
a) mass per unit volume
b) relative mass per unit volume
c) none of the above
APPAREL DESIGNING MCQs
9
d) both a and b
Answer: a
61. The primary property
essential for a fibre is
a) lustre
b) density
c) length to width ratio
d) resiliency
Answer: c
62. Lustre of fibres can be reduce
through the addition of
a) sodium hydroxide
b) titanium dioxide
c) diphosphate
d) pottasium dichromate
Answer: b
63. The ability of a fiber to return
to shape following compression,
bending or similar deformation is
termed as
a) elastic recovery
b) elongation
c) resiliency
d) spinning quality
Answer: c
64. If the arrangement of
molecules within the fibre are
parallel to each other and to the
longtitudinal axis of the fibre
then
a) high orientation
b) low orientation
c) crystalline
d) amorphous
Answer: a
65. If the arrangement of
molecules within the fibre are
parallel to each other but not
parallel to each other and to the
longitudinal axis of the fibre then
it is
a) high orientation
b) low orientation
c) crystalline
d) amorphous
Answer: c
66. When the fibre molecules are
arranged in random then it is
a) high orientation
b) low orientation
c) crystalline
d) amorphous
Answer: d
67 . --------------------- determine the
most efficient layout of patterns
a. Spreading
b. Pattern making
c. Marker planning
d. Plotting
Answer: c
68. ------------------- SPI means long
stitches
a. Low
b. High
c. Standard
d. Medium
Answer: a
69. Molecular slippage is likely to be at
a minimum in
a) amorphous areas
b) crystalline areas
9
d) both a and b
Answer: a
61. The primary property
essential for a fibre is
a) lustre
b) density
c) length to width ratio
d) resiliency
Answer: c
62. Lustre of fibres can be reduce
through the addition of
a) sodium hydroxide
b) titanium dioxide
c) diphosphate
d) pottasium dichromate
Answer: b
63. The ability of a fiber to return
to shape following compression,
bending or similar deformation is
termed as
a) elastic recovery
b) elongation
c) resiliency
d) spinning quality
Answer: c
64. If the arrangement of
molecules within the fibre are
parallel to each other and to the
longtitudinal axis of the fibre
then
a) high orientation
b) low orientation
c) crystalline
d) amorphous
Answer: a
65. If the arrangement of
molecules within the fibre are
parallel to each other but not
parallel to each other and to the
longitudinal axis of the fibre then
it is
a) high orientation
b) low orientation
c) crystalline
d) amorphous
Answer: c
66. When the fibre molecules are
arranged in random then it is
a) high orientation
b) low orientation
c) crystalline
d) amorphous
Answer: d
67 . --------------------- determine the
most efficient layout of patterns
a. Spreading
b. Pattern making
c. Marker planning
d. Plotting
Answer: c
68. ------------------- SPI means long
stitches
a. Low
b. High
c. Standard
d. Medium
Answer: a
69. Molecular slippage is likely to be at
a minimum in
a) amorphous areas
b) crystalline areas
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