Arab Board examination for Community Medicine.pdf

MCQS AND ASSAY
COVER

The Arab Board for Medical Specializations
Scientific Council for Family And community Medicine
Board Certification
In community Medicine

(PART I)

2007, 2008, (FROM 2014, TO 2021).
Dr.AbdulQawi Almohamadi
abdulqawiqaid.wordpress.com

Contents

COVER __________________________________________________________________ 1
Contents ________________________________________________________________ 2
MCQs 2007 ______________________________________________________________ 3
MCQs 2008 _____________________________________________________________ 14
MCQs 2014 _____________________________________________________________ 25
MCQs 2015 _____________________________________________________________ 35
Long Questions 2015 _____________________________________________________ 44
MCQs 2016 _____________________________________________________________ 45
Long Questions 2016 _____________________________________________________ 53
MCQs 2017 _____________________________________________________________ 54
Long Questions 2017 _____________________________________________________ 65
MCQS 2018 ____________________________________________________________ 66
Long Questions 2018 _____________________________________________________ 77
MCQs April 2019 ________________________________________________________ 78
Long Questions April 2019 _________________________________________________ 87
MCQs October 2019 ______________________________________________________ 88
Long Questions October 2019 ______________________________________________ 97
MCQs January 2021 ______________________________________________________ 98
Long Questions January 2021 ______________________________________________ 107
Answers Exam January 2021 ______________________________________________ 107

[2007 arab board for community medicine exam paper one (70%)- mcqs.]
Dr.AbdulQawi Almohamadi
Page 3 of 107
MCQs 2007

1. Epidemiology can be best defined as the study of
A. The etiology of disease in humans.
B. The distribution and determinants of health-related
states or events.
C. The patterns of organization and financing of health
care systems.
D. The frequency of causes of death.
E. The prevention and control of infectious diseases.

2. A slender 50-year-old with fair skin is being seen for a routine
pap smear. She is postmenopausal and in good health with no
known medical problems. She leads a sedentary life mostly
indoors. Which of the following preventive measures is most
appropriate for her?
A. Electrocardiogram.
B. Discussion of aspirin therapy.
C. Discussion of estrogen replacement therapy.
D. Instructions to use skin protection from UV light.
E. None of the above.

3. For a man aged 40 to 50 years, with no known medical
problems, which of the following screening tests should
routinely be performed?
A. Urinalysis.
B. Sigmoidoscopy.
C. Cholesterol.
D. Prostate specific antigen.
E. None of the above.

4. Which of the following is a leading potential cause of death
for a healthy child aged 2 years, for which a preventive
measure is available and which should be addressed with the
parents?
A. Lead toxicity
B. Motor vehicle accident
C. Tuberculosis
D. Pneumonia
E. Influenza

Q5-6:
A pharmaceutical company has developed a new treatment A for a
rare disorder that is associated with a high risk of death. It
conducted a randomized trial which included 200 subjects; half
were assigned the active treatment, and the other half placebo.
Thirty of the subjects receiving treatment died during the course of
follow-up; forty of those receiving placebo did.

5. The relative risk of mortality for drug A compared to placebo
is:
A. 30/100
B. 40/100
C. 30/40
D. 30/200
E. 40-30/ 200

6. The statistical test for the effect of drug A has a P-value (2-
Sided) = 0.027. Which of the following statements are correct
interpretations about this statistical result?
A. The probability that the null hypothesis is true is
2.7%.
B. If in fact drug A does not affect mortality, the
probability of observing a positive result is 2.7%.
C. If in fact drug A does affect mortality, the
probability of observing a positive result is 2.7%.
D. If in fact drug A does affect mortality, the
probability of observing a negative result is 2.7%.
E. None of the above

Q7-8:
A Case-control study was performed to determine the association
between cigarette smoking and acute myocardial infarction (MI).
Cases were patients with MI admitted to a single hospital, and
controls were patients hospitalized at the same hospital without a
diagnosis of MI. Trained interviewers then asked all subjects about
their prior smoking history. Assume that smoking does increase the
risk of MI.

7. What characteristic is NOT appropriate for the "control"
group?
A. Controls should be disease-free.
B. Controls should come from the same population
from which cases were selected.
C. Controls should have the same exposure as cases.
D. Restrictions applied to cases should also apply to
controls
E. Controls should receive full information about the
aims of the study

8. The most specific type of bias potentially found in Case-
Control studies is the...
A. Measurement bias
B. Random bias
C. Recall bias
D. Study cost
E. Loss to follow-up

Results
Drugs
Placebo
Total
Died
30
40
70
Living
70
60
130
Total
100
100
200

[2007 arab board for community medicine exam paper one (70%)- mcqs.]
Dr.AbdulQawi Almohamadi
Page 4 of 107
9. The preferred method for handling dropouts or non-
compliance with treatment in a randomized trial is to...
A. Analyze data according to the treatment actually
received by the patients, not to how they were
randomized.
B. Analyze data as in answer (a), but control for
baseline differences between groups in prognostic
factors.
C. Analyze data as though the patients randomized to a
given treatment actually received that treatment,
even though they may not have received that
treatment.
D. Analyze outcomes of patients who actually
complete the course as intended.
E. Analyze outcomes following the treatment received
or those based on treatments to which patients were
randomized, both are good approaches as long as
blinding technique were correctly used.

10. A flight carried 98 passengers, 47 of whom reported suffering
from gastrointestinal illness within four days of the flight. All
the following statements regarding the attack rate are true,
EXCEPT:
A. The attack rate is the incidence rate of
gastrointestinal illness among the flight passengers.
B. The attack rate is an appropriate incidence rate for a
specific group of individuals, under limited
circumstances.
C. 0.48
D. 0.12 per day.
E. The attack rate may underestimate the real incidence
of disease in this group if some mild cases are
missed.

11. The functions of Public Health surveillance include all the
following EXCEPT:
A. Data collection.
B. Data analysis.
C. Interpretation of reported data.
D. Dissemination of results.
E. Disease control action in response to outbreak
notification

12. The safest method of malaria prevention is:
A. Chemoprophylaxis.
B. Environmental control.
C. Combination of drugs and insecticides.
D. Biological control.
E. Genetic methods.

13. Diseases that may affect the fetus include all, EXCEPT:
A. Toxoplasmosis
B. Rubella
C. Tuberculosis
D. Cytomegalovirus
E. HSV

14. Which of the following is the most effective method for
family planning?
A. Oral contraceptive pills.
B. Withdrawal.
C. Safe period counts.
D. Condom use.
E. Traditional methods.

15. Breast feeding can improve all the following, EXCEPT:
A. Uterine involution.
B. Bonding.
C. Infant nutrition.
D. Infant immune system.
E. Prevention of HIV infection.

16. Of the following environmental hazards, the only one which
causes a non-threshold exposure is ...
A. Ionizing radiation.
B. Noise.
C. Heat.
D. Lead contamination.
E. Carbon monoxide poisoning.

17. The diagnostic power of a test is reflected by its
A. Sensitivity.
B. Specificity.
C. Predictive value.
D. Attributable risk.
E. Validity.

18. Which one is the most Cost-Beneficial technology in
improving public health in developing nations?
A. Safe water supply.
B. Oral rehydration solutions.
C. Hospitals in all communities with at least 1,000
population.
D. One doctor for 500 population.
E. Control of industrial pollution.

19. Folic acid supplementation is important in the prevention of
A. Byssinosis.
B. Intrauterine growth retardation.
C. Pellagra.
D. Neural tube defects.
E. Preeclampsia.

20. All of the following cancers have been associated with
occupational exposure, EXCEPT:
A. Bladder cancer.
B. Lung cancer.
C. Hematopoietic cancers.
D. Breast cancer.
E. Liver cancer.

[2007 arab board for community medicine exam paper one (70%)- mcqs.]
Dr.AbdulQawi Almohamadi
Page 5 of 107
21. How are numerical summaries of clinical measurements
affected by a frequency distribution that is skewed to the
right?
A. The mean and the median are equal.
B. The mean is larger than the median.
C. The median is larger than the mean.
D. The mode is larger than the median.
E. The mean and the median are larger than the mode.

22. The vector of Leishmaniasis is...
A. Culex fatigans.
B. Anopheles mosquito.
C. Phlebotomus sand-fly.
D. Aedes Egypti.
E. Culex mosquito.

23. Risk factors of gout include all the following, EXCEPT:
A. Hyperuricemia.
B. Alcohol consumption.
C. Lead exposure.
D. Female gender.
E. Use of diuretics.

24. A person working in hot environment and taking a lot of
water but no salt will develop a condition known as:
A. Heat stroke.
B. Heat syncope.
C. Heat cramps.
D. Heat exhaustion.
E. Heat hyperpyrexia.

25. Farmers are at risk of all the following, EXCEPT:
A. Malignant pustule.
B. Hydaditosis.
C. Toxic effects of pesticides.
D. Pulmonary anthrax.
E. Chronic skin changes.

26. Health care workers are at risk for developing which of the
following occupational diseases?
A. Silicosis.
B. Bilharziasis.
C. Byssinosis.
D. Bagatosis.
E. Hepatitis B infection.

27. The marginal cost in the context of health care refers to:
A. The cost of delivering one extra unit of services.
B. The cost of training and recruiting staff.
C. The cost of buildings and equipment.
D. The cost of all daily activities.
E. The cost on the consumers of care.

28. Basic resources for providing optimal health care include all
the following EXCEPT:
A. Doctors, nurses and other health personnel.
B. Health centers, hospitals and clinics.
C. Financial budgets.
D. Time factor.
E. Medical schools and health training institutions.

29. The process of day-to-day follow-up activities to ensure that
health programs are proceeding as planned is:
A. Evaluation.
B. Surveillance.
C. Monitoring.
D. Implementation.
E. Prioritization

30. The best indicator for the assessment of the nutritional status
of under-fives children is ...
A. Weight for age.
B. Height for age.
C. Weight for height.
D. Head circumference.
E. Skinfold thickness

31. Which one is the best indicator for the status of iron storage in
the body?
A. Hemoglobin concentration.
B. Total iron binding capacity.
C. Serum iron.
D. Serum ferritin.
E. Mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration

32. Learning can be affected by the following conditions,
EXCEPT:
A. Gender.
B. Intelligence.
C. Age.
D. Motivation.
E. Mental health.

33. Which of the following factors tends to increase patient's
compliance?
A. The presence of a psychiatric disorder.
B. The need for long-term treatment.
C. Significant behavioral change required.
D. Medicines with few side effects.
E. Treatment with lower costs.

[2007 arab board for community medicine exam paper one (70%)- mcqs.]
Dr.AbdulQawi Almohamadi
Page 6 of 107
Q 34-35:
An investigator wished to determine whether families with a
child with attention deficit disorder (ADD) have other family
members who develop depression more than do families
without children with ADD. Group I was made up of families
with a child identified as having ADD. through a community
psychiatry clinic. Group II was made up of families also seen
at the community psychiatry clinic for diagnoses other than
ADD. The groups were followed over one year and the
incidence of depressive episodes in the two groups was almost
similar.

34. What type of study was this?
A. Prospective cohort.
B. Case-control.
C. Clinical trial.
D. Historical cohort.
E. Exposure study.

35. The measure of association in this case...
A. Requires obtaining also the prevalence rates of
ADD in the population.
B. Can be measured even if one does not know how
large is the population from which participating
families were selected.
C. May be affected by the recall bias.
D. Is the odds-ratio.
E. Indicates that ADD is one family member is a
protective rather than a risk factor for depression.

36. The sensitivity rate of a test is defined as...
A. True negative rate
B. True positive rate
C. True positives + True negatives
D. Hundred minus false positive rates
E. Accuracy rate

37. Cross-Sectional Studies ...
A. Measure the incidence rate of a disease.
B. Measure the prevalence rate of disease.
C. Are useful for investigating rare conditions.
D. Identify the risk of occurrence of disease associated
with specific characteristics.
E. Are useful in investigating disease etiology.

38. Which ONE of the following diseases has the highest case-
fatality rate?
A. Rabies.
B. AIDS
C. Leprosy
D. Hemorrhagic fevers
E. Tuberculosis

39. Aluminum sulfate is commonly utilized in...
A. Milk purification
B. Decreasing air pollution
C. Prevention of radiation hazard
D. Sewage disposal
E. Water purification

40. Solid waste disposal in short-term refugee camps is best done
by...
A. Land filling of shallow trenches.
B. Composting.
C. Throwing on the road side.
D. Incinerating.
E. All of the above.

41. Which one of the following pesticides can cause pulmonary
fibrosis?
A. Organophosphates.
B. Parathion.
C. Halogenated hydrocarbons.
D. Paraquat.
E. Mercury compounds.

42. An important indicator of environmental air pollution is
A. Chlorine.
B. Fluoride.
C. Sulphur dioxide.
D. Carbon monoxide.
E. Hydrogen.

43. The best method for treating water from a very turbid source
is
A. Alum coagulation
B. Rapid sand filtration
C. Activated charcoal
D. Ozonation
E. Aeration

44. In a hospital-based case-control study of the association
between coffee consumption and the occurrence of pancreatic
cancer, a group of patients hospitalized after diagnosis of
pancreatic cancer was compared to a control group
hospitalized for other reasons. The patients hospitalized for
pancreatic cancer (cases) were found to consume significantly
more coffee than the controls. All of the following statements
represent possible explanations for the observed positive
association between coffee consumption and pancreatic
cancer, EXCEPT:
A. Heavy coffee drinkers may also be heavy smokers,
so smoking rather than coffee consumption is the
relevant causal factor.
B. Excessive coffee consumption causes pancreatic
cancer.
C. The hospitalized controls consumed less coffee, on
the average, than individuals in the general
population with no history of pancreatic cancer
resulting in a spurious association between coffee
consumption and pancreatic cancer.
D. The cases restricted their coffee intake after being
diagnosed with cancer.
E. The preferred measure of association in this case is
the odds-ratio.

[2007 arab board for community medicine exam paper one (70%)- mcqs.]
Dr.AbdulQawi Almohamadi
Page 7 of 107
45. All the following statements about observational studies are
true, EXCEPT:
A. Events are observed as they occur in nature, with no
active intervention on the part of the investigator.
B. The comparison groups may differ with respect to
factors related to the response variable.
C. Subjects may be followed forward in time from
exposure to occurrence of outcome, backward in
time from outcome to exposure, or evaluated at a
single point in time to concurrently assess outcome
and exposure.
D. They are especially useful in situations where it is
impossible, impractical, or unethical to manipulate
exposure to a suspected risk factor.
E. None of the above.

46. A pharmaceutical company wishes to evaluate the
effectiveness of an antihypertensive agent. It will be
submitted for regulatory approval only if it can be shown to
lower average systolic blood pressure by at least 10 mmHg
compared to a standard drug. The investigators calculate that
if they administer the new drug and the standard drug to two
groups of 100 subjects each, the study will be 90% certain of
detecting the relevant 10 mmHg difference, if it actually
exists. The power of the proposed study is
A. Greater than the power of a study that included 50
subjects in each treatment group.
B. Is defined as the probability of detecting the 10
mmHg difference in systolic blood pressure between
the comparison groups if no true difference exists.
C. Is equal to 0.90.
D. A & C
E. B & C

47. A Prospective Cohort Study ...
A. Employs subjects known at the onset to have the
disease in question.
B. Employs subjects known at the onset to be disease-
free.
C. Employs subjects whose exposure to a suspected
risk factor is comparable to that of the control group
at the onset of the study.
D. Is preferred in the study of rare diseases.
E. Is more ethical than a case-control study.

48. Vital statistics in most countries include data on all the
following, EXCEPT:
A. Death.
B. Birth.
C. Marriage.
D. Divorce.
E. Disability

49. The International Classification of Diseases (ICD) is
A. A relatively recent concept.
B. Needed to compare disease patterns between
countries.
C. Developed specifically for each of the WHO
regional offices.
D. Established at the Center for Disease Control in
Atlanta (USA).
E. Not available for ill-defined signs and symptoms
often encountered in primary health care practice.

50. The sequential temporality means that
A. That there are more than one cause acting in a
specific order to cause disease.
B. The relation between cause and effect is for limited
time.
C. There is an association between cause and effect
only in specific seasons.
D. The cause has occurred after the effect.
E. None of the above.

51. Biological plausibility means that...
A. The same findings may be observed by different
persons in different places.
B. The association between cause and effect is
biologically possible.
C. Greater levels of exposure lead to greater effects.
D. The effect of similar biological factors should be
considered.
E. None of the above.

52. Which of the following statements is correct regarding
population - based health management?
A. Epidemiology can make a significant contribution to
generating population-based health management
data.
B. This type of health management focuses on
assessing the health status of targeted populations
C. This management assesses the financial resources to
cover the health needs of a population.
D. A & B.
E. A & B & C

53. The attributable risk is defined as the...
A. Incidence of a disease in the exposed group.
B. Incidence of a disease in the non-exposed group.
C. Incidence in the total population.
D. Incidence in the exposed group divided by incidence
in the non- exposed group.
E. Excess risk due to the presence of a risk factor in a
given population.

[2007 arab board for community medicine exam paper one (70%)- mcqs.]
Dr.AbdulQawi Almohamadi
Page 8 of 107
54. Which value represents the strongest significant relative risk?
A. 1.3 (0.8 - 2.1)
B. 0.5 (0.4 - 0.6)
C. 2.4 (1.2 - 3.6)
D. 2.2 (1.2 - 3.6)
E. 2.6 (0.7 - 4.5)

55. What is/are the most specific problem(s) associated with
survey interviews, compared to postal surveys?
A. Higher costs.
B. Lower response rates.
C. Lower validity.
D. More important potential selection bias.
E. All of the above

56. In a case of streptococcal sore throat with at least 4 symptoms,
what is the probability of obtaining a positive throat culture?
A. 2.5%
B. 6-7%
C. 14.1-16.9%
D. 20-55%
E. None of the above

57. All of the following disorders are believed to be solely the
result of genetic factors EXCEPT:
A. Epilepsy.
B. Hemophilia.
C. Fibrocystic disease of the pancreas.
D. Multiple polyposis of the colon.
E. Xeroderma pigmentosum.

58. Treatment of a person with AIDS using AZT is what level of
prevention?
A. Primary prevention.
B. Secondary prevention.
C. Tertiary prevention.
D. Primordial prevention.
E. None of the above.

59. Virulence is defined as...
A. The propensity of Neisseria meningitides to produce
severe and fatal disease.
B. The capacity of the HIV virus to survive in defined
environments outside the human body.
C. The capacity of the influenza virus to enter, survive
and multiply inside the host.
D. The capacity of toxigenic E.coli to produce the
functional, morphologic and pathologic changes that
cause symptomatic disease.
E. The capacity of Salmonella species to resist
common antibiotics.

60. Pathogenicity is defined as...
A. The propensity of Neisseria meningitides to produce
severe and fatal disease.
B. The capacity of the HIV virus to survive in defined
environments outside the human body.
C. The capacity of the influenza virus to enter, survive
and multiply inside the host.
D. The capacity of toxigenic E.coli to produce the
functional, morphologic and pathologic changes that
cause symptomatic disease.
E. The capacity of Salmonella species to resist
common antibiotics.

61. Fertility refers to
A. The capacity to bear children.
B. The probability of conceiving in a given month.
C. The actual birth of living offspring.
D. The probability of conceiving in a given year per
1,000 women.
E. The ratio of live births to total pregnancies.

62. All the following techniques of early detection of
asymptomatic cancer are considered to be justified, EXCEPT:
A. Mammography.
B. Breast self-examination in younger women.
C. Papanicolaou (Pap) smear.
D. Fecal occult blood testing.
E. Chest radiography to detect lung cancer.

63. Town B has a higher crude mortality rate as a result of cancer
in men than in Town A. However, the age-standardized
mortality rate from cancer is higher in Town A than in town
B. What conclusions can be drawn from these data?
A. There were more deaths from lung cancer in Town
A than Town B.
B. There were more deaths from lung cancer in Town
B than in Town A.
C. Town A has a younger age distribution than Town
B.
D. Town B has a younger age distribution than Town
A.
E. None of the above conclusions may be made with
certainty with the given data.

64. The most frequent cancer site in Middle-East women is
A. Lung.
B. Breast.
C. Colorectal.
D. Uterus.
E. Ovary.

65. The oligo-element believed to have the greatest influence in
inhibiting the formation of free radicals which can cause
cancer is
A. Iron.
B. Selenium.
C. Copper.
D. Zinc.
E. Mercury.

[2007 arab board for community medicine exam paper one (70%)- mcqs.]
Dr.AbdulQawi Almohamadi
Page 9 of 107
66. Which of the following statements about child abuse is
correct?
A. Child abusers are most often unrelated to the child.
B. Most child abusers have psychotic or antisocial
personalities.
C. More than 95% of all serious head injuries of
children under the age of one are due to physical
abuse.
D. Child abuse is rare in most Arab countries and
should therefore not be reported to relevant
authorities.
E. None of the above.

67. The weight of high-school children who engage in
competitive sports is compared to that of students who do not.
The best way of testing whether differences are statistically
significant between the two groups is to use:
A. Chi-square test.
B. Correlation coefficient
C. Unbiased distribution
D. Student's t-test
E. Multivariate analysis

68. On a hot summer day in a large urban center, the emergency
room department reports an increase in admission for asthma
in children and young adults but not among patients suffering
from chronic bronchitis. The most likely air pollutant
responsible for exacerbation of asthma is:
A. Co
B. Ozone
C. N02
D. Particulate matters
E. Lead

69. The most important factor for heat-related illness is:
A. Obesity
B. Age over 65
C. Female gender
D. History of prior heat strokes
E. Low socio-economic status

70. Which statement regarding acute flaccid paralysis (AFP) is
not correct?
A. Countries which do not report AFP may not have a
good surveillance system for polio
B. The approximate AFP incidence rate is known for
any given population
C. The reporting of AFP is not mandatory
D. The main differential diagnosis for AFP is polio
E. AFP cases that are not caused by polio are most
often cases of Guillain-Barre syndrome

71. Diseases whose spread is linked to utilization of ventilation
systems in big building is:
A. Lyme's disease
B. Ebola fever
C. Asthma
D. Rubella
E. Legionellosis

72. The target population for early detection of chronic conditions
by periodic health examinations or mass screening programs,
consists of:
A. Asymptomatic, apparently well people
B. Cases diagnosed at the primary health care level
C. Attendants of out-patient facilities
D. Hospitalized in-patients
E. Persons who have signs and symptoms of the
disease

73. The epidemiological transition means that:
A. Chronic diseases are now a thing of the past
B. Nutritional problems are not a major public health
issue any more
C. This generation is expected to survive longer than
its grand-parents
D. Infant mortality rates have been decreasing steadily
E. Infectious diseases are better prevented through
immunization than through personal hygiene

74. If rapidly progressive cancers are missed by a screening test,
which type of bias will occur?
A. Lead-time bias
B. Length bias
C. Selection bias
D. Surveillance bias
E. Information bias

75. "The following figure shows that the height of a son is highly
correlated (r=l.02) with the height of his father. It indicates a
positive linear relationship between the two heights." Which
of the following statements is correct?

A. The association is not linear
B. The correlation is not positive
C. The correlation coefficient (r) should not be used in
this case
D. The value of the correlation coefficient (r ) is not
correct
E. The height of the son is not correlated with the
height of the father

[2007 arab board for community medicine exam paper one (70%)- mcqs.]
Dr.AbdulQawi Almohamadi
Page 10 of 107
76. Electromagnetic fields generated by high-voltage electric
power lines have been incriminated in causing
A. Lymphoma
B. Breast cancers
C. Diarrhea
D. Emphysema
E. Childhood leukemia

77. The fact that the combined effects of several exposures is
greater than the sum of the individual effects is known as:
A. Latency
B. Synergism
C. Threshold effect
D. Dose-response effect
E. Pedestalization

78. Which form of payment encourages physicians to require
more procedures and services than may be needed?
A. Fees paid by a Health Maintenance Organization
capitation system
B. A Public Health System in which doctors receive a
monthly basic salary
C. Fee-for-service without compensation to the patient
D. Fee-for-service with third-party repayment to the
patient
E. None of the above

79. Global warming may be associated with the emergence or re
emerging of all EXCEPT:
A. Dengue
B. Yellow fever
C. Rift Valley fever
D. Malaria
E. Bovine spongiform encephalopathy

80. Knowing that the sample mean is 23, the standard deviation is
0.5 and the sample size is 100. The 95% confidence interval
of the mean would approximately be:
A. [21-25]
B. [22-24]
C. [21-24]
D. [22.5-23.5]
E. [22.95-23.05]

81. Travelers to endemic malaria area should:
A. Get a prophylactic vaccine one week before
departure and a booster within three weeks of
returning
B. Consult a doctor for drug dosages to be used while
on that trip
C. Rely on mosquito repellent and bed screens to
prevent bites
D. Avoid having sex with someone living in that area
E. Remain under medical surveillance for a year if
infection with Plasmodium falciparum is suspected

82. In a study of heart surgery, one issue was the reduction effect
of a drug on the pulse rate of patients during surgery. The
available subjects were divided at random into two groups.
(group1) received the drug, the other (group 2) a placebo.
What would be the null and the alternative hypothesis
statements?
A. Ho: Mean1=Mean 2, and H1: Mean 1>Mean 2.
B. Ho: Mean1=Mean 2, and H1: Mean 1<Mean 2.
C. Ho: Mean1=Mean 2, and H1: Mean 1≠Mean 2.
D. Ho: Mean1<Mean 2, and H1: Mean 1=Mean 2.
E. Ho: Mean1>Mean 2, and H1: Mean 1=Mean 2.

83. In the control and prevention of meningococcal meningitis:
A. The carrier state is common in epidemics
B. Man and monkey are reservoirs of infection
C. Isolation of patients is of significance in disease
control
D. The infectious agent is Neisseria meningitides
E. No specific immunity follows clinical infection

84. The width of a confidence internal will decrease when which
of the following changes occur?
A. The desired level of confidence increases
B. The subject-to-subject variation in values of the
response variable increases
C. The sample size increases
D. The precision of the estimate of the population mean
decreases
E. The distance between the sample mean and the
population mean increases

85. All of the following infectious diseases are described as
zoonosis, EXCEPT:
A. Typhoid fever
B. Leptospirosis
C. Brucellosis
D. Rabies
E. Salmonellosis

[2007 arab board for community medicine exam paper one (70%)- mcqs.]
Dr.AbdulQawi Almohamadi
Page 11 of 107
86. Which of the following is the most common site of hospital-
acquired/ infections
A. Surgical wound
B. Respiratory tract
C. Skin
D. Urinary tract
E. Gastrointestinal tract

87. All of the following statements about tuberculosis are true,
EXCEPT:
A. The risk of developing tuberculosis is greater within
the first year following infection
B. Most cases of tuberculosis occur as a result primary
infection
C. Routine screening of general populations is no
longer recommended
D. INH chemoprophylaxis may be given to selected
high risk patients over 35 years of age
E. Most cases of tuberculosis can be successfully
treated with a 6-month drug regimen

88. The incidence of cholelithiasis is increased in all the
following, EXCEPT:
A. Persons with diabetes
B. Persons with chronic hemolytic anemia
C. Persons with hypercholesterolemia
D. Persons who are obese
E. Women

89. Infants of diabetic mother are not at risk of
A. Polycythemia
B. Hypomagnesaemia
C. Neonatal jaundice
D. Hypoglycemia
E. Traumatic delivery

90. Exposure to dimethyl mercury (organic mercury) found in
medical laboratories may cause all the following EXCEPT:
A. Cerebellar degeneration
B. Paresthesias
C. Gingivitis
D. Coma
E. Visual deficits

91. If the output of a program meets the expected outcome, then
the program is described as:
A. Adequate
B. Productive
C. Efficient
D. Effective
E. Relevant

92. Break point of chlorination means:
A. The start the chlorination process
B. Free residual chlorine starts appearing.
C. The end of chlorination process
D. Partial saturation of water with chlorine.
E. All of the above

93. Diagnostic criteria for the metabolic syndrome according to
the Adult Treatment Panel (ATPIII) include all the following
EXCEPT:
A. Abdominal obesity
B. Dyslipidemia
C. High blood pressure
D. High fasting glucose
E. Microalbuminuria

94. The best food source of iron is:
A. Dates
B. Whole wheat bread
C. Egg yolk
D. Raisins
E. Milk

95. Health equity is best measured by:
A. Infant Mortality Rates
B. Child growth
C. Survival rates
D. Medical rates
E. Primary health care (PHC) facilities

96. High parity may be associated with the following EXCEPT:
A. Hypertensive disorders of pregnancy
B. Cancer of the cervix
C. Breast cancer
D. A high risk of infant mortality
E. Gestational diabetes mellitus

97. Heat stability is lowest for:
A. Diphtheria vaccine
B. Hepatitis B vaccine
C. Dried measles vaccine
D. Dried BCG
E. Sabin vaccine for poliomyelitis

98. The mental illness is most likely to occur in young adults (15-
24) is:
A. Autism
B. Schizophrenia
C. Affective disorders
D. lnvolutional melancholia
E. Agitated depression

99. Which statement concerning oral rehydration solution (ORS)
is correct?
A. Contains salt, sugar and trace of vitamins and
minerals
B. Salt is included to improve the function of the small
intestine mucosa and increase water and sodium
absorption
C. Will help in preventing vomiting of the child
D. Mothers should not stop breast-feeding when giving
the ORS
E. Mothers should not give ORS to their children in all
types of diarrhea

[2007 arab board for community medicine exam paper one (70%)- mcqs.]
Dr.AbdulQawi Almohamadi
Page 12 of 107
100. In maternal care:
A. The safe motherhood initiative is related to the work
by UNISCO to prevent avoidable causes of deaths
among mothers.
B. The four pillars of the safe motherhood initiative
include antenatal care, female nutrition, hospital
delivery and family planning.
C. Risk status of pregnancy is determined from the
history taking during the first visit to the antenatal
D. Age at pregnancy and parity of the mother are
example of non avoidable risk factors during
antenatal
E. Pregnant mothers with previous still births and
abortions are considered among moderate to low
risk group.

101. In school health service, the following are true, EXCEPT:
A. School age groups represent an interval of
development that needs medical supervision.
B. The pattern of health problems in the community
will determine the shape of the school health
service.
C. It is not recommended to have a doctor in each
school as part of the school health service.
D. Families might be affected by health education
given to their children in schools.
E. Teachers have a minor role in the planning and
implementation of the school health service.

102. Regarding the status of newborns, infants and children in the
world, all the following statements are true, EXCEPT:
A. Preterm labor and low birth weight are two major
causes of neonatal and perinatal mortality in both
developing and developed world
B. Birth trauma and infection can be counted as the
major causes of death in the developing world
C. Respiratory distress syndrome is a health problem in
newborn that contributes a high percentage in their
mortality and morbidity
D. Tetanus neonatorum has become a minor cause of
death in the developing world
E. Infant mortality in Saudi Arabia can be reduced
more by the prevention of low birth weight, labor
complication and neonatal infections .

103. Natural passive immunity is obtained through...
A. Immunization
B. Acquired infections
C. Administered antibodies
D. Collective immunity
E. Trans placental antibodies

104. Which infectious agent is associated with high incidence of
liver cancer?
A. Hepatitis A Virus (HAV)
B. Human Papilloma Virus (HPV)
C. Helicobacter pylori
D. Hepatitis B Virus (HBV)
E. Malaria species

105. All the following features of polio may contribute to its
eradication, EXCEPT:
A. There exists a safe and inexpensive vaccine against
polio
B. Most cases of polio infection are asymptomatic
C. Polio may be attacked during a season of low
incidence
D. There is public demand for the eradication of this
disease
E. Natural or induced immunity is life-long

106. Vaccination may fail because of which factor?
A. Some vaccines cannot resist cold weather
B. Vaccines are used in populations different from
those in which they were developed
C. Drugs necessary to activate the vaccine were not
taken as prescribed
D. A vaccine was licensed for use in human
populations without proper controlled trials
E. Vaccinated individuals are too old to develop
antibodies to the vaccine

107. Acute respiratory infections in children
A. Are preventable with measles and whooping cough
vaccination.
B. Are measured with accurate statistics based on
advanced surveillance systems worldwide.
C. May cause death as a consequence of pneumonia.
D. May be transmitted from domestic animals acting as
reservoirs, and such animals should not be allowed
near children.
E. May be equally severe in developing than in
developed countries

108. Control of enteric diseases includes all EXCEPT:
A. Washing hands after touching a patient
B. Using white gowns
C. Isolating the utensils of the patients
D. Restricting visits
E. Using masks when caring for the patient

109. An endemic disease had a steady frequency over time in a
community. Recently, however, a new treatment has been
developed that prevents death but does not produce recovery
from the disease. The following will occur:
A. Incidence of the disease will increase
B. Incidence of the disease will decrease
C. Prevalence of the disease will increase
D. Prevalence of the disease will decrease
E. Both incidence and prevalence of the disease will
decrease

[2007 arab board for community medicine exam paper one (70%)- mcqs.]
Dr.AbdulQawi Almohamadi
Page 13 of 107
110. The "meningitis belt" refers to:
A. A special belt worn by African pilgrims during Hajj.
B. Abdominal pain accompanying meningitis infection.
C. A rush which appears in the mediastinum following
vaccination against meningitis infection.
D. Geographical area in central Africa where
meningitis is endemic.
E. The geographical area in Africa where meningitis
has been eradicated.

111. Cigarette smoking may cause all the following, EXCEPT:
A. Colo-rectal cancer
B. Emphysema
C. Stroke
D. Larynx cancer
E. Bladder cancer

112. The occurrence of an illness at a rate above the expected
number is called:
A. Epidemic
B. Endemic
C. Sporadic
D. Pandemic
E. Zoonotic

113. The "healthy worker effect" causes which kind of bias?
A. Selection
B. Confounding
C. Recall
D. Social
E. Measurement

114. The Health Belief Model (HBM) explains
A. The religious beliefs related to health.
B. The cognitive variables affecting the desire to
engage in health prevention.
C. What people think about causes of serious diseases
such as cancer.
D. Differences in the trust that people put in the
healthcare providers.
E. The association between demographic variables and
health beliefs.

115. What is the maximum quarantine incubation period to allow a
person coming from an infected area to enter a country?
A. One incubation period
B. Double the incubation period
C. Thrice the incubation period
D. One month
E. Two months

116. A man of 63 had been treated for some years for malignant
hypertension. While seriously ill with congestive heart failure,
he developed acute appendicitis. Appendectomy was carried
out successfully, but the heart condition deteriorated further
and he died 2 weeks later. The underlying cause of death was:
A. Malignant hypertension
B. Congestive heart failure
C. Cardiac hypertrophy
D. Acute appendicitis
E. Appendectomy

117. The target population for early detection of chronic conditions
either by periodic health examinations or mass screening
programs consists of:
A. Asymptomatic, apparently well people.
B. Individuals with symptoms and/ or signs of the
disease.
C. Cases diagnosed at the primary health care level
D. Hospitalized in-patients.
E. Users of emergency rooms

118. All the following statements regarding smoking are true,
EXCEPT:
A. As role-models, physicians should abstain from
smoking in public
B. Passive smoking is a serious health hazard for those
sharing living quarters with a smoker
C. It is not acceptable that the majority of male medical
students would be smokers
D. Proper enforcement of rules and regulations should
be considered in any smoking control program
E. Nicotine addiction is a desirable way of coping with
stress

119. Regarding the Gulf War Syndrome:
A. It has become a major public health problem in
Kuwait after Liberation.
B. It is a genetically determined syndrome.
C. It is a clearly defined bacteriological disease.
D. It is the label given by the UN to the malnutrition
and high mortality rates experienced by Iraqi infants
and children after the imposition of sanctions.
E. It is a collection of ill-defined health problems
experienced by soldiers from the coalition who had
received a variety of vaccinations prior to serving in
the Middle-East during the Kuwait Liberation War

120. Dermatitis, diarrhea and dementia are signs associated with
deficiency in vitamin...
A. A
B. B1 (Thiamine)
C. C
D. D
E. B3 (Niacin)

END OF THE EXAM

MCQs 2008 Arab Board For Community Medicine Exam Paper 1 (70%)
Dr.AbdulQawi Almohamadi
Page 14 of 107
MCQs 2008

1. For a man aged 40 to 50 years with no known medical
problems, which of the following screening tests should
routinely be performed?
A. Urine analysis
B. Sigmoidoscopy
C. Cholesterol
D. Prostate specific antigen
E. Electroencephalogram

2. Electromagnetic fields caused by high voltage electrical
lines have been incriminated in causing...
A. Lymphoma
B. Breast cancer
C. Diarrhea
D. Emphysema
E. Childhood leukemia

3. The medical records of 73 people with hepatitis B were
reviewed to determine if there is an association between
their previous vaccination status and their chances of
contracting hepatitis B. This type of study is
A. A case-control
B. A cohort
C. Cross-sectional
D. Correlational
E. Experimental

4. The crude birth rate, the most fundamental fertility
measure, uses
A. All births in the numerator and total population
in the denominator.
B. All births in the numerator and women 15-44
years of age in the denominator.
C. The sum of all the age-specific fertility rates by
single years of age.
D. Birth to women in a specific age range in the
numerator.
E. Total fertility rate minus crude death rate.

5. In an epidemic investigation of an outbreak of unknown
origin, which activity should be performed first?
A. Confirmation of the diagnosis for cases
B. Verification that an epidemic really exists
C. Development and testing of an explanatory
hypothesis
D. Proposal of measures for control of the health
problem
E. Search for additional cases of the suspect
disease

6. When a screening for HIV is performed, the ELISA test
is repeated if positive. If the second test is positive, a
Western blot is performed for confirmation. This serial
interpretation has which of the following effects?
A. Increases both the sensitivity and specificity
B. Increases the predictive positive value and
slightly decreases the sensitivity
C. Increases the predictive positive value and
slightly increases the sensitivity
D. Increases both the specificity and the predictive
negative value
E. Increases the sensitivity only

7. The two most important values usually necessary as a
description of the distribution of a series of quantitative
observations are...
A. Standard deviation and mean
B. Median and variance
C. Mode and range
D. Range and mean
E. Size of sample and standard deviation

8. The proportion of death cases from a specific disease
divided by all deaths is called...
A. An incidence rates
B. A point prevalence
C. A case fatality
D. A proportional mortality rates
E. A disease-specific mortality rate

9. Which of the following risk factors is associated with the
greatest number of cancer deaths?
A. Diet
B. Alcohol
C. Smoking
D. Obesity
E. Environmental exposure

10. A 21-year-old college student presented to the student
health center with complaints of cough and fever for a
few days. An erythematous maculopapular rash and
Koplick's mucosal spots are found on physical
examination. Which of the following statements is true
concerning this illness?
A. This illness is more common and more severe
in children compared with infants or adults
B. In the typical form, the rash is not a common
symptom
C. Conjunctivitis, excessive lacrimation and
photophobia are common symptoms
D. Prompt administration of immune globulins
soon after exposure does not alter the course of
the illness
E. Antibody protection after the infection lasts for
only 2 to 3 years

MCQs 2008 Arab Board For Community Medicine Exam Paper 1 (70%)
Dr.AbdulQawi Almohamadi
Page 15 of 107
Q11-12. :
A 72-year-old man has a 1-month history of angina
pectoris occurring at rest, lasting up to 20 minutes.
Episodes have been increasing in frequency and intensity
over the past few weeks. He has smoked 2 packs of
cigarettes per day for 50 years and has been under
treatment for hypertension for the last 15 years.

11. Which type of angina best describes this patient's pain?
A. Chronic stable angina
B. Variant angina (Prinzmetal's)
C. Silent ischemia
D. Unstable angina
E. Traditional angina

12. The initial step in the management of patients should be:
A. Admission to the hospital for further work-up
B. Observation for several hours in the emergency
room until pain resolves
C. Obtain ECG and follow patient on outpatient
basis if ECG is normal
D. Place patient on aspirin 325 mg per day and
instruct him to return to an office follow-up
visits in two
E. Reassure patient and send him home without
further follow- up

13. Which of the following is NOT true about the prevention
and treatment of Haemophilis influenzae infection?
A. Chemoprophylaxis with isoniazid for
household contacts under the age of 6 has been
recommended in cases of H.influenzae
meningitis
B. For normal healthy infants, H.influenzae
immunization begins at 2 months of age
C. A three-stage vaccination is available for
primary immunization and a booster
D. Treatment for life threatening illness from the
H.influenza may include both chloramphenicol
and ampicillin.
E. Protection with the vaccine lasts 5 to 10 years
or longer.

14. The following are primary preventive measures of
diabetes EXCEPT:
A. Genetic counseling
B. Encouraging exercise
C. Controlling weight
D. Giving appropriate doses of insulin
E. Encouraging complete immunization against
infection

15. Precautions in the administration of oral polio vaccine
include avoidance of vaccination in the presence of
which of the following conditions?
A. An Immunodeficient household contact
B. Prematurity
C. Diarrhea
D. Breast feeding
E. Low-grade fever

16. A pregnant 23-year-old women comes into the primary
care center with a diagnosis of pelvic inflammatory
disease. She is at LEAST risk for developing which of
the following
A. Premature rupture of membranes
B. Spontaneous abortion
C. Chorioamnionitis
D. Prematurity
E. Low birth weight infant

17. A 36-year-old obese man with documented diastolic
hypertension presents to your office. Which of the
following is LEAST likely to help improve his diastolic
hypertension?
A. Decreasing sodium intake
B. Weight loss program
C. Avoidance of excessive alcohol intake
D. Decreasing dietary fat intake
E. Regular exercise program

18. Human papilloma virus (HPV) infection has been
strongly associated with all the following cancers
EXCEPT:
A. Vulvar
B. Testicular
C. Anal
D. Cervical
E. Vaginal

19. The following drugs are effective treatments of
Salmonella typhi EXCEPT:
A. Chloramphenicol
B. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Septrim)
C. Ampicillin
D. Ketoconazole
E. Ciprofloxacin

20. Which of the following is true regarding dengue fever?
A. The infectious agent involved in dengue fever
is a parasite similar to Plasmodium species
B. Fatalities are common with this disease even in
the absence of hemorrhagic fever
C. The mode of transmission is by the bite of
infected sand flies
D. Prevention depends on the use of vaccine and
post-exposure immune globulin
E. Onset is sudden and violent

MCQs 2008 Arab Board For Community Medicine Exam Paper 1 (70%)
Dr.AbdulQawi Almohamadi
Page 16 of 107
21. All of the following are associated with a higher
mortality risk from diseases EXCEPT:
A. Having a low socio-economic
B. Status being female
C. Having few friends
D. Moving from one place to the other frequently
E. Being divorced

22. Which agent is most likely responsible for a chronic
infection leading to cirrhosis or primary hepatocellular
carcinoma?
A. HAV
B. HBV
C. HCV
D. HDV
E. HIV

23. The administration of human immune globulin after
exposure to the Hepatitis B virus is an example of…
A. Secondary prevention
B. Health promotion
C. Passive immunity
D. Hypersensitivity
E. Cross reactivity

24. All the following have been identified as major risk
factors for Coronary Heart Disease, EXCEPT:
A. High serum cholesterol
B. Uncontrolled elevation in blood pressure
C. Cigarette smoking
D. Lack of daily vigorous exercise
E. Family history

25. Which of the following vaccines would most likely be
dangerous to a person with immunodeficiency?
A. Tetanus
B. Typhoid
C. Diphtheria
D. HBV
E. Measles

26. Routine antenatal care for normal pregnant women
should include all the following EXCEPT:
A. Weight checks
B. Blood pressure checks
C. Hemoglobin level tests
D. Urine examination
E. Electronic fetal monitoring

27. Of the following, the most effective method of family
planning is...
A. Contraceptive pills
B. Withdrawal
C. Safe period
D. Condom
E. Traditional methods

28. The value of alpha serves as protection against...
A. Type I error
B. Type II error
C. Type III error
D. False negative results
E. Inadequate sample size

Q 29 – 31 :
A count of cases found the following distribution of
observation: 1, 2, 2, 2, 3, 5, 5, 6,6,18.

29. The mean is :
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
E. 7

30. The median is :
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
E. 7

31. The mode is:
A. 6
B. 5
C. 4
D. 3
E. 2

32. A randomized clinical trial was designed to compare two
different treatment approaches for epileptic attacks. The
purpose of randomization in this study was to
A. Obtain treatment groups of similar size
B. Select a representative sample of patients for
study
C. Increase patient compliance with treatment
D. Decrease the likelihood that observed
differences in clinical outcome are due to
chance
E. Obtain treatment groups with comparable
baseline values

33. The purpose of the informed consent in a clinical trial is
to
A. Increase the patient's knowledge of possible
risks and benefits of treatment options
B. Increase the level of patient's participation
C. Minimize the effect of placebo
D. Decrease the likelihood of patient blinding to
treatment assignment
E. Prevent the occurrence of malpractice suits

MCQs 2008 Arab Board For Community Medicine Exam Paper 1 (70%)
Dr.AbdulQawi Almohamadi
Page 17 of 107
34. Breast feeding usually improves all the following
EXCEPT:
A. Uterine involution
B. Bonding
C. Infant nutrition
D. Infant immune system
E. Prevention of HIV infection

35. Of the following environmental hazards, which one is the
only exposure with a Dose-response effect?
A. Ionizing radiation
B. Noise
C. Heat
D. Lead
E. Carbon monoxide

36. The site of most frequent and serious contact with
environmental hazards is
A. Skin
B. Hands
C. Eyes
D. Gastrointestinal Tract
E. Lungs

Q37- 38:
Dr.Baha observed a rapid recovery in one of his Hepatitis
C patients who sat in a hospital solarium daily. A review
of the literature revealed no reported effects of the sun on
the convalescence of hepatitis patients, so Dr Baha
published a summary of this patients unusual recovery.

37. Which of the following study designs has Dr.Baha used?
A. Case report
B. Case-control
C. Environmental cohort
D. Clinical trial
E. Cross-sectional report

38. Dr Baha enlists the support of several gastroenterologists
and designs a study whereby Hepatitis C patients, upon
hospital admission are alternately assigned to receive
either 2 hours of sun exposure daily or no sun exposure.
Which of the following study designs has Dr Baha used?
A. Case report
B. Case-control
C. Environmental cohort
D. Clinical trial
E. Cross-sectional report

39. An indicator measuring short term outputs in Extended
Programs of Immunization (EPI) is
A. Number of refrigerators available in centers to
keep vaccines in the cold chain
B. Number of vaccination sessions
C. Coverage rates
D. Decreases incidence of measles
E. Number of trained health workers in EPI

40. The leading cause of fatal home injuries among children
under five is
A. Burning
B. Explosions
C. Poisoning
D. Falls
E. Drowning

41. The best method for treating water from a very turbid
source is ...
A. Alum coagulation
B. Rapid sand filtration
C. Activated charcoal
D. Ozonation.
E. Aeration

42. The pollutants globally known as Volatile Organic
Chemicals tend to concentrate in:
A. Stagnant water
B. Air
C. Fatty tissues
D. Edible fish tissue
E. Soil

43. All of the following cancers have been associated with
occupational exposure EXCEPT:
A. Bladder cancer
B. lung cancer
C. Hematopoietic cancer
D. Breast cancer
E. Liver cancer

44. Principals of Primary Health Care include all the
following items EXCEPT:
A. Multisectorial approach to health
B. Appropriate technology
C. Equity of resource
D. Distribution sanitation
E. Emphasis on prevention

45. Which one of the following is a true statement regarding
the "need" for medical care and the "demand" for
medical care?
A. They are different because patients need care
but physicians demand it
B. They are different because "need" is
professionally defined and "demand" is patient
generated
C. Need" usually surpasses "demand"
D. They are different because "need" takes cost
into consideration
E. They are the same when barriers to care are
minimal.

MCQs 2008 Arab Board For Community Medicine Exam Paper 1 (70%)
Dr.AbdulQawi Almohamadi
Page 18 of 107
46. Medical ethics are founded on all of the following basic
principles, EXCEPT:
A. Disclosure of information
B. Non-malfeasance
C. Beneficence.
D. Justice
E. Respect for patient's autonomy

47. Which statement characterizes families in which spouse
abuse occurs?
A. Husbands of battered women have higher
education than the ones who are not
B. Women who were abused as children are more
likely to be abused by their spouse
C. Women whose mothers suffered abuse are
more likely to be abused than those who did
not witness
D. In the Arab world, men who batter women
should expect to be prosecuted
E. Older women are more at risk of spouse abuse
than younger ones

48. Emotional disturbance of the post-partum
A. Are more common after the birth of a male
child
B. Are more common with increasing parity
C. Rarely last for more than 1 week
D. Occur in at least 20%of women
E. Can be predicted through psychometric tests in
pre-natal care

49. When debating whether providing or withholding
medical treatment is ethical, the LEAST important
consideration should be...
A. The indications for medical intervention
B. Expected quality of life after the treatment
C. Patient's preferences
D. Physician's preferences
E. Economic factors

50. The nutritional disease characterized by depression,
dermatitis and diarrhea is...
A. Ariboflavinosis
B. Beriberi
C. Scurvy
D. Pellagra
E. Kwashiorkor

51. Which of the following statements concerning iron
requirements is correct?
A. Requirements of women are not affected by
menopause
B. Requirements are the same in men and women
C. They increase during pregnancy
D. Can be satisfied by cow's milk
E. Iron requirements during pregnancy does not
vary by the pregnancy's trimester

52. In a double-blinded clinical trial concerning the treatment
of osteoarthritis, half of the patients received a new drug
and the other half received a pharmacologically inert
substance. Two thirds of the patients in the former group
and one third of the patients in the latter group reported
relief of symptoms. The patients' perceptions of
improvement on treatment with an inert substance is best
described as...
A. Intention to treat
B. Confounding effect
C. Placebo effect
D. Type II error
E. False positive results

53. No difference in the 5-year survival percentages is
observed in one small clinical trial, despite the fact that
the new treatment is very promising. Failure to detect a
benefit for the new treatment is best described as...
A. Observer bias
B. Placebo effect
C. Type I error
D. Type II error
E. Survivor bias

54. Routine chest X-rays will result in the early diagnosis of
a lung cancer case, with no impact on delaying the
eventual time of death. The longer apparent duration of
such a case can be attributed to the
A. High sensitivity of chest X-rays
B. High correlation
C. Lead-time bias
D. Length bias
E. Low prevalence of lung cancer

Q55-56:
During an 8-hour shift in a building, 30 employees (20
females and 10 males) visited the company physician
with complaints of nausea, vomiting, headache and
dizziness. All affected individuals responded to
supportive treatment and were sent home.

55. If 600 persons worked in the building, then the attack
rate was...
A. 3%
B. 5%
C. 10%
D. 20%
E. 30%

56. If 400 females and 200 males worked in the building, the
male to female risk ratio was...
A. 0.3
B. 0.5
C. 1
D. 2
E. 3

MCQs 2008 Arab Board For Community Medicine Exam Paper 1 (70%)
Dr.AbdulQawi Almohamadi
Page 19 of 107
Q57-59.:
A survey of all workers was conducted to determine
whether other persons were affected beyond those who
sought care at the physician's office. All 600 employees
were surveyed, and 400 questionnaires were completed
and returned. A total of 80 persons reported symptoms
consistent with the syndrome observed among workers
who sought medical attention.

57. The response rate to the questionnaire is nearest to...
A. 5.0%
B. 7.5%
C. 20.0%
D. 37.5%
E. 67.0%

58. Based on the survey data, the attack rate was...
A. 5.0%
B. 7.5%
C. 20.0%
D. 37.5%
E. 67.0%

59. In this case, the possibility of a secondary attack among
contacts would most likely indicate...
A. A point exposure
B. Vector transmission
C. Sexual transmission
D. Fecal-oral contamination
E. Person-to-person transmission

60. Which of the following is the best measure to estimate
the proportion of children newly entering school with
auditory defects?
A. Incidence rate
B. Prevalence
C. Risk ratio
D. Median survival
E. Case fatality

61. In a cohort study of hormone replacement therapy (HRT)
and risk of coronary artery disease (CAD), high-income
level is associated with both HRT and risk of CAD.
Which statement best describes the effect of "high
income" as a variable in this analysis?
A. Selection bias
B. Misclassification bias
C. Confounding
D. Ecological fallacy
E. Random error

62. In a cohort study of the relationship between dietary
supplementation and the occurrence of hip fractures, the
relative risk of hip fractures with supplementation was
0.5 with a 95% CI of 0.18 - 1.41. The correct
interpretation of this finding is that…
A. A significant association exists between
calcium supplementation and lower risk of hip
fracture.
B. The association between calcium
supplementation and risk of hip fracture should
not have been measured with the relative
risk.
C. The risk of hip fracture with calcium
supplementation is not statistically significant
from the risk.
D. One can conclude with 95% confidence that
calcium supplement protects against hip
fracture.
E. A Chi-square test should be performed to
assess the statistical significance of the
association.

Q63-66. :
A sea resort has a population of 99,000 which can be
divided into three age ranges: 25 - 44, 45-64 and 65 and
older. Each comprises one third of the population. In July
2003, 100 cases of hepatitis A occurred in the resort and
were traced to contaminated oysters. Of these 100 cases,
20 were between ages 25-44, 10 between ages 45-64
and five over the age of 64 ultimately proved fatal.
Before 2003 no cases had been reported among the
inhabitants of the resort.

63. What is the crude death rate (per 1000 residents) in the
resort?
A. 0.354
B. 1.01
C. 1.06
D. 35.4
E. Cannot be determined from the given data

64. What is the incidence of hepatitis A (per 1000) in July
2003?
A. 0.35
B. 1.01
C. 40
D. 350
E. Cannot be determined from the given data

65. What is the age specific mortality rate (per 10,000) for
residents over 64 years of age?
A. 1.52
B. 3.03
C. 3.54
D. 4.55
E. 6.06

66. What is the case fatality rate for hepatitis A?
A. 3.03 per 10,000
B. 3.54 per 10,000
C. 350 per 1000
D. per 1000
E. Cannot be determined from the given data

MCQs 2008 Arab Board For Community Medicine Exam Paper 1 (70%)
Dr.AbdulQawi Almohamadi
Page 20 of 107
67. Regarding statistical tests, which of the following is
NOT true?
A. Paired t-test is useful in the analysis of
qualitative data
B. The Student's t-test is used to compare two
independent sample means with an assumption
of equal
C. The z-score is the number of standard
deviations at which a value in a normally
distributed population lies away from the mean
D. Chi-square test is used in testing the
relationship between two proportions
E. The correlation coefficient is used to test the
relation between two continuous variables

68. Which of the following changes will decrease the width
of a confidence internal?
A. Increase in the level of confidence
B. Increase in subject-to-subject variation in
response variables
C. Increase in the sample size
D. Decrease in the precision of the estimate of the
population mean
E. Increase between the sample mean and the
population mean

Q69-72.:
Assume that you are evaluating a new screening test in a
population of 1000 people, of whom 75 are known cases
for the disorder under screening. Of the 75 afflicted
persons, 50 yield positive test results; 75 of the normal
people also have positive test results.

69. From this information, the sensitivity for the test is
A. 85%
B. 67%
C. 58%
D. 92%
E. Cannot be measured with the data provided

70. From this information, the specificity for the test is
A. 9%
B. 33%
C. 40%
D. 87%
E. 92%

71. From this information, the positive predictive value for
the test is
A. 60%
B. 40%
C. 20%
D. 10%
E. 97%

72. From this information, the negative predictive value for
the test is
A. 33%
B. 40%
C. 50%
D. 88%
E. 97%

73. Which one of the following diseases has not been linked
to cigarette smoking?
A. Carcinoma of the larynx
B. Hypertension
C. Abruption of placenta
D. Carcinoma of the colon
E. Alzheimer's disease

74. Of the following factors listed, which is the most
important factor in determining the success of a smoking
cessation program in an individual?
A. The desire of the patient to quit smoking
B. An effective pharmacologic agent
C. The inclusion of a behavior modification
component to the program
D. Physician's advice to quit smoking
E. Repeated office visits

75. Which of the following facts regarding colon cancer
screening is correct?
A. The US Task Force recommends only two
screening methods: fecal occult, blood testing
and colonoscopy.
B. Patients should be informed of the risk of
perforation or serious bleeding from
colonoscopy is about one/thousand procedures
in the community
C. Colonoscopy has been proved to reduce
mortality in large scale screening trials
D. Colon preparation for colonoscopy involves the
administration of two enemas before the
procedure
E. Fecal occult blood testing involves virtually no
preparation on the part of the patient

76. Which one of the following is NOT a risk factor for
breast carcinoma?
A. First degree relative with breast cancer
B. Nulliparity
C. Birth of first child after age 35
D. Early menarche
E. Breast feeding

Results
Positive

Negative

Total
Disease
50
25
75
Healthy
75
850
925
Total
125
875
1000

MCQs 2008 Arab Board For Community Medicine Exam Paper 1 (70%)
Dr.AbdulQawi Almohamadi
Page 21 of 107
77. Which of the following settings is NOT acceptable for
the delivery of bad news?
A. Physician's office
B. Quiet room in a hospital setting
C. Patient's home
D. Private room
E. Shared hospital room

78. An elevated triglyceride level is associated most closely
with which of the following problems?
A. Impaired glycemic control
B. Hyperthyroidism
C. Weight loss
D. Very Low Density Lipidemia (VLDL)
E. Elevated total serum cholesterol level

79. What is the mode of action of omeprazole?
A. H1 receptor angonist
B. H2 receptor antagonist
C. Proton pump inhibitor
D. Cytoprotection
E. Anticholinergic action

80. Which of the following statements regarding H. pylori is
false?
A. The acute infection is self limited and will
resolve without antibiotics
B. Organisms are found in human feces but not in
saliva
C. Income and socio-economic factors do not
influence prevalence
D. Approximately 25% of adults are colonized by
the age of 50 years
E. Aminoglycosides are indicated as first line of
treatment

81. Which of the following is the LEAST common
complaint in a victim of spousal abuse?
A. Back pain
B. Headache
C. Dyspareunia
D. Spousal abuse itself
E. Abdominal pain

82. Blood that is used for transfusion purposes is screened
routinely for serologic markers of all the following
diseases EXCEPT:
A. Hepatitis B virus
B. Herpes simplex virus
C. Syphilis
D. Cytomegalovirus
E. HIV

83. Which of the following is the most common site of
hospital-acquired infections?
A. Surgical wound
B. Respiratory tract
C. Skin
D. Urinary tract
E. Gastrointestinal tract

84. All the following are clearly associated with acute
episodes of asthma EXCEPT:
A. Emotional stress
B. Elevated ozone concentrations
C. Aspirin
D. Caffeinated beverages
E. Upper respiratory infection

85. The most important risk factor for developing
osteoporosis is
A. Smoking
B. Alcohol use
C. Lack of physical activity
D. Age
E. Obesity

86. Possible risk factors of the development of colon cancer
include all the following EXCEPT:
A. Irritable bowel syndrome
B. Diet rich in animal fat.
C. Inflammatory bowel disease.
D. Familial polyposis,
E. Uretrosigmoidostomy

87. A person working in hot environment and taking a lot of
water but no salt will develop a condition known as heat
A. Stroke
B. Syncope
C. Cramps
D. Exhaustion
E. Hyperpyrexia

88. Effects of greenhouse gases include all the following
EXCEPT:
A. Spread of insect born diseases to new areas
B. Natural weather disasters
C. Summers becoming hotter
D. Submersion of low-lying areas
E. Ozone depletion

89. Among the problems facing health manpower planning
in developing countries are the following EXCEPT:
A. Improper mix of different categories of staff
B. Low demand for nursing staff
C. Migration
D. Shortage in numbers
E. Faulty training curriculum

90. In postnatal care
A. One medical examination is enough
B. Breast-feeding promotion is crucial
C. It is advisable to continue health supervision
until the uterus returns to the pelvis
D. Exercise is contraindicated
E. Home visits by the health worker are advisable
for all mothers

MCQs 2008 Arab Board For Community Medicine Exam Paper 1 (70%)
Dr.AbdulQawi Almohamadi
Page 22 of 107
91. The marginal cost in the context of health care refers to
the cost of
A. Delivering one extra unit of services
B. Training and recruiting staff
C. Buildings and equipment
D. All daily activities
E. Care consumption

92. High parity may be associated with the following
EXCEPT:
A. Hypertensive disorders of pregnancy
B. Cancer of the cervix
C. Breast cancer
D. High risk of infant mortality
E. Gestational diabetes mellitus

93. The best indicator for the status of iron stores in the body
is...
A. hemoglobin concentration
B. Total iron binding capacity
C. Serum iron
D. Serum ferritin
E. Mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration

94. Which is the process of day to day follow up of activities
to ensure that health programs are proceeding as
planned?
A. Evaluation
B. Surveillance
C. Monitoring
D. Implementation
E. Fixing priorities

95. In establishing communication with the patient, it is said
that the eyes are the most expressive part of the face.
They are the most useful organ for identifying which one
of the following
A. Anger
B. Fear
C. Sincerity
D. Depression
E. Disgust

96. The mental illness most likely to occur in young adults
(15-24) is…
A. Autism
B. Schizophrenia
C. Affective psychosis
D. Involutional melancholia
E. Agitated depression

97. Placing blame for one's own difficulties upon others is
considered as...
A. Displacement
B. Rationalization
C. Projection
D. Reaction formation
E. Obsession

98. Which of the following factors is a major factor in
increasing patient's compliance?
A. The absence of a psychiatric disorder
B. Having a chronic disease requiring long-term
treatment
C. The need for a significant behavioral change
D. Prescribing medicines with few side effects
E. Prescribing treatments with lower costs

99. The association between low birth weight and maternal
smoking during pregnancy can be studied by obtaining
smoking histories from women at the time of their
prenatal visit and correlating it with newborn's birth
weight. What type of study is this?
A. Clinical trial
B. Cross-sectional
C. Prospective cohort
D. Retrospective
E. Correlational

100. In order to determine the relationship between serum
levels of sodium and antidiuretic hormone (ADH) in
patients who have meningitis, which is the most
appropriate study design?
A. Repeated measurement of sodium and ADH in
a patient
B. Measurement of sodium and ADH in a set of
patients
C. Measurement of sodium in a set of patients and
of ADH in a different set of patients.
D. Measurement of ADH in a set of patients and a
set of controls.
E. All the above

101. All the following statements regarding the normal
(Gaussian) distribution are true EXCEPT:
A. The mean = median = mode .
B. Approximately 50 percent of observations are
greater than the mode.
C. Approximately 68 percent of observations falls
within1 standard deviation of the mean
D. The number of observations between O
and1standard deviation from the mean is the
same as the number between 1 and 2 standard
deviations from the mean.
E. The shape of the curve does not depend on the
value of the mean

102. Which of the following mechanism could discourage the
overutilization of health services?
A. Full health care coverage insurance plans
B. Deductibles and co-payment
C. Government supported health care delivery
system
D. Home health care plans
E. Hospice care

MCQs 2008 Arab Board For Community Medicine Exam Paper 1 (70%)
Dr.AbdulQawi Almohamadi
Page 23 of 107
103. Which one of the following pesticides is capable of
causing pulmonary fibrosis?
A. Organophosphates
B. Parathion
C. Halogenated hydrocarbons
D. Paraquat
E. Organochlorines

104. The object of disinfection of water is to …
A. Reduce the bacterial population
B. Destroy fecal material
C. Prevent bacterial toxin formation
D. Limit growth of pathogenic
E. Bacteria remove turbidity

105. Which of the following agents are most resistant to
disinfection with chlorinated water?
A. Hepatitis virus species
B. Schistosomes
C. Coliform organisms
D. Cysts of E. histolytica
E. Enteric bacteria

106. Chemical food poisoning associated with preparations
added to raw meat to preserve the red color is most
commonly due to...
A. Antimony
B. Arsenic
C. Cadmium
D. Nicotinic acid
E. Nitrates

107. Which of the following general effects would be most
characteristic of an ascent to an altitude of 4,000 meters?
A. Deterioration of voluntary muscle control
B. Impairment of ocular balance
C. Impairment of hearing
D. Increased night oxygen requirements
E. Visual acuity less than 50%of normal

108. Caisson disease is the result of
A. Swelling of synovial tissues
B. Carbon dioxide saturation in the blood
C. Air in the intestinal tract
D. Nitrogen bubbles in the blood stream
E. Oxygen bubbles in soft tissues.

109. In DOTS, all the following are true EXCEPT:
A. This method can solve the problem of defaults
in treatment.
B. It is a program with a high-cost effectiveness.
C. It is designed to be used by trained doctors.
D. Can prevent the development of drug
resistance.
E. Has up to 96% cure rate.

110. The longitudinal research approach is characterized by
A. The same group being studied over extended
periods of time.
B. Different groups being studied over extended
periods of time.
C. Individuals being studied at different intervals
throughout their life cycle.
D. Groups of individuals of overlapping ages
being tested periodically in similar dimensions.
E. Different dimensions of behavior being
examined at different stages of development to
determine short-range effects of longitudinal
analysis.

111. The bacteria that are involved in nosocomial infections
are transmitted most often by:
A. Airborne matter.
B. Fomites.
C. Exposure to a common source.
D. Indwelling catheters.
E. Direct contact via hands.

112. Which one of the following problems is a documented
hazard related to the use of oral contraceptives?
A. Breast cancer
B. Vaginal cancer
C. Osteoporosis
D. Thromboembolism
E. Brain tumor

113. Patients indicate their satisfaction with treatment by
responding to a question with four options: very
dissatisfied, dissatisfied, satisfied, and very satisfied
which type of scale is this?
A. Nominal scale
B. Ordinal scale
C. Internal scale
D. Ratio scale
E. Categorical scale

114. State the most appropriate statistical test to analyze data
comparing the serum cholesterol before and after
ingestion of a hamburgers in a sample of persons.
A. Student's t-test .
B. Multiple regression.
C. Paired t-test .
D. Correlation study.
E. Chi-square

MCQs 2008 Arab Board For Community Medicine Exam Paper 1 (70%)
Dr.AbdulQawi Almohamadi
Page 24 of 107
115. The difference between impairment and disability is that
A. Impairment is socially defined.
B. Disability is socially defined.
C. Disability is medically defined.
D. Impairment is not permanent.
E. Disability is permanent.

116. The ability to produce a live-born baby is defined as
A. Fertility
B. Fecundity
C. Fertility rate
D. Crude birth rate
E. Total fertility rate

117. "Perceived susceptibility, severity, obstacles and
benefits" are determinants of behavior modification in
which theoretical model?
A. Health belief model
B. Social learning model
C. Theory of planned behavior
D. Stages of change theory
E. Triad model

118. The most consistent parental behavior found in cases of
child abuse is...
A. Inconsistency in discipline
B. Employment of harsh mental punishment
C. Rejection
D. Parents treating the child as they were treated
by their parents
E. Correction

119. A worker diagnosed with silicosis is at highest risk of
developing:
A. Lung cancer
B. Tuberculosis
C. Emphysema
D. Bronchiectasis
E. Arteriosclerosis

120. The most frequent cancer site in Middle-East women is
A. Lung
B. Breast
C. Colorectal
D. Uterus
E. Ovary

************************
GOOD

2014 Exam Paper (70%)- MCQs (Duration 150 minutes)
Dr.AbdulQawi Almohamadi
Page 25 of 107
MCQs 2014
1. Epidemiology can be defined as the study of
A. The etiology of disease in humans
B. The determinants of disease frequency in
humans
C. The distribution and determinants of disease
frequency in humans.
D. The patterns of health care organization and
financing.
E. The-distribution of disease in case of an
epidemic

2. The association between low birth weight and maternal
smoking during pregnancy can be studied by obtaining
smoking histories from women at the time of their
prenatal visit and then subsequently correlating birth
weight with smoking histories. What type of study is
this?
A. Clinical trial
B. Cross-sectional
C. Prospective (cohort)
D. Retrospective case-control
E. None of the above.

3. Which of the following measures is used frequently as a
denominator to calculate the rate of a disease?
A. Number of cases observed
B. Number of new cases observed.
C. Number of asymptomatic cases.
D. Person-years of observation.
E. Persons lost to follow-up.

4. In the study of the cause of a disease, the essential
difference between an experimental study and an
observational study is that in the experimental
investigation
A. The study is prospective.
B. The study is retrospective.
C. The study and control groups are of equal size
D. The study and control groups are selected on
the basis of history of exposure to the
suspected causal factor
E. The investigators determine who is and who is
not exposed to the suspected causal factors

Questions (5 – 6):
To determine whether prenatal exposure to tobacco
smoke is a cause of undescended testes in newborns, the
mothers of 100 newborns with undescended testes and
100 newborns whose TESTES bad descended, were
questioned about smoking habits during pregnancy. The
study revealed an odds ratio of 2.6 associated with
exposure to smoke, with 95% confidence intervals from
(1.1 to 5.3) .

5. Which of the following statement is true?
A. The odds ratio could be falsely elevated by the
inclusion of infants whose testes were
descended (but retractile) in the case group
(misclassification bias).
B. The odds ratio could be falsely elevated by
recall bias if parents of affected infants were
more likely to remember or report their
exposures.
C. Because the cases are newborns, but the
exposure data came from their mothers, this is
not a true case-control study.
D. Since the study was not blind, it is impossible
to rule out a placebo effect
E. None of the above

6. Which of the following statements is true?
A. The results provide no evidence that maternal
cigarette smoking is associated with
undescended testes in the offspring
B. If the study results are accurate, they suggest
that a baby boy whose mother smoked is about
2.6 times as likely to be born with testes
undescended as a baby boy whose mother did
not smoke
C. The fact that the confidence interval excludes 1
indicates that P>.05
D. The 90 percent confidence interval for these
results would probably include 1.0
E. None of the above

7. In order to determine the relationship between serum
levels of sodium and antidiuretic hormone (ADH) in
patients, who have meningitis, the most appropriate
study design would be :
A. Repeated measurement of sodium and ADH in
a patient
B. Measurement of sodium and ADH in a set of
patients
C. Measurement of sodium in a set of patients and
of ADH in a different set of patients.
D. Measurement of ADH in a set of patients and a
set of controls.
E. None of the above.

8. Assume that the annual death rate from lung cancer for
British doctors is 160 per 100,000 among heavy smokers
compared with 8 per 100,000 among non smokers. What
is the relative risk of dying of lung cancer for smokers
compared with nonsmokers?
A. 152
B. 20
C. 19
D. 8
E. None of the above

2014 Exam Paper (70%)- MCQs (Duration 150 minutes)
Dr.AbdulQawi Almohamadi
Page 26 of 107
P= c (1 + r)ⁿ
Chance =1 - (1- 0.1)³⁰
9. Randomization is a procedure used for assignment or
allocation of subjects to treatment and control groups in
experimental studies. Randomization ensures:
A. That assignment occurs by chance
B. That treatment and control groups are alike in
all respects EXCEPT treatment
C. That bias in observations is eliminated
D. That placebo effects are eliminated
E. None of the above

10. In study of the cause of lung cancer, patients who disease
were matched with controls by age, sex, place of
residence and social class. The frequency of cigarette
smoking was then compared in the two groups. What
type of study was this?
A. Prospective (cohort)
B. Retrospective ( case- control)
C. Clinical trial
D. Historical prospective
E. None of the above

Questions 11-14;
During 1999, 200 newly diagnosed cases of diabetes
occurred in city X, which has a population of 10,000
(estimates on July 1, 1999). At the beginning of the year,
there were a total of 800 patients with diabetes in the
city. During the year, 40 patients died of the
complications of diabetes.

11. What was the average annual incidence of diabetes
during 1999?
A. 4 per 1000
B. 80 per 1000
C. 100 per 1000
D. 200 per 1000
E. 20 per 1000

12. What was the approximate point prevalence of diabetes
on January 1, 1999?
A. 20 per 1,000
B. 80 per 1,000
C. 200 per 1,000
D. 800 per 1.000
E. 1000 per 1,000

13. What was the prevalence of diabetes on December
31,1999:
A. 16 per 1,000
B. 20 per 1,000
C. 80 per 1,000
D. 96 per 1,000
E. 1000 per 1,000

14. What was the mortality due diabetes during 1999?
A. 0.4 per 1,000
B. 1.6 per 1,000
C. 2.0 per 1,000
D. 4.0 per 1,000
E. 9.6 per 1,000

15. The sampling method in which each individual of the
total group has an equal chance of being selected in the
sample is :
A. Systematic sampling.
B. Paired sampling.
C. Simple random sampling.
D. Stratified sampling.
E. Cluster sampling.

16. A sample of 1,000 people includes 120 who are hearing
impaired and 50 who are diabetic. If the number who are
both diabetic and hearing impaired is 6, then.
A. Diabetes and hearing impairment appear to be
independent.
B. Diabetics appear to be protected from hearing
impairment.
C. Diabetics appear to be at greater risk of hearing
impairment.
D. There is an interaction between diabetes and
hearing impairment
E. There is not sufficient information to state any
of the above.

17. A measures of the amount of variation of a set of values
about the mean of the set is the:
A. Regression coefficient
B. Standard error of the mean
C. Standard deviation
D. Range
E. Correlation coefficient

18. Suppose that each time an individual receives pooled
blood products, there is a 10 percent chance of that
person developing a cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection.
If an individual receives pooled blood products on 30
occasions, what is his or her chance of developing
cytomegalovirus.
A. 300 percent
B. 3 percent
C. 30 percent
D. 95.8 percent
E. 10 percent

19. All the following statements regarding the normal
(Gaussian) distribution are true EXCEPT:
A. The mean = median =mode
B. Approximately 50 percent of observations are
greater than mode.
C. Approximately 68 percent of observations falls
within 1 standard deviation of the mean
D. The number of observations between 0 and 1
standard deviation from the mean is the same
as the number between 1 and 2 standard
deviations from the mean.
E. The shape of the curve does not depend on the
value of the mean.

2014 Exam Paper (70%)- MCQs (Duration 150 minutes)
Dr.AbdulQawi Almohamadi
Page 27 of 107
20. Which of the following statements concerning statistical
inference is correct?
A. If the p value = 0.05 then there is a 95 percent
probability that the results didn't occur by
chance
B. The null Hypothesis generally states that there
is a difference between the groups
C. If the p value is sufficiently high, the null
hypothesis is not rejected
D. Knowledge of the sampling method is not
important in determining Statistical
significance.
E. None of the above.

21. The probability of being born with condition A is 0.10
and the probability of being born with condition B is
0.50 If conditions A and B are independent, what is the
probability of being born with either condition A or
condition B (or both)?
A. 0.05
B. 0.40
C. 0.50
D. 0.55
E. 0.60

22. In nine families surveyed, the numbers of children per
family were 4, 5, 2, 2, 4, 3, 2, 1, 7, The mean, median,
and mode numbers of children per family respectively
are:
A. 3,4.2,3
B. 3,3.4,2
C. 3,3,2
D. 2,3.5,3
E. None of the above

23. -------------- not available--------------
24. -------------- not available--------------
25. -------------- not available--------------

26. The type of statistical test that can best be employed in
comparison of systolic blood pressure in independent
sampling of pregnant and non pregnant women..
A. Chi-square analysis
B. Students t-test
C. Analysis variance
D. Paired t-test
E. Linear regression:

Q. 27-29.:
Patients who have had proven myocardial infarctions MI are
compared with matched controls without a history of infarction as
the basis of electrocardiograms. The table below shows the

27. The sensitivity is :
A. (92)
B. (84)
C. (16)
D. (73)
E. (95)

28. The false positives proportion is :
A. (92)
B. (84)
C. (16)
D. (73)
E. (95)

29. The positive predictive value is
A. (92)
B. (84)
C. (16)
D. (73)
E. (95)

30. The best available source of information to estimate the
incidence of the meningococcal meningitis is :
A. Death certificate.
B. Household surveys.
C. Cancer registry.
D. Directorate of public health department
records.
E. Life insurance companies.

31. Health information system uses information related to:
A. Efficiency of health service
B. Effectiveness of preventive programs
C. Extent of coverage of health programs
D. Health personnel shortages
E. All of the above

32. The most important statement about health information
is:
A. It must affect decision making
B. It must be precise
C. It must be computerized
D. It must be comprehensive
E. It must be easily retrieved

Results
Abnormal
ECG
Normal
ECG
Total
MI
1100
100
1200
Healthy
400
2100
2500
Total
1500
2200
3700
A + B A B

2014 Exam Paper (70%)- MCQs (Duration 150 minutes)
Dr.AbdulQawi Almohamadi
Page 28 of 107
33. Technology has increased the cost of health care
because:
A. It has decreased the number of health workers
B. It has provided better diagnosis
C. It has improved information cost
D. It often provides care but not total cure
E. It often leads to better paid administrators

34. Which of the following mechanism could discourage
over utilization of health services
A. Full health care coverage insurance plans
B. Deductibles and coinsurance
C. Government supported health care delivery
system
D. Home health care plans
E. Hospice care

35. If the prevalence of protein Calorie ( PC) under nutrition
with overt signs and symptoms in a country is 2% , then:
A. (PC) under nutrition is not public health
problem in that country
B. Subclinical (PC) under nutrition is low.
C. The incidence of (PC) under nutrition is high
D. The case fatality is high
E. The prevalence of (PC) under nutrition is low
compared with other countries

36. To conduct a comprehensive nutritional assessment, the
epidemiologist usually start with: (the starting data
source):
A. Community cross-sectional survey
B. Routine health data
C. Nutritional surveillance
D. Case-control study
E. Ecological study

37. Air pollution:
A. Has an effect only in the immediate
neighborhood of the source.
B. Is rapidly cleared by temperature inversions.
C. Is associated with increased mortality from all
causes and not just respiratory diseases.
D. Humidity and mist has no synergistic effect on
air pollution
E. Is more important in the causation of lung
cancer than tobacco smoking.

38. An important indicator of air pollution is :
A. Chlorine
B. Fluorine
C. Sulphur dioxide
D. Carbon dioxide
E. Hydrogen

39. Which one of the following pesticides is capable of
causing pulmonary fibrosis?
A. Organophosphates
B. Parathion
C. Halogenated hydrocarbons
D. Paraquat
E. Organochlorines

40. The Dose of Gama-Ray Radiation received from a fixed
source is:
A. Inversely proportional to the square of distance
B. Directly proportional to the distance
C. Directly proportional to the square of the
distance
D. Expressed as 3 times the product of the
distance and time.
E. Expressed as the sum of the squares of the
distance and rate of exposure.

41. The best method for treating water from a very turbid
source is:
A. Aluminum coagulation
B. Rapid sand filtration
C. Activated charcoal
D. Ozonation
E. Aeration

42. Testing For Albuminoidal Nitrogen And Nitrites Would
Best Be Utilized In:
A. Air pollution control
B. Sewage processing
C. Pasteurization of milk
D. Water purification
E. Food processing

43. Sulfate of Aluminum is commonly utilized in
A. Milk purification
B. Decreasing air pollution
C. Prevention of radiation hazard
D. Sewage disposal
E. Water purification

44. The object of disinfection of water is to:
A. Reduce the bacterial population
B. Destroy bacterial population
C. Prevent bacterial toxin formation
D. Limit growth of pathogenic bacteria
E. None of the above

45. Which of following has been LEAST implicated in
diseases spread by milk and milk products?
A. Cream
B. Certified milk
C. Butter
D. Butter milk
E. Ice cream

46. DDT is an effective insecticide that operates as a:
A. Repellant
B. CNS poison
C. Bactericide
D. Stomach poison
E. Fertility inhibitor

2014 Exam Paper (70%)- MCQs (Duration 150 minutes)
Dr.AbdulQawi Almohamadi
Page 29 of 107
47. Which of the following is the most resistant to water
disinfection.
A. Virus of infections hepatitis
B. Schistosomiasis
C. Coliform organisms
D. Cysts of E. histolytica
E. Enteric bacteria

48. An electrostatic precipitator is best used in:
A. Air pollution control
B. Sewage disposal
C. Pasteurization of milk
D. Water purification
E. Arthropod-vector control

49. The cheapest method of refuse disposal is:
A. Incineration
B. Dumping at sea
C. Reduction Sanitary
D. Sanitary fill
E. Feeding to animals

50. The Phosphatase test is associated with:
A. Water purification
B. Pasteurization of milk
C. Sewage disposal
D. Air pollution control
E. None of the above

51. Chemical food poisoning associated with preparations
added to raw meat to preserve the red color, is most
commonly due to :
A. Antimony
B. Arsenic
C. Cadmium
D. Nicotinic acid
E. Nitrates

52. Which of the following general effects would be most
character of an ascent to an altitude of 12.000 feet?
A. Deterioration of voluntary muscle control
B. Impairment of ocular balance
C. Impairment of hearing
D. Oxygen would be required at night
E. Visual acuity less than 50% of normal

53. Which of the following does not apply to carbon
monoxide?
A. Always present in the exhaust from internal
combustion engines
B. Odorless
C. Tasteless
D. Has a lesser affinity for hemoglobin than
oxygen
E. Non-irritating

54. Which of the following dusts predispose to tuberculosis?
A. Asbestos
B. Zinc
C. Silica
D. Graphite
E. None of the above

55. Major purpose of medical service in industry:
A. To prevent job related injury or illness
B. To provide emergency medical aid
C. Effective employee placement
D. To maintain good health for the total personnel
by health promotion and health education.
E. All of the above

56. A patient with headache, nausea, vomiting, fatigue,
jaundice, hepatomegaly and oliguria, may have an
occupational disease caused by:
A. Lead
B. Mercury
C. Benzol
D. Carbon tetrachloride
E. Hydrogen sulfide

57. Damage to reproductive cells may occur as a result of
occupational exposure to
A. Chromium.
B. Lead
C. Mercury
D. Zinc
E. Carbon monoxide

58. Caisson disease is the result of:
A. Swelling of synovial tissues
B. Carbon dioxide saturation in the blood
C. Air in the abdomen
D. Nitrogen bubbles in the blood stream
E. Oxygen bubbles in soft tissues.

59. Which of the following effects has not been
demonstrated to be the result of industrial noise?
A. Increased peristalsis
B. Increased blood pressure
C. Decreased gastric secretion
D. Irregular heart action
E. Fatigue

60. Which of the following causes the highest loss of work
days:
A. Circulatory diseases
B. Bone and joint diseases
C. Digestive disorders
D. Allergic disorders
E. Nutritional diseases

2014 Exam Paper (70%)- MCQs (Duration 150 minutes)
Dr.AbdulQawi Almohamadi
Page 30 of 107
61. Persons at an increased risk of bladder cancer include
workers in all the following industries EXCEPT:
A. Manufacture of rubber
B. Dyeing of textiles
C. Manufacture of paints
D. Manufacture of steel
E. Printing
62. Which of the following substances is causally associated
with pneumoconiosis?
A. Sulfur oxides
B. Nitrogen oxides
C. Oil fumes
D. Dust particles
E. Cigarette smoke

63. The major environmental source of lead absorbed in the
human blood stream is:
A. Air
B. Water
C. Lead-based paint
D. Food
E. None of the above

64. Prolonged exposure to polyvinyl chlorides in production
is association with each of the following EXCEPT:
A. Acroosteolysis
B. Raynaud disease
C. Lung disease
D. Angiosarcoma of the liver
E. Scleroderma

65. The most common asbestos-related tumor in human is
A. Bronchogenic carcinoma
B. Carcinoma of the colon
C. Pleural mesothelioma
D. Peritoneal mesothelioma
E. Pericardial mesothelioma

66. Ozone depletion due to air pollution is controlled by:
A. Using lead free Fuel!
B. Reduction of world production of Freon
C. Filtration of exhaust
D. Wide use of electric energy instead of Fuels
E. Banning the use of refrigerators.

67. The development of neuropathic symptoms is associated
with chronic exposure to all the following substance
EXCEPT:
A. Mercury
B. Lead
C. Arsenic
D. Sulfur dioxide
E. Nitrous oxide

68. The most prevalent mental disorder in young children is
A. Autism
B. Mental retardation
C. Behavioral problem

69. ---------- Unavailable …………….
70. ---------- Unavailable …………….
71. ---------- Unavailable …………….

72. The most prevalent psychiatric disorder among opiate
addicts undergoing treatment is
A. Schizophrenic
B. Depression
C. Alcoholism
D. Antisocial
E. Mania

73. In DOTS all the following are true EXCEPT:
A. Can solve the problem of defaults
B. Is a program with a high cost effectiveness
C. Is designed to be used by trained doctors
D. Can prevent the development of drug resistance
E. Has a up to 96% cure rate

74. B.C.G. vaccination:
A. Is given to all tuberculin positive cases in
endemic areas
B. Is given by intramuscular injection at deltoid
region
C. Is not recommended to be given to newly born
babies
D. Can give a partial or complete immunity for up
to 12 years
E. Can cause superlative lymphadenitis in 10% of
the cases

75. Brucella species can:
A. Survive direct sunlight for four days
B. Stand boiling for few hours
C. Stand freezing for several weeks
D. Be transmitted by yogurt made from sheep
milk
E. Easily transmitted from a patient to his direct
contacts

76. In the transmission of cholera
A. Direct spread among contacts is very important
during epidemics
B. Is rare in Europe because of cold climate
C. The highest rate is usually among young adults
during epidemics
D. Asymptomatic cases are commoner among
classical biotype
E. Long term carries are common

2014 Exam Paper (70%)- MCQs (Duration 150 minutes)
Dr.AbdulQawi Almohamadi
Page 31 of 107

77. A 11 years people was diagnosis to have Meningococcal
meningitis, the most important control measure in the
school is
A. Mass vaccination
B. Chemoprophylaxis by rifampicin
C. Close surveillance of contacts.
D. Good ventilation of classes
E. Improve the sanitation of the school.

78. All the following are true in typhoid fever EXCEPT:
A. In every outbreak there should be a human
carrier.
B. Fecal carries are usually associated with gall
bladder disease.
C. Vaccination by TAB (typhoid and paratyphoid
A&B) is superior to that by Ty21a.
D. A negative Widal test might be more useful in
exclusion the disease.
E. The usual incubation period is 10-14 days.

79. In Crimean- cango hemorrhagic fever?
A. The disease is limited to the Africa and
Crimean.
B. The mortality rate is 2-5%.
C. The reservoir is among ticks.
D. Transmission by mosquitoes
E. There are no subclinical cases.

80. In Rift Valley Fever all the following are true EXCEPT:
A. Mammals are the reservoir.
B. Has a low mortality rate among the human.
C. The vector is mites.
D. Has recently cross the red sea to the Yemen
and Saudi Arabia.
E. Can cause hemorrhagic manifestation.

81. The aims for Control Diarrhea Disease (CDD) program
are the following EXCEPT:
A. Epidemiologic surveillance for epidemics of
the disease
B. Initiating an ORT room is all PHC centers
C. Training mothers for proper and scientific use
of antibiotics
D. Promotion of breast feeding
E. Maintaining acute statistics

82. The following can increase the possibility of sexual
transmission of HIV infection EXCEPT:
A. Accompanied ulcerative STD
B. Very early infection
C. Late presentation of AIDS
D. Circumcision
E. Rectal sex

83. Chlamydia species can cause the following diseases in
man EXCEPT :
A. Non-specific cervicitis
B. Trachoma
C. Lymph granuloma veneered
D. Chancroid
E. Psittacosis

84. An influenza pandemic is usually expected when:
A. There is an antigenic shift in type B
B. There is an antigenic drift in type B
C. The isolated strain is Hong Kong type C
D. There is an antigenic shift in type A
E. There is a direct transmission from swine to
man

85. Amoebic dysentery is differentiated from bacillary
dysentery by having more tendency to be:
A. Transmitted directly from man to man
B. Associated with prostration
C. Associated with tenesmus
D. Presented as sporadic cases
E. Easily transmitted by water

86. The following are true association in cancer EXCEPT:
A. Cigarette smoking and bladder cancer
B. Sexual promiscuity and cervical cancer
C. Vinyl chloride and liver angiosarcoma
D. Early menopause and breast cancer
E. Nullipara and ovarian cancer

87. In viral hepatitis type C:
A. Screening test is not yet available
B. Vertical transmission is common
C. Immunization is readily available
D. The incubation period is 5-7 weeks
E. Animal reservoir is important

88. Transplacental transmission can occur in all the
following disease EXCEPT:
A. Rubella
B. Cytomegalovirus infection
C. Toxoplasmosis
D. Hepatitis A infection
E. Syphilis

89. The first step in conducting an epidemic investigation is
to:
A. Determine the number of cases
B. Calculate the incubation period
C. Determine the population at risk
D. Verify the diagnosis
E. Collect appropriate samples

2014 Exam Paper (70%)- MCQs (Duration 150 minutes)
Dr.AbdulQawi Almohamadi
Page 32 of 107

90. The best measure of obstetric care quality in a
community is:
A. Crude death rate
B. Infant mortality rate
C. Abortion rate
D. Perinatal mortality rate
E. None of the above

91. Which of the following is most characteristic of the
abuser of the elderly?
A. Encourages of the elderly person to speak his
or her mind
B. Has cared for the elderly person for some time
C. Lives separately from the abused person
D. Takes immaculate care of the house and the
abused person
E. Volunteered to take care of the abused person

92. The longitudinal research approach is characterized by:
A. The same group being studied over extended
periods of time
B. Different groups being studied over extended
periods of time
C. Individual being studied at different intervals
throughout their life cycle
D. Groups of individual of overlapping ages being
tested periodically in similar dimensions
E. Different dimensions of behavior being
examined at different stages of development to
determine short-range effects of longitudinal
analysis

93. Death from overdose is a strong possibly with all of the
following drugs EXCEPT:
A. Alcohol
B. Narcotics
C. Sedative-hypnotics
D. Psychedelics (including marijuana)
E. Phencyclidine

94. A confounding variable may relate closely in time in the
of disease but:
A. Is not necessary for its occurrence
B. Is one of several causal agents
C. Is more difficult to measure than other
variables
D. Exacerbates rather than causes the disease
E. Can't be alleviated through disease prevention
programs.

95. Which of the following is characteristic of a single
exposure, common vehicle outbreak?
A. Frequent secondary cases
B. Increasing severity with increasing age
C. Explosive
D. Cases include in both people who have been
exposed and those didn't exposed.
E. All of the above

96. In the study of an outbreak of an infectious disease
plotting an epidemic curve is useful because
A. It helps determine what type of outbreak (e.g.
single-space, person-to-person) has occurred
B. It shows whether herd Immunity has occurred
C. It helps determine the median incubation
period
D. a and c
E. a,b and c

97. Which of the following is/are a good index of the
severity of short-term acute disease:
A. Cause-specific death rate
B. 5-year survival
C. Case-fatality rate
D. Standardized mortality ratio
E. None of the above

98. Ecologic fallacy refers to:
A. Assessing exposure in large groups rather than
in many small groups
B. Assessing outcome in large groups rather than
in many small groups
C. Ascribing the characteristics of a group to
every individual in that group
D. Examining correlations of exposure and
outcomes rather than time trends
E. Failure to examine temporal relations between
exposures and outcomes

99. Diabetes mellitus
A. Is easily defined for clinical and
epidemiological purposes
B. Prevalence increases with age
C. Dose not affect life expectancy
D. Usually causes death through its specific
complications
E. Occurs only in industrialized, sedentary,
Western populations

100. The risk of coronary heart disease from smoking
cigarettes :
A. Shows the greatest relative risk in the younger
age groups
B. Appears to be irreversible in those who stop
smoking
C. Accounts for less smoking related deaths than
does lung cancer
D. Has a greater relative risk than does smoking
for lung cancer
E. Operates in populations with very low serum
cholesterol levels.

101. The following are Modifiable Risk Factors of
Hypertension EXCEPT:
A. Obesity
B. Genetic Factors
C. Stress
D. Excess salt intake
E. Oral contraceptive use

2014 Exam Paper (70%)- MCQs (Duration 150 minutes)
Dr.AbdulQawi Almohamadi
Page 33 of 107
102. Leukemia:
A. Incidence shows a definite occupational and
social class pattern.
B. Mortality rates have not increased over the last
40 years.
C. Prognosis has been unaffected by advanced in
treatment.
D. Incidence rates correlate well with
geographical variations in background
radiation.
E. Risk is increased after exposure to heavy
radiation.

103. Eye-screening programs to prevent blindness in adults
A. Glaucoma
B. Myopia
C. Astigmatism
D. Chorioretinitis
E. Trachoma

104. Which of the following is the most efficient and less
costly method of establishing benefit of a treatment?
A. Prospective clinical trial
B. Case-control study
C. Prospective observational study
D. Meta-analysis pooling results of several
clinical trials
E. All of the above

105. Which type of cancer risk is not associated with cigarette
smoking?
A. Bladder
B. Larynx
C. Colon
D. Pancreas
E. Lung

106. Compare higher income groups, lower income groups
have
A. Higher infant mortality
B. Higher rates of most infectious disease
C. Higher prevalence of hypertension
D. Higher rate of dental disease
E. All of the above

107. In recent years, what factor is not responsible for the
increased costs of health care?
A. Increased wages for health care personnel
B. New medical technology
C. Increased levels of hospital productivity
D. Training of physicians and nurses
E. All the above.
108. Factors indicating a high-risk of multiple injury in
motorway accidents include all the following EXCEPT :
A. A flail chest
B. Ejection of the patient
C. Rearward displacement of the front axle
D. Death of another person in the same car
E. 10% burns

109. The following are contraindication to active
immunization EXCEPT :
A. Immunosuppressed states
B. HIV infection if live vaccines are required
C. Pregnancy if live vaccines required
D. Chronic cardiac failure
E. Recent passive immunization if live vaccines
are required

110. All of the following are true about amniocentesis
EXCEPT:
A. Usually performed around 10 weeks of
gestation
B. Best be formed with ultrasound guidance
C. Associated with a higher social risk than
chorionic villus sampling
D. A useful source of ecological material for
genetic analysis
E. Helpfully in the diagnosis of Duchene
muscular dystrophy

111. ,The bacteria that are involved in nosocomial infections
are transmitted most often by:
A. Airborne matter
B. Fomites
C. Exposure to a common source
D. Indwelling catheters
E. Direct contact via hands

112. The administration of a single injection of live attenuated
measles vaccine results in:
A. Seroconverting in 95 percent of susceptible
children.
B. The induction of active immunity that lasts less
than 5 years.
C. Post immunization encephalitis in 0.1 percent
of recipients.
D. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis in 0,17
percent of recipients.
E. No significant to children with leukemia.

2014 Exam Paper (70%)- MCQs (Duration 150 minutes)
Dr.AbdulQawi Almohamadi
Page 34 of 107

113. Asthma is characterized by which of the following:
A. Age of onset before age 40 years in about 95
percent of cases
B. Persistently abnormal forced expiratory volume
in 1 second ( FEVI )
C. Greater frequency in girls than boys
D. Frequent family history of atopy
E. None of the above.

114. Known Hazards related to use of oral contraceptives
include one of the following risks
A. Breast cancer
B. Vaginal cancer
C. Osteoporosis
D. Thromboembolism
E. Brain tumor

115. Primary Health Care refers to all of the following
EXCEPT:
A. Basic heath services rendered to individuals
and common through means acceptable to
them.
B. The road to Health for all by the year 2000.
C. A workable concept that lends itself to
implementation and evaluation.
D. Ensuring access basic medical service.
E. A structure rather than a mode of delivery of
health services.

116. The major objective of evaluation of health service
programs should be:
A. To find out the major error and short minas of
the Programme to discipline those responsible
for them.
B. To further develop and improve the health
program.
C. To find out and emphasize the positive aspects
of the health programme.
D. To find out and exploit the negative aspects of
program.
E. All of the above.

117. All are forms of ambulatory care services EXCEPT:
A. Hospital outpatient departments
B. School health services
C. Motherhood health center
D. Industrial heath center
E. None of the above

118. The following are the fat-soluble vitamins EXCEPT:
A. Vit. A
B. Vit. C
C. Vit. D
D. Vit. E
E. Vit. K

119. Of the following which one is the safest, most effective
and stable method of birth control
A. Coitus interrupts
B. Use of local contraceptives
C. Use of oral contraceptive pills.
D. Intrauterine contraceptive device (loop)
E. Sterilization

120. All the following are dietary determination of plasma
lipid level EXCEPT:
A. Alcohol
B. Total calories
C. Cholesterol
D. Saturated fat
E. Vitamin E

************************
GOOD LUCK

Paper 2 short Assay Questions

1. Write a short assay on the epidemiological and prevention of lung cancer.
2. You were asked b the general director o an old textile factor to solve the problem of frequent absence from work among workers.
What would you suggest to solve this problem

ARAB BOARD FOR COMMUNITY MEDICINE Exam Paper (70%)- MCQs 2015

Dr.AbdulQawi Almohamadi
Page 35 of 107
MCQs 2015
1. Which study design would you prefer to provide the
strongest evidence for a causal association?
A. Review of cases
B. Case-control
C. Cross-sectional
D. Ecological
E. Descriptive

2. Which one of the following substances is NOT
hepatotoxic?
A. Organic solvents
B. Ethyl alcohol
C. Asbestos
D. Estrogens
E. Arsenic

3. Which of the following parameters CANNOT be
obtained from a population pyramid?
A. Level of development of the country.
B. Gender percentage in the total population.
C. Age groups in the population.
D. Geographic distribution of the population.
E. Demographic profile of the population.

4. A cohort study is useful in finding the
A. Prevalence rate of the disease.
B. International trends.
C. Incidence rate of the disease.
D. Efficiency of interventions.
E. Effectiveness of a new drug

5. The cold chain (in relation to vaccines) refers to
A. The logistics composed of the personnel who
organize and manage the distribution of
vaccines in cold areas.
B. The equipment to transport vaccines.
C. The equipment to store vaccines.
D. The logistics composed of personnel,
equipment and procedures.
E. The procedures of handling vaccines.

6. Which statement corresponds to the final purpose of
tertiary prevention?
A. To prevent the occurrence of disability.
B. To improve the quality of healthy living.
C. To change the course of disease.
D. To change the health behavior of the patient.
E. Early treatment of disease.

7. In an epidemic, in which situation can a normal
distribution of cases be found?
A. Repeated exposures
B. Pandemic
C. Propagated epidemic
D. Common source
E. Endemic

The following readings are the fasting blood glucose
levels sample of (11) children: 56, 62, 63, 65, 65, 65, 65,
68, 70, 72, 73.

8. The median value is...
A. 59.1
B. 65
C. 60
D. 72.2
E. 80

9. The mean value is...
A. 59.1
B. 65.8
C. 60.0
D. 72.2
E. 80.4

10. The positive predictive value of a new diagnostic test is
defined as:
A. Number of positive tests in the population.
B. Number of true-positives in the population.
C. Ratio of true-negatives to true-positives.
D. Percentage of true-positives among all reported
as positive by the test.
E. Percentage of true positives among all patients

11. If an association is found between the incidence of a
disease and a certain genetically determined
characteristic, this means that
A. The disease is clearly genetic in origin
B. Genetic factors are implicated in all cases of
the disease
C. Genetic factors are implicated in some cases of
the disease
D. A role of environmental factors is excluded
E. The occurrence of the disease is inevitable in
siblings

12. In the control and prevention of brucellosis...
A. There is an effective vaccine for sheep
B. Human vaccination is available
C. Milk products are usually tested for brucellosis
D. The infection can be disseminated through raw
milk but not through cheese or labneh
E. Brucellosis is endemic in rural areas only

ARAB BOARD FOR COMMUNITY MEDICINE Exam Paper (70%)- MCQs 2015

Dr.AbdulQawi Almohamadi
Page 36 of 107
13. Regarding healthy carriers in typhoid fever
A. Urinary carriage is more frequent than fecal
carriage
B. Chloramphenicol is the drug of choice
C. Viral antigens can be detected in blood tests
D. Treatment is usually continued for at least 2
weeks
E. Three successive negative stool cultures are
essential to exclude fecal carriage

14. Which statement is correct regarding chickenpox?
A. Subclinical infections are rare
B. With increasing vaccination, most cases will
shift to adult age-groups
C. It may recur years later as herpes simplex
D. Pets such as domestic cats and dogs are
potential reservoirs
E. The vaccine has to be boosted every five years

15. In viral hepatitis C
A. A screening test is not yet available
B. Vertical transmission is the most frequent
mode of transmission
C. The incubation period is 5-7 weeks
D. Immunization is readily available
E. The animal reservoir is immortality.

16. Which category of persons is LEST at risk of committing
suicide?
A. People who live alone
B. Patients who have made previous suicide
attempts
C. Depressed persons who are beyond 60 years
D. Men compared to women
E. Married persons (compared to single)

17. Which indicator is most adequate to compare mortality
between countries?
A. Infant mortality
B. Crude death rates.
C. Age-specific death rates.
D. Age-standardized death rates.
E. Sex-specific death rates.

18. Which of the following is a good index of the severity of
an acute disease?
A. Cause-specific death rate
B. Attack rate
C. Case-fatality rate
D. Standardized mortality ratio
E. Attributable risk.

19. The extent of self-medication compared to the use of
prescribed medicine is an indication of
A. Availability of pharmacies
B. Availability of medication in the community
personal
C. Knowledge about medicine.
D. Poor access to professional medical services
E. Cheap medications

20. The extent to which a specific heath care service,
procedure or program produces beneficial results under
controlled conditions is defined as
A. Efficacy
B. Productivity
C. Effect modification
D. Efficiency
E. Cost-benefit ratio

21. Following the diagnosis of meningococcal meningitis in
a primary school child, what is the most appropriate
measure for the control of the disease among contacts?
A. Chemoprophylaxis by sulfonamides.
B. Chemoprophylaxis by rifampicin
C. Mass vaccination.
D. Close surveillance of contacts.
E. CSF examination of all contacts.

22. A screening test for chronic illnesses is indicated to
A. Improve the disease prognosis.
B. Contribute to the diagnosis.
C. Decrease the latency period.
D. Detect rare conditions not usually revealed in
clinical settings.
E. Detect a disease that rapidly becomes
symptomatic.

23. Which of the following measures of blood pressure is
most used as an indicator of coronary heart disease or
cerebrovascular disease?
A. Diastolic pressure.
B. Mean blood pressure.
C. Systolic blood pressure.
D. Postural hypotension.
E. Differences between systolic and diastolic
pressure

24. Which of the following statements concerning mental
abilities in aging is correct?
A. Multidrug therapy for chronic conditions may
disturb cognitive functions
B. Activities of daily living remain intact
C. Memory for recent events is less susceptible to
interference than that for remote events
D. New learning is easier than old learning
E. Verbal abilities are decreased.

ARAB BOARD FOR COMMUNITY MEDICINE Exam Paper (70%)- MCQs 2015

Dr.AbdulQawi Almohamadi
Page 37 of 107
25. In a study, three independent samples were compared
and mean fasting blood glucose levels. The appropriate
statistical test for this comparison is.
A. Chi-square
B. Mann-Whitney
C. Student t-test
D. ANOVA
E. Spearman’s coefficient

26. Which of the following dietary items does not contribute
to plasma lipid levels?
A. Alcohol.
B. Total calories.
C. Cholesterol.
D. Saturated fat.
E. Vitamin E.

27. Which of the following situations does NOT lead to
exposure to lead?
A. Inhalation of automobile emissions
B. Working in the textile industry
C. Use of kohl (لحك) and hair-dye products
D. Eating lead-based paint flakes
E. Leakage in water pipes and water storage tanks

28. The most frequently reported occupational health hazards
among gas station workers ةطحم نيزنبلا are...
A. Industrial accidents and injures
B. Spontaneous abortions and stillbirths
C. Carpal tunnel syndrome caused by repeated
motion
D. Lung diseases
E. Dermatitis and other skin conditions

29. Which of the following associations does NOT lead to
occupational cancers?
A. Hard wood dust and gastric cancer.
B. Asbestos and mesothelioma.
C. Vinyl chloride and hepatic angiosarcoma.
D. Benzene and leukemia.
E. Arsenic and skin cancer.

30. The incidence rate of a disease is five times greater in
women than in men, but the prevalence rates shows no
sex difference. The best explanation is that...
A. The crude all-cause mortality rate is greater in
women.
B. The case-fatality rate for this disease is greater
for women.
C. The disease-specific mortality rate is higher
among men.
D. The duration of this disease is shorter in men
E. Risk factors for developing the disease are
more common in women.

31. All of the following statements regarding the normal
distribution are true EXCEPT:
A. Describes the distribution of most naturally
occurring phenomena
B. In this distribution, 2.5% of cases lie beyond 2
standard deviations from the mean
C. It is unimodal and symmetrical
D. It is the most common way for defining
abnormal laboratory tests measured on
interval scale
E. Testing hypothesis associated with normal
distributions requires the use of parametric
statistical tests

Q 32-34. : In a prospective study 2000 were studied for 20 years.
During this period 100 people developed lung cancer and of those
90 were smokers. Out of the 1900 people who did not develop lung
cancer, 710 were nonsmokers.

32. What is the incidence rate of lung cancer for smokers?
A. 0.01
B. 0.04
C. 0.05
D. 0.07
E. 0.09

33. What is the incidence rate of lung cancer for non-
smokers?
A. 0.01
B. 0.04
C. 0.05
D. 0.07
E. 0.09

34. What is the relative risk for lung cancer among smokers
compared to non-smokers in this study?
A. 1
B. 4
C. 5
D. 7
E. 9
Smoking Diseases Healthy Total
Yes 90 1190 1280
No 10 710 720
Total 100 1900 2000

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Dr.AbdulQawi Almohamadi
Page 38 of 107
35. Chronic carrier state is seen in all EXCEPT
A. Typhoid
B. Measles
C. Hepatitis B
D. Gonorrhea
E. Meningococcal meningitis

36. In which situation should WHO declare a pandemic?
A. An epidemic reported over a short period of
time from countries in at least three continents
B. An epidemic of great severity involving large
numbers of people in the most populated
country of a given continent
C. Unexpected number of cases worldwide in a
given year
D. Outbreaks simultaneously occurring in
different parts of neighboring countries
E. Epidemic occurring in a country with direct
airline flights at least three other countries

37. In addition to the widely reported association with lung
cancer, tobacco smoking has been demonstrated to
contribute to causing cancer of all of the following parts
of the body EXCEPT to the
A. Larynx
B. Bladder
C. Pancreas
D. Thyroid
E. Oral cavity

38. Which chemical is NOT considered a polluter of a
drinking water source?
A. Chloride
B. Nitrate
C. Ammonia.
D. C02.
E. Mercury

39. In a case-control study to investigate the association,
between oral contraception and breast cancer
A. Cases would be women with breast cancer.
B. Controls would be given oral contraception.
C. Cases would be given oral contraception.
D. Women with breast cancer would be randomly
allocated to be cases or controls.
E. Controls would be observed for several years
to see how many developed breast cancer.

40. Which statement regarding polio is correct
A. Environmental sanitation has no role in polio
prevention
B. Education regarding the protective value of
vaccination is still needed in countries with
wild polio virus transmission.
C. Seroprophylaxis by immunoglobulins can
prevent the disease following exposures
D. The live attenuated polio vaccine is indicated
for mass vaccination campaigns.
E. Polio has been eliminated in Asia.

41. Which of the following confers passive natural
immunity?
A. Hepatitis B vaccine
B. MMR vaccine
C. Hepatitis B immunoglobulins
D. Exposure to the measles virus
E. Cross-placental transfer of maternal antibodies

42. How much exercise is recommended for the average
adult?
A. Fifteen minutes of vigorous activity at least
three times a week
B. One hour per night of moderate intensity
C. Thirty minutes of moderate intensity at least 5
days a week
D. One very long exercise session at least once a
week
E. No exercises is necessary unless one is
overweight

43. How do you classify a man whose height is 180 cm and
weight 93 kg?
A. Normal weight
B. Overweight
C. Obese
D. Morbidly obese
E. Cannot be calculated just with height and
weight

44. Aluminum sulfate is commonly used
A. Milk disinfection
B. Reducing the adverse effects of air pollution
C. Preventing radiation hazards
D. Control toxic fumes from the sewage disposal
system
E. Water purification

45. All the following methods are useful for drinking water
purification in emergency situations EXCEPT
A. Exposure to UV rays from the sun boiling.
B. Boiling.
C. Adding chlorine.
D. Adding fluoride.
E. Filtration.

ARAB BOARD FOR COMMUNITY MEDICINE Exam Paper (70%)- MCQs 2015

Dr.AbdulQawi Almohamadi
Page 39 of 107
46. All of the following statements about non-ionizing
radiations are true EXCEPT:
A. They include radiations from microwave ovens
and cellular mobile phones.
B. Their main adverse effects are related to
thermal injury.
C. Strong evidence exist showing that excess
exposure is associated with increased
incidence of neoplasms of the CNS.
D. Excess exposure is associated with an
increased incidence of cataract.
E. Excess exposure is associated with
spermatotoxicity.

47. Which of the following substances is causally associated
with pneumoconiosis?
A. Sulfur oxides
B. Nitrogen oxides
C. Oil fumes
D. Dust particles
E. Cigarette smoke

48. The prognosis of patients who survive a first myocardial
infarction depends on all the following parameters
EXCEPT
A. Left ventricular function
B. Family history of heart disease
C. Serum cholesterol level
D. Degree of coronary artery stenosis
E. Severity of ischemia

49. Which of the following statements does NOT apply to
the Primary Health Care system?
A. It is the first point of contact with the health
care system.
B. It represents at the same time a concept, a
strategy and a set of activities
C. It calls for integrating health within the
package of social services
D. Is based on a positive comprehensive
understanding of health
E. The first priority is to bring individuals to
obtain medical care

50. “Specialty mal-distribution” is characterized by
physicians* tendency to
A. Avoid primary health care practice.
B. Be salaried.
C. Prefer surgical specialties.
D. Be located mostly in urban areas.
E. Ignore issues of disease prevention

51. Which one of these methods is NOT used in the
evaluation of health programs?
A. Decision tree
B. Review of medical records
C. Controlled trials
D. Cost-benefit analysis
E. Operation research

52. Which of the following nutrients are of animal origin
only?
A. Amino-acids
B. Carbohydrates
C. Non-saturated fats-
D. Cholesterol
E. Vitamin

53. Water fluoridation is carried out to prevent
A. Bacterial growth
B. Dental fluorosis
C. Dental caries
D. Osteoporosis
E. All of the above

54. Which term most appropriately describes the mortality
rate that includes stillbirths and live-born infants who die
within the first 28 days of life?
A. Post-neonatal mortality rate
B. Maternal mortality rate
C. Neonatal mortality rate
D. Infant mortality rate
E. Perinatal mortality rate

55. The best indication of recent sewage contamination of
water is the presence of
A. Albuminoid ammonia
B. Nitrates
C. Free ammonia
D. Hardness
E. Ozone

56. The greatest problem in urban environmental pollution
is...
A. Air pollution
B. Water pollution
C. Radiation pollution
D. Sewage pollution
E. Food contamination

57. The most important preventive activity of an
occupational health service is
A. Pre-placement examinations
B. Periodical health check-ups
C. Supervision of the working environment
D. First aid and medical care following accidents
E. Decreasing the cost of treatments provided to
workers

58. All of the following are well-established modifiable risk
factors of coronary heart diseases, EXCEPT:
A. Cigarette smoking.
B. Energy beverages.
C. High blood pressure.
D. Elevated serum cholesterol.
E. Family history.

ARAB BOARD FOR COMMUNITY MEDICINE Exam Paper (70%)- MCQs 2015

Dr.AbdulQawi Almohamadi
Page 40 of 107
59. The "demographic transition" in the 1990s referred to...
A. Mobility of the population.
B. Increased percentage of old people in the
population.
C. Improvement in the system of vital statistics.
D. The emergence of demography as a component
of the Ministry of Planning.
E. Urbanization.

60. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of breast
feeding?
A. Providing the baby with a substantial dose of
antibodies.
B. Maintaining the natural uterine contractility.
C. Avoiding the problem of allergy to cow's milk.
D. Enhancing bonding.
E. Providing full iron requirements for the infant.

61. All the following items are risks indicators in pregnancy
EXCEPT
A. Maternal age less than 18
B. Maternal age more than 35
C. Primary education of the mother
D. History of premature delivery
E. Pre-pregnancy underweight

62. An absolute contraindication for breast feeding is
A. Recurrent maternal urinary tract infection
B. Maternal history of hepatitis A infection
C. Maternal history of hepatitis B infection
D. Maternal history of hepatitis C infection
E. Anemia treatment

63. Demand for health care...
A. Is the professional assessment of the
population’s needs
B. Is relatively simple to assess
C. Is always met by the national health services of
the country
D. Does not vary between social classes
E. Is greater in developing than in developed
countries

64. Eye-screening programs in adults are primarily targeting
the early detection of
A. Glaucoma
B. Myopia
C. Astigmatism
D. Chorioretinitis
E. Trachoma

65. Which of the following facts concerning the
epidemiology of diabetes mellitus is Not Correct ?
A. Nearly 2% of adults over 40 in the Arab world
are affected
B. Predisposes to atherosclerosis and blindness
C. Diabetes is a severe disease in children
D. Infants of diabetic mothers are heavier than
average at birth
E. Those who are obese are primary targets for
diabetes type II screening

66. Which statement is a characteristic of asthma?
A. Age of onset before 40 in about 95 percent of
cases
B. Persistently abnormal forced expiratory
volume (FEV1)
C. Greater frequency in girls than boys
D. Frequent family history of atopy
E. Preventive treatments are indicated for siblings
of asthmatic children

67. Which occupational exposure may cause Reynaud’s
syndrome?
A. Fine repetitive movement
B. Conditions leading to sleep deprivation
C. Vibration
D. High level noise
E. Low temperature environment

68. Which mental health disorder is increasingly detected in
young children?
A. Autism
B. Mental retardation
C. Behavioral problems
D. Schizophrenia
E. Depression

69. Which of the following statements correctly describes
emotional disturbances of the postpartum?
A. They are more common after the birth of male
children
B. They are more common with increasing parity
C. Post-partum depression after the first delivery
is a predictor of depression with the following
ones
D. They rarely last more than 1 week
E. They occur in less than 20 percent of women

ARAB BOARD FOR COMMUNITY MEDICINE Exam Paper (70%)- MCQs 2015

Dr.AbdulQawi Almohamadi
Page 41 of 107
70. Appropriate considerations for the implementation of a
screening test include all the following EXCEPT:
A. Burden suffering
B. Cost of screening test
C. Physician’s familiarity with the test
D. Non-invasive technique
E. Efficacy of treatment

71. Incorrect positioning of a baby on the breast results in...
A. Painful nipple
B. Stabbing pain when the baby latches on
C. Irritated, inflamed nipple
D. Blanching of the nipple after feeding
E. Retracted nipple

72. Which post-partum behavior is recommended by WHO?
A. Allowing mothers to rest for at least 12 hours
before rooming in the baby
B. Breastfeeding freely on demand
C. Adding water to the infants diet when
breastfeeding in the summer
D. Introducing iron supplements from the first
month
E. Shifting to infant formula if the mother is
anemic

73. Dr. Ahmed, who is working at a health center, has often
been slow in reporting infectious disease cases to local
health dep. As a local health department officer, what
strategy would you start with to increase compliance?
A. Remind him that reporting is mandatory and
strictly enforced by MOH.
B. Fax over a copy of directive on reporting
requirements.
C. Explain to him the benefits of reporting and
how compliance will help his patients.
D. Initiate legal procedure against him.
E. Report this to your supervisor for guidance.

74. Vitamin D is added to milk to fortify it because
A. Milk is a good vehicle for supplementation
targeting children
B. Vitamin D has been destroyed by
pasteurization
C. Additional vitamin D will prevent beriberi in
infants
D. Whole milk is deficient in vitamin D
E. Supplementary vitamin D enhances the
digestibility of milk

75. In disasters, the highest priority for medical care are
patients with...
A. Penetrating abdominal wounds
B. Closed fractures of major bones
C. Incomplete amputations
D. Hemorrhage from accessible sites
E. Multiple severe injuries

76. The natural history of a disease refers to
A. The progress of disease in a person under
treatment
B. The period needed for the disease to progress
to a clinical form
C. The wide range of clinical presentations,
ranging from mild to severe forms
D. The length of the incubation latent stage
E. Progress from clinical stage to recovery or
death

77. Tests initially recommended for hypertensive patients
include all the following EXCEPT:
A. General urine analysis
B. Blood urea
C. Random blood sugar
D. High Density Lipoproteins (HDL)
E. Electrocardiogram

78. Which of the followings is NOT a complication of
diabetes?
A. Blindness
B. Pancreatic cancer
C. Limb loss
D. Myocardial infarction
E. Stroke

79. The best indicator of adequate medical manpower is
the...
A. Doctor-population ratio
B. Population registered per health center
C. Doctor-nurse ratio
D. Population-bed ratio
E. Bed occupancy

80. All the following are true regarding the typical clinical
features of sunburn EXCEPT :
A. Hypertension
B. Thirst and oliguria
C. Nausea and vomiting
D. Peripheral circulatory failure
E. Skin erythema

ARAB BOARD FOR COMMUNITY MEDICINE Exam Paper (70%)- MCQs 2015

Dr.AbdulQawi Almohamadi
Page 42 of 107
81. In DOTS all the following are true EXCEPT ;
A. It can solve the problem of patients defaulting
an treatment
B. It is a program with a high cost-effectiveness
C. It is designed to be used by trained doctors
D. It can prevent the development of drug
resistance to tuberculosis
E. The cure rate is up to 96%

82. An influenza pandemic is usually expected when:
A. There is an antigenic shift in influenza type B
B. There is an antigenic drift in influenza type B
C. The isolated strain is Hong Kong type C
D. There is an antigenic shift in influenza type A
E. There is direct transmission from animals to
humans

83. The first step in conducting an outbreak investigation is
to...
A. Determine the number of cases
B. Calculate the incubation period
C. Determine the population at risk
D. Verify the diagnosis
E. Collect appropriate samples

84. Which type of surveillance corresponds to the definition
“Data on reportable diseases being generated without
contact by the agency carrying out the surveillance
A. Syndromic surveillance
B. Sentinel surveillance
C. Active surveillance
D. Event-based surveillance
E. Passive surveillance

85. The most widely applied study design in industry-based
occupational epidemiology is...
A. Case-control
B. Prospective cohort
C. Randomized trials
D. Cross-sectional study
E. Proportionate mortality assessment

Q86-89 :.
A case-control study was performed to determine the
association between cigarette smoking and acute
myocardial infarction (MI). Cases were patients with MI
admitted to a single hospital, and controls were patients
hospitalized at the same hospital without a diagnosis of
MI. Trained interviewers then asked all subjects about
their prior smoking history. Assume that smoking does
increase the risk of MI.

86. What characteristic is NOT appropriate for the “control”
group?
A. Controls should be disease-free
B. Controls should come from the same
population from which cases were selected.
C. Controls should have the same exposure as
cases
D. Restrictions applied to cases should also apply
to controls
E. Controls should receive full information about
the aims of the study

87. The most specific type of bias potentially found in Case-
control studies is the
A. Measurement bias
B. Random bias
C. Recall bias
D. Study cost
E. Loss to follow-up

88. The measure of association in this case...
A. Requires obtaining also the prevalence rates of
smoking in the general population.
B. Can be measured even if one does not know
how large is the population from which
participating individuals were selected.
C. Relies on the estimation of MI incidence rates
in the two comparison groups.
D. Is the relative risk.
E. Cannot be measured.

89. A prospective cohort study...
A. Employs subjects known at the onset to have
the disease in question.
B. Employs subjects known at the onset to be
disease-free.
C. Employs subjects whose exposure to a
suspected risk factor is comparable to that of
the control group at the onset of the study
D. Is preferred in the study of rare diseases.
E. Is more ethical than a case-control study

90. The International Classification of Diseases (ICD) is...
A. A relatively recent concept.
B. Needed to compare disease patterns between
countries
C. Developed specifically for each of the WHO
regional offices.
D. Established at the Center for Disease Control
in Atlanta (USA).
E. Not available for ill-defined signs and
symptoms often encountered in primary health
care practice.

ARAB BOARD FOR COMMUNITY MEDICINE Exam Paper (70%)- MCQs 2015

Dr.AbdulQawi Almohamadi
Page 43 of 107
91. Travelers to endemic malaria area should:
A. Get a prophylactic vaccine one week before
departure and a booster within three weeks of
returning
B. Consult a doctor for drug dosages to be used
while on that trip
C. Rely on mosquito repellent and bed screens to
prevent bites
D. Avoid having sex with someone living in that
area
E. Remain under medical surveillance for a year
if infection with Plasmodium falciparum, is
suspected

92. In maternal care:
A. The safe motherhood initiative is related to the
work by UNISCO to prevent avoidable causes
of deaths among mothers.
B. The four pillars of the safe motherhood
initiative include antenatal care, female
nutrition, hospital delivery and family
planning.
C. Risk status of pregnancy is determined from
the history taking during the first visit to the
antenatal clinic
D. Age at pregnancy and parity of the mother are
example of non avoidable risk factors during
antenatal care.
E. Pregnant mothers with previous still births and
abortions are considered among moderate to
low risk group.

93. Vaccination may fail because of which factor?
A. Some vaccines cannot resist cold weather
B. Vaccines are used in populations different
from those in which they were developed
C. Drugs necessary to activate the vaccine were
not taken as prescribed
D. A vaccine was licensed for use in human
populations without proper controlled trials
E. Vaccinated individuals are too old to develop
antibodies to the vaccine

94. An indicator measuring short-term outputs in Extended
Programs of Immunization (EPI) is
A. Number of refrigerators available to keep
vaccines in the cold chain
B. Timeliness of reporting
C. Coverage rates
D. Decreased incidence of diseases
E. Number of health workers trained in EPI

95. The leading causes of fatal home injures among under
five years is
A. Burning
B. Explosions
C. Falls
D. Drowning
E. Poisoning

96. Measures to prevent protein-energy malnutrition in
infants and children include all EXCEPT :
A. Growth monitoring
B. Breastfeeding
C. Protein supplementation
D. Immunization
E. Semi-solid food at 6 months

97. Vitamin A deficiency is characterized by all the
following EXCEPT:
A. Bitot's spots on the conjunctiva
B. Hyperkeratosis
C. Bone pain
D. Night blindness
E. Skin scaling

98. Which statement characterizes families in which spouse
abuses occurs?
A. Husbands of battered women have higher
education than the ones who are not.
B. Women who were abused as children are more
likely to be abused by their spouse.
C. Women whose mothers suffered abuse are
more likely to be abused than those who did
not witness violence.
D. In the Arab world, men who batter women
should expect to be prosecuted
E. Older women are more at risk of spouse abuses
than younger ones

99. Vegetable fat in contrast to animal fat is
A. Saturated.
B. Poor in vitamins A and D.
C. Causes atherosclerosis.
D. Heat-labile.
E. Is not present in the Mediterranean diet.

100. A survey of health status of workers was conducted
targeting all 600 'employees of the factory. Of those. 400
returned a completed questionnaire. A total of 80 persons
reported symptoms consistent with a syndrome
previously observed among workers in that factory, but
for which they had not sought care. The response rate to
the questionnaire was...
A. 5.0%
B. 7.5%.
C. 20.0%
D. 37.5%
E. 67.0%

************************
GOOD LUCK

ARAB BOARD FOR COMMUNITY MEDICINE Exam Paper (70%)- MCQs 2015

Dr.AbdulQawi Almohamadi
Page 44 of 107
Long Questions 2015

Option A Option B
QUESTION 1:
Briefly define the epidemiological transition. As a Health
Care System manager, discuss the health information data
upon which you plan the response of the needs of the
epidemiological transition in your country?
فرع زاجيإب موهفم لوحتلا يئابولا كتفصب ريدم لوؤسم يف ةرادا مظن
تامولعملا ؟ةيحصلا ام يه تامولعملا ةيحصلا يتلا جاتحت اهيلإ طيطختل
ةباجتسا ماظنلا هذهل تلاوحتلا ةئيبلا يف ؟كدلب
Briefly define the concept of "Emerging and Re-emerging
Diseases". Give one example of each. For each one
describes the dynamics leading to this new situation, and
propose a plan for prevention and control?
فرع زاجيإب موهفم ضارملأا ةدجتسملا ؟ةثعبنملاو دروا لااثم لكل نم نيذه
نيضرملا ةرطيسلاو امهيلع.
QUESTION 2:
Briefly define global warming" and its Possible causes.
Discuss the effects on the ecology of the planet with
consequences on global public health.
فرع زاجيإب موهفم سابتحلاا يرارحلا ينوكلا هبابسأو ؟ةلمتحملا شقان هتاريثأت
ىلع ةئيبلا ةيحلا ىلع ضرلأا اهتاساكعناو ىلع ةحصلا ةماعلا ةينوكلا.
In a country facing internal conflicts, many people are
displaced and have to live in refugee camps which are not
always well-planned. What are non-health problems
encountered by the displaced population associated with
exposure to the natural elements and to poor hygiene
conditions? What are essential preventive interventions that
you propose?
يف ةلود هجاوت تاعارص ةيلخاد دجت احوزن تاعومجمل ةيرشب وحن تاميخم
ةيئاوشع .يهام لكاشملا ةيحصلا ةعئاشلا نيب نيحزانلا ةجتانلاو نع ضرعتلا
لماوعلل ةيعيبطلا فورظلاو ةشيعملا ةئيسلا يف هذه تاميخملا .ام يه
تلاخدملا ةيساسلأا يتلا اهحرتقت.
QUESTION 3:
Propose a frame for developing and evaluating a surveillance
system which expands beyond the traditional surveillance of
communicable diseases
حرتقا راطإ دادعلإ ميوقتو ماظن دصرت ىدعتي دودحلا ةيديلقتلا دصرتل ضارملأا
ةيلاقتنلاا.
Design brief comprehensive plan which would reduce the
current level of Maternal Mortality Rate by half over the
coming 5 Years?

عض ةطخ ةلماش هصخلم ضفخل لدعم تايفو تاهملأا ىلا فصنلا للاخ
سمخ اونس

1 December 2016 MCQs First Exam (Duration 3h)
Dr.AbdulQawi Almohamadi
Page 45 of 107
MCQs 2016

1. Which study design would you prefer to determine a possible
causal association?
A. Review of cases.
B. Case-control.
C. Cross-sectional.
D. Ecological
E. Descriptive

2. The measure of central location most commonly used with the
standard deviation is the...
A. Mean
B. Median
C. Mid-range
D. Mode
E. Quartiles

3. The measure of spread most affected by one extreme value is
the...
A. Interquartile range
B. Range
C. Standard deviation
D. Mean
E. Median

4. Which factor does NOT affect the length of the incubation
period?
A. Dose of the infecting agent
B. Portal of entry of the infecting agent
C. Virulence
D. Immune response of the host
E. Proximity to the end-organ

5. Of the following organs, which one can serve as a portal of
entry for an infection?
A. Liver
B. Skin
C. Heart
D. Kidney
E. Spleen

6. Which of these Vitamin has a role in preventive of congenital
malformations?
A. Biotin
B. Folate
C. Niacin
D. pantothenic acid
E. Vitamin E

7. Deficiency in one of these vitamins may lead to hemolytic
anemia?
A. Vitamin B6
B. Vitamin B12
C. Vitamin O
D. Vitamin E
E. Vitamin K

8. The most common food allergy in children is an allergy to...
A. Nuts
B. Wheat
C. Soy
D. Cow's milk
E. Eggs

09-13: In a field trial to measure the protective effect of a new,
more effective vaccine against mumps, parents of all children aged
6 months to 3 years living in a village were contacted to obtain
informed consent. The children whose parents agreed to participate
were randomly allocated in a double blind process either to the
vaccine or to the placebo group during august 2013. An epidemic
of mumps reached this area during November 2013 and lasted
January 2014. All the participating children were visited once a
week to obtain information on the incidence of mumps. The
following were the results:

• Number of children 6 months to 3 years in the village:
460
• Number of children enrolled in the study: 400 equally
distributed
• Number of children who developed mumps: 20 in the
vaccine group and 60 in the placebo group.
• Number of deaths: 0 in the vaccine group and 2 in the
placebo group

9. What was the incidence of mumps among children in the
village?
A. 10%
B. 17%
C. 20%
D. 30%
E. Cannot be calculated with the data provided

10. Which was the case fatality in the participating children?
A. 0.9%
B. 0.5%
C. 2.5%
D. 3%
E. Cannot be calculated with the date provided

Results
Vaccine
Placebo
Total
Diseases
20
60
80
Healthy
180
140
320
Total
200
200
400

1 December 2016 MCQs First Exam (Duration 3h)
Dr.AbdulQawi Almohamadi
Page 46 of 107
11. What was the incidence of mumps among the vaccinated
group?
A. 10%
B. 17%
C. 20%
D. 30%
E. Cannot be calculated with the data provided

12. What was the mumps-associated death rate in the participating
children?
A. 0%
B. 0.5%
C. 2.5%
D. 3%
E. Cannot be calculated with the data provided

13. Based on these results. what would be your conclusion
regarding the vaccine under trial?
A. It is not possible to conclude because the relative
risk cannot be calculated
B. The vaccine is not effective
C. The vaccine is a dangerous product which should be
discontinued
D. The vaccine is effective
E. Results are not conclusive

14. ---------- Unavailable …………….
15. ---------- Unavailable …………….
16. ---------- Unavailable …………….
17. ---------- Unavailable …………….
18. ---------- Unavailable …………….

Q. 19-21 : An oncologist is assessing the validity of using protein
P65, as a marker for detecting breast cancer in its earlier stages.
The protein level was tested in 2 groups of women those disease
status had been previously determined. Results are presented in the
table below

19. What the Sensitivity of the p65 test?
A. 212/246
B. 235/510
C. 212/235
D. 241/275
E. cannot be calculated in this type of study

20. What is the specificity of the p65 test?
A. 212/246
B. 235/510
C. 212/235
D. 241/275
E. Cannot be calculated in this type of study

21. What is the probability that a woman who tests positive
actually real cancer case?
A. 212/246
B. 235/510
C. 212/235
D. 241/275
E. Cannot be calculated in this type of study

22. In a community of 60,000 persons about 6000 new cases of
cancer are diagnosed every year. In this community, the
average duration of cancer is about 5 years. What is the
expected prevalence of cancer cases in any given year?
A. 50
B. 100
C. 600
D. 3000
E. 6000

23. ---------- Unavailable …………….
24. ---------- Unavailable …………….
25. ---------- Unavailable …………….
26. ---------- Unavailable …………….

27. Which statement regarding tetanus is correct?
A. Herd immunity will protect individuals from getting
the disease.
B. The infection has a higher incidence in males than
females.
C. It is the only vaccine-preventable disease that is
infectious but not contagious.
D. Neonatal tetanus (NNT) is still a leading cause of
neonatal mortality worldwide.
E. Pregnant women who require vaccination can only
receive antitetanus immunoglobulins.

28. What is the appropriate statistical test to compare differences
in mean of blood pressure among samples of government
employees in three ministries?
A. Paired t-test
B. Correlation coefficient.
C. Chi-square test
D. AVOVA test
E. Non-parametric test.

1 December 2016 MCQs First Exam (Duration 3h)
Dr.AbdulQawi Almohamadi
Page 47 of 107
29. A study result showed that both mean and median of the
blood pressure distribution of male aged 30 to 69, are
approximately 83 mmHg. The standard deviation is 12
mmHg. Which of the following statements is correct?
A. Approximately 5% of the men have diastolic blood
pressure over 107 mmHg
B. The 99% confidence limits on the mean for all men
in this study are 59 and107 mmHg.
C. Approximately 95% of men have diastolic blood
pressure between 59 and 107 mmHg
D. Approximately 10% of the men have diastolic blood
pressure aver 95 mmHg.
E. Data are not available to answer this question

30. Which statement regarding osteoporosis is correct?
A. It is equally common in women in all ethnic groups
worldwide.
B. The disease is characterized by reduced bone
density.
C. Wrist fracture is the most frequent accident
associated with osteoporosis.
D. No evidence-based screening tests are available yet
E. The incidence is higher in males than females after
age 70.

31. ---------- Unavailable …………….
32. ---------- Unavailable …………….
33. ---------- Unavailable …………….
34. ---------- Unavailable …………….
35. ---------- Unavailable …………….

36. Which statement regarding advice to those traveling to
malaria-endemic areas is NOT correct?
A. All travelers should be advised to take an
appropriate prophylactic drug regimen.
B. Travelers can be advised that if an appropriate drug
regimen is taken, they are safe from the likelihood
of contracting Malaria
C. Persons who develop symptoms of malaria should
seek proper medical evaluation as soon as possible
D. Malaria symptoms may develop as early as eight
days after initial exposure
E. Symptoms may appear months after returning from
an endemic area if prophylactic treatment is
discontinued

37. Which of this rate is most commonly used as international
indicator of socio-economic development?
A. Stillbirth rate
B. Abortion rate
C. Perinatal mortality rate
D. Neonatal mortality rate
E. Infant mortality rate

38. The main effect of regular physical exercise to...
A. Decrease LDL
B. Increase HDL
C. Increase blood pressure
D. Reduce coronary heart disease by 10-15 %
E. Improve insulin sensitivity in diabetic patients type I

39. Herd immunity refers to...
A. Genetic resistance to specific diseases
B. Immunity naturally acquired in populations
C. The high levels of antibody present in a population
after an epidemic
D. The prevention of disease transmission to
susceptible individuals in the population through
acquired immunity in children
E. Protection of newborns through maternal antibodies.

40. ---------- Unavailable …………….
41. ---------- Unavailable …………….
42. ---------- Unavailable …………….
43. ---------- Unavailable …………….

44. Which statement about lung disease caused by inhalation of
particles of crystalline silica (silicosis) is NOT correct?
A. It is one of the most common occupational lung
diseases in the world
B. Can be seen even in persons with brief but intense
intermittent exposure to silica dust
C. Chest radiographs show small rounded pulmonary
nodules in the upper and middle lung
D. A normal chest radiograph excludes the diagnosis of
silicosis
E. In industrialized countries, cardiac problems are the
most frequent complications of silicosis

45. Which one of the following characteristics of noise exposure
will NOT contribute to hearing loss?
A. The duration of exposure
B. The intensity of the noise
C. Whether the noise is continuous or intermittent
D. The frequency of the noise
E. The mono-tonality of the sound

46. The dose-response curve of a toxic substance is utilized to...
A. Determine its physical characteristics.
B. Estimate its a molecular weight
C. Determine the range of its toxicity.
D. Identify the organ affected .
E. Study its chemical properties.

1 December 2016 MCQs First Exam (Duration 3h)
Dr.AbdulQawi Almohamadi
Page 48 of 107
47- 49: An outbreak of gastritis occurred on cruise ship. The
data in the following table were obtained, shortly after the
outbreak, from questionnaire completed by everyone on board of
the ship

47. ---------- Unavailable …………….
48. ---------- Unavailable …………….
49. ---------- Unavailable …………….

50. Which condition is NOT associated with an acute episode of
asthma?
A. Emotional stress
B. Indoor smoking
C. Physical exhaustion
D. Alcohol abuse
E. Upper respiratory tract infection

51. Which statement is NOT associated with Primary Health Care
(PHC)?
A. It is the first point of contact with the health care
system.
B. PHC is a concept, a strategy and a set of activities.
C. It calls for integrating health with a package of
social services.
D. PHC is based on a comprehensive understanding of
health.
E. The priority is to bring individuals to enter in
contact medical care.

52. Which elements should NOT be essential in setting the
national priorities in health policy?
A. Results can be obtained in a relatively short period
of time.
B. Optimal allocation of resources.
C. Availability of adequate manpower.
D. Cost-benefit analysis.
E. Morbidity and mortality patterns.

53. Which statement concerning type I error (or α -error) is NOT
correct?
A. It is the rejection of a null hypothesis that is actually
true.
B. It is often assigned a probability value of 0.05 in
studies.
C. It is also called the power of the study.
D. It is used to determine the sample size of a survey.
E. It can be assessed using the 95% confidence
interval.

54. The difference in success rates between plans A and B was
statistically significant (P< 0.01), yet health officials decided
not to change to plan B. This implies that...
A. They attributed the difference in success rates to
chance alone.
B. They felt the samples were too small to justify a
decision in favor of plan B.
C. The p-value was considered too small to justify a
decision in favor of plan B.
D. They distinguished between the statistical
significance and the practical importance of the
difference in success rates.
E. They felt that the success rates should be higher
than 50%.

55. ---------- Unavailable …………….
56. ---------- Unavailable …………….
57. ---------- Unavailable …………….
58. ---------- Unavailable …………….
59. ---------- Unavailable …………….
60. ---------- Unavailable …………….
61. ---------- Unavailable …………….

62. The safest way of disposing of organic municipal refuse is...
A. Dumping at sea
B. Burying in landfills
C. Recycling
D. Incineration
E. Composting

63. Which element is NOT usually inducted in maternal and
children care (MCH) services?
A. Detection and prevention of labor hazards
B. Correction of maternal risks which may affect
normal intra-uterine growth
C. Monitoring children's growth and development
D. Assessing the rubella status of the mother
E. Measuring the IQ of children reaching the age of 5

64. Which of the following statements is NOT characteristic of a
common vehicle outbreak transmitted through person-to-
person contact?
A. Secondary attack rate
B. Severity increases with age
C. Explosive onset
D. Cases include people who have been directly and
indirectly
E. An epidemics curve with several peaks

Eat
Salad
Chicken
Meat
Fish
Chocolate
People
who ate
food
Sick
100
150
100
350
300
People
who
ate
food
well
400
350
400
150
200
People
who did
not eat
Sick
50
50
250
200
200
People
who did
not eat
Well
450
450
250
300
300

1 December 2016 MCQs First Exam (Duration 3h)
Dr.AbdulQawi Almohamadi
Page 49 of 107
65. Which one of the stated concepts is the final purpose of
tertiary prevention?
A. Preventing complications of chronic conditions.
B. Improving the quality of life in terminal patients.
C. Changing the course of disease.
D. Modifying patients' health behavior.
E. Starting curative treatment as early as possible.

66. ---------- Unavailable …………….
67. ---------- Unavailable …………….
68. ---------- Unavailable …………….

69. Chi-square test finds p-value < 0.01. This means that
A. The Probability of an association is very low.
B. There is a large statistical risk of error in pretending
that the association does not exist when in fact it
does exist
C. The association between daily computer use and
CTS is significant.
D. The study must be re-done to reach a p-value ≤
0.05.
E. A meta-analysis will reach the same results as this
study.

70. This study is not a case-control Study because...
A. The temporal sequence is not clear.
B. The number of CTS cases was not determined
before the study.
C. The Chi-square test can be used here but not in case-
control studies.
D. It is not biased.
E. The sampling technique is not presented.

Q71-75 : All children born in the Northern district between
Jan 1 and Dec 31, 1995 were followed-up to measure the
association between obesity in parent and in their children,
based on the Body Mass Index (BMI). At age 18, adolescents
born to at least one obese parent were compared to those born
to non-obese parents. Results are presented in the table below

71. What is this study design?
A. Descriptive study
B. Survey
C. Case-control study
D. Cohort study
E. Longitudinal trial.

72. ---------- Unavailable …………….
73. ---------- Unavailable …………….
74. ---------- Unavailable …………….
75. ---------- Unavailable …………….

76. How do classified man whose height is 180 cm and weight
93kg?
A. Normal weight
B. Overweight
C. Obese
D. Morbidly obese
E. Cannot be calculated just with height and weight

77. The process of day-to-day follow-up activities to ensure that
health programs are proceeding as planned is:
A. Evaluation.
B. Implementation.
C. Prioritization.
D. Surveillance.
E. Monitoring.

78. It has been suggested that physicians may examine women
who use oral contraceptive more often or more thoroughly
than women who do not, looking for potential phlebitis.
Which type of bias can be generated in this case?
A. Selection bias
B. Interviewer bias
C. Surveillance bias
D. Non-response bias
E. Recall bias

79. Concerning the infection with hepatitis C virus:
A. Screening test is not yet available.
B. Fecal-oral transmission is most common.
C. Animal reservoirs are important
D. The incubation period is 5-7 weeks.
E. Immunization is readily available.

80. An ideal screening program for primary prevention should...
A. Aim at treating disease before damage has occurred.
B. Include tests that have been useful in diagnosis.
C. Ignore genetic abnormalities.
D. Focus on diseases that are rarely seen by physicians.
E. Give priority to diseases with a long pre-
symptomatic natural history.

Parents
At least one
obese
Both non-obese
Total
Obese
Adolescent
21
17
38
Persons
Years
3900
5468
9368
Incidence
(per 1000 Person)
5.4
3.1
4.1

1 December 2016 MCQs First Exam (Duration 3h)
Dr.AbdulQawi Almohamadi
Page 50 of 107
81. ---------- Unavailable …………….
82. ---------- Unavailable …………….
83. ---------- Unavailable …………….
84. ---------- Unavailable …………….

85. Prolonged exposure to heat resulting in fainting is known as...
A. Heat exhaustion
B. Heat stroke
C. Heat cramps
D. Heat syncope
E. Heat-associated ischemic accident

86. Which one of these vaccines targets adults only?
A. Whole cell pertussis vaccine
B. Hepatitis B vaccine
C. Meningococcal vaccine
D. MMR
E. Polysaccharide typhoid vaccine

87. Which measure is NOT associated with the control of a
disease spread by common vehicle (like common meal for
example)?
A. Hand washing
B. Safe water supply
C. Adequate sewage system
D. Hygienic handling of food
E. Screening donated blood

88. Which one of the following items is NOT a passive strategy
for the prevention and control of accidents and injury
A. Vehicle anti-lock brakes
B. Carpeting
C. Home hot water maximum setting at 48°C
D. Seat belts
E. Air bags

89. Which of the following parameters CANNOT be obtained
from a population pyramid?
A. Level of development of the country.
B. Gender percentage in the total population.
C. Age groups in the population.
D. Geographic distribution of the population
E. Demographic profiles of the population

90. ---------- Unavailable …………….
91. ---------- Unavailable …………….
92. ---------- Unavailable …………….
93. ---------- Unavailable …………….
94. ---------- Unavailable …………….

95. Which procedure is an example of secondary prevention?
A. Dialysis
B. Detection and treatment of hypertension
C. Folic acid supplementation of foods
D. Percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty
E. Childhood vaccination

96. The most effective intervention to eradicate dracunculiasis
(guinea worm) is...
A. Detection and treatment of all cases
B. Provision of safe drinking water
C. Vaccination
D. Vector control
E. Health education

97. Which recent development marks a major advance towards
global control of malaria
A. Licensing of a new vaccine.
B. Marketing a new chemical pesticide to overcome
the resistance of mosquitoes to DDT
C. Development of third-line medications derived from
quinine
D. Licensing a Rapid Diagnostic Test which allows the
detection of cases in minutes
E. Expansion of the use of insecticide-treated nets

98. Which of the following features of polio does NOT contribute
to its eradication?
A. There is a safe and inexpensive vaccine against
polio
B. Most cases of polio infection are asymptomatic
C. Wild polio transmission has already been eliminated
in most nations on earth
D. There is public demand for the eradication of this
disease
E. Natural or induced Immunity is life-long

99. Which of the following statements regarding the transmission
of an infection agent is NOT true?
A. Transmission can be established by conducting
thorough interviews with disease cases regarding all
potential risk factors
B. Food-borne transmission is likely when all cases
report attending the same banquet
C. Flying insect bites can be ruled out when most cases
occur among people in only one building
D. Airborne infection was strongly suspected when
infection occurred among bystanders facing the air-
conditioning vents
E. In general, an outbreak strongly indicates that a
national epidemic is likely to occur soon

100. ---------- Unavailable …………….
101. ---------- Unavailable …………….
102. ---------- Unavailable …………….
103. ---------- Unavailable …………….
104. ---------- Unavailable …………….

1 December 2016 MCQs First Exam (Duration 3h)
Dr.AbdulQawi Almohamadi
Page 51 of 107
105. Which statement regarding the healthy worker effect" is NOT
correct?
A. A frequent bias in case-control studies.
B. Refers to the fact that workers are generally in better
health at time of recruitment than the rest of the
population.
C. Can explain the lower incidence among exposed
workers compared to the general population.
D. Will slowly disappear with continued occupational
exposure.
E. Can be canceled by comparing a cohort of workers
to a similar occupational group rather than to the
general population.

106. Which one of the following infections CANNOT be measured
transmitted Transplacental from mother to fetus?
A. Toxoplasmosis
B. Listeriosis
C. Measles
D. Cytomegalovirus
E. Zika virus

107. Which factor does NOT affect the probability of food-borne
spread?
A. pH and salt content of contaminated food.
B. Caloric value.
C. Temperature at which food is served.
D. Season of contamination.
E. The way food is prepared.

108. The aim of primary prevention is to reduce the
A. Prevalence
B. Mortality
C. Case-fatality
D. Treatment cost
E. Incidence

109. In contrast with animal fat , vegetable oil...
A. Contains mostly saturated fats
B. Is poor in vitamin C
C. Causes atherosclerosis
D. Is heat labile
E. Is cholesterol free

110. The most frequent site of nosocomial infections is…
A. Wounds
B. Skin
C. Gastrointestinal tract
D. Respiratory system
E. Urinary tract

Q.111 – 112 :
A 27-year-old drug abuser presents with cough, fever, and an
abnormal chest x-ray showing hilar and mediastinal adenopathy
and bilateral lower lob infiltrates. His intermediate Monteux
tuberculin test shows a greater than 5 induration.

111. The most likely diagnosis is...
A. Pneumococcal pneumonia
B. Pulmonary tuberculosis
C. Mycoplasma pneumonia
D. Aspiration pneumonia
E. Viral pneumonia

112. The underlying condition associated with this illness is most
likely...
A. Sickle-cell disease
B. Alcoholism
C. Drug abuse
D. HIV infection
E. Hodgkin's disease

113. Which vitamin cannot be found in eggs?
A. A
B. B5
C. B12
D. C
E. E

114. The relationship between a survey sample size and the
expected sample error is...
A. Linear
B. Direct
C. Positive
D. Exponential
E. Inexistent

115. The population age-sex pyramid in most Arab countries is
shaped like a
A. Square
B. Circle
C. Double-bulge rectangle
D. Reverse pyramid
E. Triangle

116. In judging a causal association, which one criteria is
absolutely necessary?
A. Strength of the association
B. Temporal sequence
C. Consistency of findings
D. Biological explanation
E. Repeatability of findings

1 December 2016 MCQs First Exam (Duration 3h)
Dr.AbdulQawi Almohamadi
Page 52 of 107

117. In the maternal mortality ratio, the denominator is
A. 1000 live births
B. 1000 population
C. 1000 births
D. 1000 pregnancies
E. 1000 women in reproductive ages

118. The leading cause of death among schoolchildren is
A. Injuries
B. Malignant diseases
C. Communicable diseases
D. Respiratory illnesses
E. Congenital anomalies

119. Volatile organic chemicals (VOCs) tend to concentrate in the
A. Surface water
B. Air
C. Sediment
D. Edible fish tissue
E. Soil

120. Which intoxication causes stomatitis and Gingivitis as well as
tremors?
A. Мегсury
B. Nickel
C. Zinc
D. Arsenic
E. Вегyllium

************************
GOOD LUCK

1 December 2016 MCQs First Exam (Duration 3h)
Dr.AbdulQawi Almohamadi
Page 53 of 107
Long Questions 2016
Section one:
Option A:
Meningococcal meningitis outbreaks are reported occasionally in some Arab countries. You are director of the Epidemiological Surveillance in a
province, and you receive a report from the medical officer in a rural hospital about a suspicious situation. During the 3rd week of April, 13
patients reported to the hospital from the town and surrounding villages, complaining of headache and neck stiffness, of whom 2 had died. More
cases and deaths are believed to have occurred with similar symptoms, without reporting to the hospital. The medical officer suspected a
meningitis outbreak.
1. What additional information would you require to investigate the situation?
2. What steps will you take if meningococcal meningitis is confirmed?
Option B:
Cholera remains a potential threat to Public Health in some parts of the Arab world, especially in situation of civil war or structural disruptions.
You are the medical director of the town hospital. One morning (15) patients were brought from a nearby village complaining of acute severe
watery diarrhea with signs of dehydration. You are informed that (2) other cases had died before transportation to the hospital. You learned that
a heavy-load truck had fallen in a ditch outside the village causing the breakage of the main sewage line from the village, not too far from the
main drinking well.
1. What is the differential diagnosis that you consider when faced with an outbreak of an acute diarrheal disease?
2. What are the laboratory tests that you will require to determine the final diagnosis?
3. What are the non-health sectors with whom you need to cooperate to investigate this
4. What are the data that you will want to obtain from those other stakeholders?
5. Assume that the etiology of the outbreak is found to be cholera. What are steps to be done immediately to stop the spread of the
outbreak? What are the steps which need to be taken on the longer term?
Section two:
Option A:
Breast is the most common cancer of women worldwide.
1. Enumerate the risk factors for breast cancer and briefly mention potential preventive strategies available.
2. What are screening methods available for breast cancer, and how would you recommend their
Option B
Cervical cancer attacks women at different ages with high level of morbidity and mortality if not detected early.
1. Enumerate the risk factors for cervical cancer and briefly mention potential preventive strategies available.
2. What are screening methods available for cervical cancer, and how would you recommend their use?
3. List the main components of a national program for cervical cancer control.

Section three
Option A;
Many Arabic countries are experiencing civil wars and violent events which result in refugees and displaced populations living in overcrowded
camps. Unfortunately, some of these situations have been ongoing for several years, with no obvious solution in sight.
1. What are health problems encountered in the acute phase of the crisis and how would you address them?
2. As the situation enters a more chronic phase, how would those health problems change, and how would you respond to those changes?
3. What are the considerations to be kept in mind regarding the health and well being needs of host communities?
Option B:
Occupational health in modern times tends to shift its focus from agriculture and industrial occupations to those of the service-based sector.
1. What are some occupational health hazards associated with office work and what would be some preventive measures that you would
propose?
2. What are some occupational health hazards particular to health care workers, and what would be some preventive measures that you
would propose?

23/ MAY 2017 The First Part Examination
Dr.AbdulQawi Almohamadi
Page 54 of 107
Results Diseases Healthy Total
Positive 50 75 125
Negative 25 850 875
Total 75 925 1000

MCQs 2017

1. Which statement regarding vaccine safety is correct?
A. Safety is a lesser concern of vaccines manufacturers,
compared to effectiveness.
B. On-going monitoring is required even after the
vaccine has been licensed for general use.
C. Safety evaluation is based on animal trials.
D. Safety is not a concern anymore once the vaccine
has been used worldwide.
E. Highly effective vaccines are usually safe.

2. “Quarantine” refers to
A. A hospital specialized in the isolation of travelers
with suspicious signs of disease.
B. Forty days during which diseases with fever are
contagious.
C. A period which follows the end of an epidemic,
during which surveillance remains in place.
D. A public health concept not applied since World
War 1.
E. A separation between those who are sick or in
contact with sick persons and a population believed
to be in good health

3. The healthy worker effect in occupational cohorts
A. Is an example of the ecological fallacy.
B. Is also known as the survival bias.
C. Refers to an initially lower mortality rate in the
cohort, compared to the general population.
D. Results from non-valid measurements.
E. Can be corrected by eliminating young and recently
employed workers.

4. The most serious threat to the precision of estimates derived
from mass screenings for hypertension may originate from
A. Selection bias.
B. Random errors.
C. Social bias.
D. Confounding factors.
E. Double-blind techniques.

Q5-6:
If systematic PSA testing for detection of asymptomatic prostate
cancer is discontinued, it will cause an increase in prostate-specific
mortality in <1/1000 men of all ages

5. This information is essential to be able to conduct
A. Epidemiological studies.
B. Evidence-based medicine.
C. Cost-effectiveness analysis.
D. Cost-benefit analysis.
E. Standardized procedures

6. This type of information is obtained from
A. Surveys.
B. Cross-sectional studies.
C. Case-control studies.
D. Reviews of mortality reports.
E. A randomized controlled trial

7. Which study design would you prefer to provide the strongest
evidence for a causal
A. Review of cases
B. Case-control
C. Cross-sectional
D. Ecological study
E. Descriptive

Q8-11.:
Assume that you are evaluating a new screening test in a
population of 1000 people, of whom 75 are known cases for the
disorder under screening. Of the 75 affected persons, 50 yield
positive test results; 75 of the normal people also have positive test
results.

8. From this information, the sensitivity for the test is
A. 85%
B. 67%
C. 58%
D. 92%
E. Cannot be measured with the data provided

9. From this information, the specificity for the test is
A. 9%
B. 33%
C. 40%
D. 87%
E. 92%

10. From this information, the positive predictive value for the
test is
A. 60%
B. 40%
C. 20%
D. 10%
E. 97%
Results
positive
Negative
Total
Diseases
50
25
75
Healthy
75
850
925
Total
125
875
1000

23/ MAY 2017 The First Part Examination
Dr.AbdulQawi Almohamadi
Page 55 of 107
11. What is the trade-off between sensitivity and specificity?
A. Increasing the sensitivity would be extremely
important when testing for a disease currently
incurable.
B. If missing the diagnosis can lead to devastating
consequences, it is essential to increase the
specificity.
C. In general, specificity is more important than
sensitivity for screening tests.
D. Increasing the cut-off point for positivity will
increase the proportion of false-positive results.
E. Specificity depends on the prevalence of disease in a
given community

12. Which of the following parameters CANNOT be obtained
from a population age-pyramid?
A. An indication of the level of development of the
country.
B. Gender percentage in the total population.
C. Age groups in the population.
D. Geographic distribution of the population.
E. Demographic profile of the population.

13. A cohort study is useful in finding the
A. Prevalence rate of the disease.
B. International trends.
C. Incidence rate of the disease.
D. Efficiency of interventions.
E. Effectiveness of a new drug.

14. In an epidemic, in which situation can a normal distribution of
cases be found?
A. Repeated exposures
B. Pandemic
C. Propagated epidemic
D. Common exposure source
E. Endemic

Q15-16:
he following readings are the fasting blood glucose levels of a
sample of (11) children: 56, 62, 63, 65, 65, 65, 65, 68, 70, 72, 73.

15. The median value is
A. 59.1
B. 65
C. 60
D. 72.2
E. 80

16. The mean value is
A. 59.1
B. 65.8
C. 60.0
D. 72.2
E. 80.4

17. If an association is found between the incidence of a disease
and a certain genetic marker, this means that
A. The disease is clearly genetic in origin
B. This disease cannot be prevented
C. Genetic factors may be implicated in the etiology of
the disease
D. A role of environmental factors is to be excluded
E. The occurrence of the disease is inevitable in
siblings

18. In the control and prevention of brucellosis:
A. There is an effective vaccine for sheep
B. Human vaccination is available
C. Milk products are usually tested for brucellosis
D. The infection can be disseminated through raw milk
but not through cheese or labneh
E. Brucellosis in humans is a particularity of rural
areas only

19. Which statement is correct regarding chickenpox (varicella)?
A. Subclinical infections are rare
B. With increasing vaccination, most cases will shift to
adult age-groups
C. It may recur years later as herpes simplex
D. Pets such as domestic cats and dogs are potential
reservoirs
E. The vaccine has to be boosted every five years

20. Which indicator is most adequate to compare the mortality
experience of populations in two different countries?
A. Infant mortality
B. Crude death rates
C. Age-specific death rates
D. Age-standardized death rates
E. Sex-specific death rates

21. In a study, mean fasting blood glucose levels in three
independent samples were compared. The appropriate
statistical test for this comparison is..
A. Chi-square
B. Mann-Whitney
C. Student t-test
D. ANOVA
E. Spearman’s coefficient

22. Which of the following associations in occupational medicine
is NOT correct?
A. Benzene and leukemia
B. Hard wood dust and gastric cancer
C. Asbestos and mesothelioma
D. Vinyl chloride and hepatic angiosarcoma
E. Arsenic and skin cancer

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Q 23-26:
In a prospective study, 2000 young adults were studied for 20
years. During this period 100 developed lung cancer and of those
90 were smokers. Out of the 1900 people who did not develop lung
cancer, 710 were nonsmokers (Answer the following questions
after creating a 2x2 table).

23. At the end of the follow-up, what was the prevalence of
smoking in this group?
A. 37%
B. 59%
C. 64%
D. 70%
E. 90%

24. What is the incidence rate of lung cancer per 100 in smokers?
A. 1
B. 4
C. 5.3
D. 7
E. 9

25. What is the incidence rate of lung cancer per 100 in non-
smokers?
A. 1
B. 4
C. 5.3
D. 7
E. 9

26. What is the relative risk for lung cancer among smokers
compared to nonsmokers in this
A. 1
B. 4
C. 5
D. 7
E. 9

27. Chronic carrier state is seen in all EXCEPT:
A. Typhoid
B. Measles
C. Hepatitis
D. Gonorrhea
E. Meningococcal meningitis

28. What would it take for the Ebola outbreak in Africa (2015) to
be considered a pandemic?
A. An epidemic of great severity involving large
numbers of people in the most populated country of
Africa.
B. The occurrence of an unexpected number of cases
worldwide.
C. Cases of indigenous transmission are reported from
at least three continents.
D. Outbreaks simultaneously occurring in all countries
of Western Europe.
E. The epidemic occurs in a country with direct airline
flights to Europe and North America.

29. In a case-control study to investigate the association between
oral contraception and breast cancer
A. Controls would be given oral contraception.
B. Cases would be women with breast cancer.
C. Cases would be given oral contraception.
D. Women with breast cancer would be randomly
allocated to be cases or controls.
E. Controls would be observed for several years to see
how many developed breast cancer

30. Which statement regarding polio is correct?
A. Environmental sanitation is the main strategy in
polio prevention.
B. Education regarding the protective value of
vaccination is still needed in countries with wild
polio virus transmission.
C. Immunoglobulins can prevent the disease following
exposure.
D. The live attenuated polio vaccine is indicated for
mass vaccination campaigns.
E. Polio has been eliminated in Asia.

31. Which of the following confers passive natural immunity?
A. Hepatitis B vaccine
B. MMR vaccine
C. Hepatitis B immunoglobulins
D. Exposure to the measles virus
E. Cross-placental transfer of maternal antibodies

32. How much exercise is recommended for the average adult?
A. Fifteen minutes of vigorous activity at least three
times a week.
B. One hour per night of moderate intensity.
C. Thirty minutes of moderate intensity at least 5 days
a week.
D. One very long exercise session during the week-end.
E. No exercise is necessary unless one is overweight.

Smoking
Yes
No
Total
Cancer
90
10
100
Normal
1190
710
1900
Total
1280
720
2000

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33. How do you classify a man whose height is 180 cm and
weight 93 kg?
A. Normal weight
B. Overweight
C. Obese
D. Morbidly obese
E. Cannot be calculated just with height and weight

34. Water fluoridation is carried out to prevent...
A. Bacterial growth
B. Dental fluorosis
C. Dental caries
D. Osteoporosis
E. Kidney stones

35. Which term most appropriately describes the mortality rate
that includes stillbirths and live born infants who die within
the first 7 days of life?
A. Post-neonatal mortality rate
B. Maternal mortality rate
C. Neonatal mortality rate
D. Infant mortality rate
E. Perinatal mortality rate

36. The greatest problem in urban environmental pollution is.
A. Air pollution.
B. Water pollution.
C. Radiation pollution.
D. Sewage pollution.
E. Food contamination.

37. What is the most important preventive activity of an
occupational health service?
A. Pre-employment examinations
B. Periodical health check-ups
C. Supervision of the working environment
D. First aid and medical care following accidents
E. Decreasing the cost of treatments provided to
workers

38. The "demographic transition" in the 1990s referred to
A. Mobility of the population.
B. Urbanization.
C. Increased percentage of old people in the
population.
D. Improvement in the system of vital statistics,
E. The emergence of demography as a component of
the Ministry of Planning.

39. An absolute contraindication for breast feeding is
A. Recurrent maternal urinary tract infection.
B. Maternal history of hepatitis A infection.
C. HIV treatment with anti-retroviral drugs.
D. Maternal history of hepatitis C infection.
E. Anemia treatment.

40. Eye-screening programs in adults are primarily targeting the
early detection of...
A. Glaucoma.
B. Myopia.
C. Astigmatism.
D. Chorioretinitis.
E. Trachoma

41. Which statement correctly characterizes asthma?
A. Age of onset before 40 in about 95 percent of cases
B. Persistently abnormal forced expiratory volume
(FEV1)
C. Greater frequency in girls than boys
D. Frequent family history of atopy
E. Preventive treatments are indicated for siblings of
asthmatic children

42. Which occupational exposure may cause Reynaud’s
syndrome?
A. Fine repetitive movements
B. Conditions leading to sleep deprivation
C. Vibrating tools
D. High level noise
E. Heavy weight lifting

43. Which mental health disorder is increasingly more detected in
young children?
A. Autism
B. Mental retardation
C. Behavioral problems
D. Schizophrenia
E. Depression

44. Which post-partum behavior is recommended by WHO?
A. Allowing mothers to rest for at least 12 hours before
"rooming in" (bringing the baby to the mother)
B. Breastfeeding freely on demand
C. Adding water to the infant’s diet when breastfeeding
in the summer
D. Introducing iron supplements from the first month
E. Shifting to infant formula if the mother is anemic

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45. In DOTS, all the following are true, EXCEPT :
A. It can solve the problem of tuberculosis patients
defaulting on treatment.
B. It is a program with a high cost-effectiveness.
C. It is designed to be used by trained doctors.
D. It can prevent the development of drug resistance to
tuberculosis.
E. The cure rate is improved in a major way.

46. An influenza pandemic is usually expected when...
A. there is an antigenic shift in influenza type B.
B. there is an antigenic drift in influenza type B.
C. the isolated strain is Hong Kong type C.
D. there is an antigenic shift in influenza type A.
E. there is direct transmission from animals to humans.

47. The first step in conducting an outbreak investigation is to...
A. Determine the number of cases.
B. Calculate the incubation period.
C. Determine the population at risk.
D. Verify the diagnosis.
E. Collect appropriate samples.

48. The most specific type of bias potentially found in Case-
control studies is the
A. Measurement bias.
B. Random bias.
C. Recall bias.
D. study cost.
E. Loss to follow-up.

49. A prospective cohort study.
A. Employs subjects known at the onset to have the
disease in question.
B. Employs subjects known at the onset to be disease-
free.
C. Employs subjects whose exposure to a suspected
risk factor is comparable to that of the control group
at the onset of the study.
D. Is preferred in the study of rare diseases.
E. Is more ethical than a case-control study.

50. The” Safe Motherhood Initiative"...
A. Aims to prevent avoidable causes of deaths among
mothers.
B. Is based on four activities: antenatal care, female
nutrition, hospital delivery and family planning.
C. Is a process to determine maternal risk based on
medical history obtained during the first visit to the
antenatal clinic.
D. Does not target culturally-specific factors such as
low age at pregnancy and parity of the
E. Pregnant mothers with previous still births and
abortions are considered a low to moderate risk
group.

51. Which factor may cause vaccination failure?
A. Some vaccines cannot resist the cold weather
B. Vaccines are used in populations different from
those in which they were developed
C. Drugs necessary to activate the vaccine were not
taken as prescribed
D. A vaccine was licensed for use in human
populations without proper controlled trials.
E. Immune deficiency

52. Vegetable fat in contrast to animal fat is
A. Saturated
B. Poor in vitamins A and D
C. Causes atherosclerosis
D. Heat-labile
E. Is not present in the Mediterranean die

53. A survey of health, status was conducted among all 600
employees of the factory. Of those, 400 returned a completed
questionnaire. A total of 80 persons reported symptoms
consistent with & syndrome previously observed in that
factory, but for which they had not sought care. The response
rate to the questionnaire was...
A. 5.0%
B. 7.5%
C. 20.0%
D. 37.5%
E. 66.6%

Q 54-56:
Select the epidemiological design which corresponds best to each
research question.

54. What is the prevalence of myopia among school children in
primary schools in the Capital?
A. Community trial
B. Cohort study
C. Unmatched case-control study
D. Sample survey
E. Cross-sectional study

55. How did the cancer incidence rate vary over the past 50 years
in your country?
A. Community trial
B. Descriptive analysis of registry data
C. Matched case-control study
D. Sample survey
E. Cohort study

56. Is myopia in schoolchildren better controlled when parents are
also myopic?
A. Randomized control trial
B. Cohort study
C. Unmatched case-control study
D. Sample survey
E. Cross-sectional study

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Dr.AbdulQawi Almohamadi
Page 59 of 107
Q57-61:
In April 2015, the Saudi Ministry of Health notified the World
Health Organization (WHO) that 16 cases of an acute respiratory
syndrome of unknown etiology had occurred in Jeddah. The
disease was characterized by transmission to health-care workers.
Five deaths had been reported.

57. This kind of data can be obtained through...
A. A survey of the population to diagnose all cases of
respiratory infections.
B. An active surveillance of respiratory problems
involving investigating each reported case when
special unexpected features are recorded.
C. A passive routine surveillance of respiratory
problems.
D. A review of medical records in hospitals.
E. A review of death certificates to study causes-of-
death.

58. The figure “5/16” is ...
A. A ratio.
B. A relative proportion.
C. A prevalence.
D. A disease-specific mortality rate.
E. A case-fatality rate.

59. A cumulative incidence rate of this acute syndrome of
unknown origin cannot be calculated with the information
given above because...
A. The cases are prevalent not incident.
B. The duration of the disease is unknown.
C. The population at risk is not provided.
D. The cause of the syndrome is unknown.
E. All individuals in the population were not observed
for the equal periods of time.

60. This syndrome is now called "Middle-East Respiratory
Syndrome" (MERS) and is caused by...
A. Flu virus.
B. Coronavirus.
C. Arenavirus.
D. Arbovirus.
E. HIV.

61. Most respiratory infection cases will remain undetected and
therefore unaccounted. In epidemiology this phenomenon is
known as...
A. Routine surveillance.
B. Ecological survey.
C. Incomplete incidence.
D. The tip of the iceberg phenomena.
E. An incubation period.

Q62-65
A study explores the association between job stress and high blood
pressure (HBP) among airport staff. Air traffic controllers are
compared to those in other departments. Results are shown in the
table below.

62. The prevalence of HBP in the staff at this airport is...
A. 30%
B. 31.6%
C. 40%
D. 62.5%
E. 70%

63. Under the null hypothesis, the number of staff members with
HBP in departments other than traffic control should be...
A. 45
B. 75
C. 90
D. 140
E. 200

64. The Chi-square test finds a P-value < 0.01. This means that ...
A. The probability of an association is very low.
B. There is a risk in pretending that the association
does not exist when in fact it does.
C. The association between stress among traffic
controllers and HBP is significant.
D. The study must be re-done to reach a P > 0.05.
E. A meta-analysis will reach the same results as this
study.

65. This study is not a case-control study because...
A. The temporal sequence is not clear.
B. The number of HBP cases was not determined
before the study.
C. The Chi-square test is not used in case-control
studies.
D. It is not biased.
E. The sampling technique is not presented.

Study
Air traffic
controller
Other
departments
Total
HBP
60
60
120
No HBP
90
190
280
Total
150
250
400

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Page 60 of 107
66. In a recent survey, investigators found that the prevalence of
Disease A was higher than that of Disease B. The incidence
and seasonal variation of both diseases is similar.
Explanations consistent with this observation include:
A. Patients recover more quickly from Disease A than
from Disease B
B. Patients recover more quickly from Disease B than
from Disease A
C. Patients die quickly from disease A but not from
Disease B
D. Patients die quickly from disease B but not from
Disease A
E. More than one possibility

67. Which element is a car exhaust pollutant?
A. Methane
B. Acetic acid
C. Mercury
D. Nitrous oxides
E. Infra-red radiations

68. The level of water pollution by organic wastes can be assessed
by the determination of...
A. Physical characteristics.
B. PH level & chemical reaction.
C. Coliform count.
D. Total suspended solids.
E. Color and smell.

69. All of the following major pollutants are associated with lung
cancer EXCEPT:
A. Ionizing radiations.
B. Passive smoking.
C. Polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons.
D. Ozone.
E. Arsenic.

70. In general, health risks resulting from bad burying of garbage
in landfills include all the following, EXCEPT:
A. Bad smells.
B. The production of methane gas which can cause
explosions.
C. Rats and insects which may carry infections to
humans.
D. Contaminated rain water may leak into the ground
and contaminate the sources of drinking
E. Leakage may result in heavy metals entering the
food chain.

71. A slender 50-year-old with fair skin is being seen for a routine
Pap smear. She is postmenopausal and in good health with, no
known medical problems. She leads a sedentary life mostly
indoors. Which of the following preventive measures is most
appropriate for her?
A. Electrocardiogram
B. Aspirin therapy
C. Estrogen replacement therapy
D. Skin protection from UV light
E. Mammography

72. Which of the following is a leading preventable cause of death
for a healthy child aged 5
A. Lead toxicity
B. Motor vehicle accident
C. Tuberculosis
D. Leukemia
E. Drowning

Q73-75:
A case-control study was performed to determine the association
between cigarette smoking and acute myocardial infarction (MI).
Two hundred cases were patients with MI admitted to a single
hospital, and 200 controls were patients hospitalized at the same
hospital without a diagnosis of MI. Trained interviewers asked all
subjects about their prior smoking history. The total number of
smokers was 240, of whom 150 were cases.

73. What is an appropriate measure of association in this type of
study?
A. Relative risk
B. Incidence rate
C. Odds-ratio
D. Attributable rate
E. Risk ratio

74. What is the value of that measure?
A. 0.3
B. 0.6
C. 1
D. 2.1
E. 3.7

Smoking Case Control Total
Yes 150 90 240
No 50 110 160
Total 200 200 400

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75. The best indicator of adequate medical manpower is the...
A. Doctor-population ratio.
B. Population registered per health center.
C. Doctor-nurse ratio.
D. Population-hospital bed ratio.
E. Hospital bed occupancy rate.

76. Diseases that may affect the fetus include all EXCEPT:
A. Toxoplasmosis
B. Rubella
C. Tuberculosis
D. Cytomegalovirus infection
E. HIV

77. Which strategy is most cost-beneficial in improving public
health in developing nations?
A. Safe water supply
B. Oral rehydration solutions
C. Hospitals in all communities with at least 10,000
population
D. One doctor for 500 population
E. Control of industrial pollution

78. The vector of Leishmaniasis is...
A. Culex fatigans.
B. Anopheles mosquito.
C. Phlebotomus sand-fly.
D. Aedes Egypti.
E. Culex mosquito

79. The process of day-to-day follow-up activities to ensure that
health programs are proceeding as planned is:
A. Evaluation.
B. Surveillance.
C. Monitoring.
D. Implementation.
E. Prioritization.

80. Which value represents the strongest significant relative risk?,
A. 1.3 (0.8-2.1)
B. 0.5 (0.4-0.6)
C. (1.2-3.6)
D. (1.2-3.6)
E. (0.7-4.5)

81. Which statement regarding acute flaccid paralysis (AFP) is
NOT correct?
A. Countries which do not report AFP may not have a
good surveillance system for polio.
B. The approximate AFP incidence rate is known for
any given population.
C. The reporting of AFP is not mandatory.
D. The most significant differential diagnosis for AFP
from a public health point of view is polio.
E. AFP cases are most often cases of Guillain-Barre
syndrome.

82. Electromagnetic fields generated by high-voltage electric
power lines have been incriminated in causing...
A. Lymphoma.
B. Breast cancers.
C. Diarrhea.
D. Emphysema.
E. Childhood leukemia.

83. Knowing that the sample mean is 23, the standard deviation is
0.5 and the sample size is 100. The 95% confidence interval
of the mean would approximately be:
A. [21-25]
B. [22-24]
C. [21-24]
D. [22.5-23.5]
E. [22.95-23.05]

84. Which of these changes will reduce the width of a confidence
interval?
A. The desired level of confidence decreases.
B. The subject-to-subject variance in response values
increases.
C. The sample size increases.
D. The precision of the estimate decreases.
E. The distance between the sample mean and the
population mean increases.

85. Which of these food items includes a maximum content of
vitamin D?
A. Butter
B. Whole milk
C. Egg yolk
D. Nuts
E. Carrots

86. The two most important values usually necessary as a
description of the distribution of a quantitative variable are
the...
A. Mean and standard deviation
B. Median and variance
C. Mean and range
D. Variance and standard deviation
E. Sample size and standard deviation

87. Which of the following statements is true regarding dengue
fever?
A. The infectious agent involved in dengue fever is a
parasite similar to Plasmodium species.
B. Fatalities are common with this disease even in the
absence of dengue hemorrhagic fever.
C. The mode of transmission is by the bite of infected
sand flies.
D. Prevention depends on the use of vaccine and post-
exposure immune globulin.
E. Onset is sudden and violent.

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88. Routine antenatal care for normal pregnant women should
include all the following tests EXCEPT:
A. Weight measures
B. Blood pressure
C. Hemoglobin test
D. Urine examination
E. Electronic fetal monitoring

89. A randomized clinical trial was designed to compare two
different treatment approaches for epileptic attacks. The
purpose of randomization in this study was to...
A. Obtain treatment groups of similar size
B. Select a representative sample of patients for study
C. Increase patient compliance with treatment
D. Decrease the likelihood that observed differences in
clinical outcome are due to chance
E. Obtain two groups with comparable baseline values

Q90-91.
Dr.Baha observed a rapid recovery in one of his Hepatitis C
patients who sat in a hospital solarium daily. A review of the
literature revealed no reported effects of the sun on the
convalescence of hepatitis patients, so Dr Baha published a
summary of this patients unusual recovery.

90. Which of the following study designs has Dr.Baha used?
A. Case report
B. Case-control
C. Environmental cohort
D. Clinical trial
E. Cross-sectional report

91. Dr Baha enlists the support of several gastroenterologists and
designs a study whereby Hepatitis C patients, upon hospital
admission are alternately assigned to receive either 2 hours of
sun exposure daily or no sun exposure. Which of the
following study designs has Dr Baha used?
A. Case report
B. Case-control
C. Environmental cohort
D. Clinical trial
E. Cross-sectional report

92. When debating whether providing or withholding medical
treatment is ethical, the LEAST important consideration
should be...
A. The indications for medical intervention,
B. Expected quality of life after the treatment,
C. Patient's preferences.
D. Physician ’s preferences,
E. Economic factors

93. Which of the following statements concerning iron
requirements is correct?
A. Requirements do not change after menopause.
B. They are the same in men and women.
C. They increase during pregnancy.
D. Requirements can be satisfied by drinking cow’s
milk.
E. Iron supplementation is contra-indicated in the first
trimester of a pregnancy

94. No difference in 5-year survival is observed in a clinical trial,
despite the fact that the new treatment is very promising.
Failure to detect a benefit for the new treatment if it exists is
best described as the...
A. Observer bias
B. Placebos effect
C. Type I error
D. Type II error
E. Survivor bias

95. The extent to which a specific heath care service, procedure or
program produces beneficial results without consideration of
cost is defined as
A. Efficacy
B. Productivity
C. Effect modification.
D. Efficiency
E. Cost-benefit ratio

96. Following the diagnosis of meningococcal meningitis in a
primary school child, what is the most appropriate measure
for the control of the disease among contacts?
A. Chemoprophylaxis
B. Patient isolation
C. Mass vaccination
D. Close surveillance of contacts
E. CSF examination of all contacts

97. A screening test for chronic illnesses is indicated to...
A. Improve the disease prognosis.
B. Contribute to the diagnosis.
C. Decrease the latency period.
D. Detect rare conditions not usually revealed in
clinical settings.
E. Detect a disease that can rapidly becomes
symptomatic.

98. A man of 70 had been treated for some years for malignant
hypertension, which had caused congestive heart failure. Two
weeks ago, he developed an acute appendicitis which was
successfully operated, but the heart condition deteriorated
after the operation, and he died. What is the direct cause of
death that you would enter in the death certificate?
A. Congestive heart failure
B. Ageing
C. Acute appendicitis
D. Reanimation accident
E. Malignant hypertension

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99. Of the following factors, which is the most important in
determining the success of a smoking cessation program?
A. The desire of the patient to quit smoking
B. An effective pharmacologic agent
C. The inclusion of a behavior modification component
to the program
D. Physician’s advice to quit smoking
E. Repeated office visits

100. Which of the following entities is not routinely screened in
donated blood?
A. Hepatitis B virus
B. Herpes simplex virus
C. Syphilis
D. Hepatitis C virus
E. HIV

101. A person working in hot environment and taking a lot of
water but no salt will develop a condition known as heat...
A. Stroke.
B. Syncope.
C. Cramps.
D. Exhaustion.
E. Hyperpyrexia.

102. In postnatal care...
A. One medical examination is enough.
B. The first dose of HBV vaccine is given immediately
at birth.
C. It is advisable to continue health supervision until
the uterus returns to the pelvis.
D. Exercise is contraindicated.
E. Home visits by the health worker are advisable for
all mothers.

103. Which one of the following problems is a documented hazard
related to the use of oral contraceptives?
A. Breast cancer
B. Cervical cancer
C. Osteoporosis
D. Thromboembolism
E. Brain tumor

104. The prevalence ratio of diabetes type I to type II is estimated
worldwide at...
A. 1:1
B. 1:4
C. 1:9
D. 4:1
E. 9:1

105. The denominator of the maternal mortality ratio is
A. The population.
B. 1000 live births.
C. 1000 total births.
D. Total number of pregnant women.
E. Total number of marriages.

106. Which diet is most likely to achieve a steady blood glucose
level in diabetic patients?
A. High-sugar foods like candy and soft drinks.
B. No fluids with meals.
C. Small frequent meals containing complex
carbohydrates and proteins.
D. Meals high in proteins but low in carbohydrates.
E. Replacement of sugars by sweeteners.

107. Which food item is naturally cholesterol-free?
A. Liver
B. Cheddar cheese
C. Shrimp
D. Tehineh (sesame butter)
E. Chicken

108. What is the most common form of anemia in children?
A. Sickle cell anemia
B. Thalassemia
C. Iron deficiency
D. Congenital spherocytosis
E. Folate deficiency

109. Which of the following clinical situations is considered as an
absolute indication for caesarean section?
A. Mild degree of pelvic contractions
B. Diabetes.
C. Pre-eclampsia
D. Abnormal fetal presentation
E. Fetal distress in the first stage of labor

110. Which of the following variables is NOT a risk factor of low
birthweight (LBW)?
A. Smoking during pregnancy
B. Hypertension since early pregnancy
C. Poor calcium intake
D. No antenatal care visits
E. Low socio-economic status

111. Which agent causes a neurotoxic food poisoning?
A. Salmonella typhi murium
B. Salmonella enteritides
C. Clostridium botulinum
D. Staphylococcus aureus
E. Vibrio cholera

112. Intervention strategies of community-oriented primary health
care (PHC) should target in priority individuals ...
A. Already registered with the PHC center.
B. Requesting assistance for an acute care problem.
C. From well-defined risk groups in the catchment
area.
D. Who volunteer to participate in preventive sessions.
E. Who had never visited the PHC center before.

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113. Which variable is NOT associated with a higher risk of
developing cataracts?
A. Congenital rubella
B. Low birth weight
C. Steroid use
D. Ageing
E. Smoking

114. Which statement regarding iodine is NOT correct?
A. Deficiency develops in areas far from the coast.
B. It is extremely toxic at high doses.
C. Adequate intake of iodine is essential because it is a
component of several enzymes involved in
intermediary metabolism.
D. Chronic deficiency leads to endemic goiter.
E. Iodine supplements are recommended for persons
exposed to radioactive fallout.

115. Which statement regarding Helicobacter pylori is correct?
A. The acute infection is self-limited and will resolve
without antibiotics.
B. The organism can be detected in human feces and in
saliva.
C. The infection is not associated with social
determinants.
D. Patients infected with H. pylori will develop gastric
cancer.
E. The incidence of H. pylori is almost the same
worldwide.

116. Regarding blindness, which of the following is an element of
tertiary prevention?
A. Vitamin A supplementation
B. Medical care
C. Identification and management of cataracts
D. Training the blind person for alternative and
economically gainful employment
E. Screening for intra-orbital pressure

117. Which one of the following is an active strategy for injury
prevention?
A. Vehicle anti-lock brakes
B. Carpeting in elderly homes
C. Home hot water thermostat set at 50°C
D. Seat belts
E. Air bags

Q118-119

118. A 62 year-old man is rushed to the emergency department
during an episode of chest pain. The initial evaluation form
describes the pain as "angina grade 4: severe". This
characterization is:
A. Ordinal
B. Nominal
C. Parametric
D. Quantitative
E. Dichotomous

119. The reports to the evaluating physician that his pain is an 8 on
a scale of (no pain) to 10 (worst pain). After the
administration of sublingual nitroglycerin and high flow
oxygen, the patient reports, with obvious relief, that the pain
is now a 4 on the same scale. The scale used is:
A. Ordinal
B. Nominal
C. Ratio
D. Quantitative
E. Dichotomous

120. The most significant indoor air pollutant from a Public Health
point of view is...
A. Radon.
B. Tobacco smoke.
C. Carbon monoxide.
D. Dust.
E. Pets fur (ربو)

************************
GOOD LUCK

ARAB BOARD FOR COMMUNITY MEDICINE
Dr.AbdulQawi Almohamadi Page 65 of 107
Long Questions 2017
QUESTION 1: Option: A
Cases of schistosomiasis have been reported among workers from a neighboring country, working in an agricultural project following the
construction of a new dam. Your country is currently free of schistosomiasis. The health authorities need to establish the appropriate plan to
prevent schistosomiasis from establishing an endemic focus in the country.
1 What are the preliminary measures to be taken?
2 What are the information items you need to develop a preventive plan?
3 Which indicators should be included in the plan?
Option B:
WHO has declared that poliomyelitis is near eradication as cases of wild virus transmission are now reported only in Afghanistan and Pakistan.
1. Should you stop polio vaccination in your country? Justify your response
2. Are there modifications that may have to be considered in your national strategy as elimination becomes more successful?
3. A sudden cluster of polio cases has occurred in a neighboring country undergoing a period of violence and civil war. What are the measures
that need to be taken in response to the poetical for disease importation?
QUESTION 2: Option A:
You are assigned as a consultant in your country to assess the situation and to reduce the incidence of perinatal and maternal mortality. There are
currently no surveillance data for these types of mortality in the country.
1 Define perinatal mortality. How would you assess it in a valid way?
2 What are avoidable factors for perinatal mortality for which an intervention strategy can be proposed?
3 Define the maternal mortality rate. How does it differ from a maternal mortality ratio? How would you assess the magnitude of maternal
mortality in your country?
4 What are avoidable factors for maternal mortality for which an intervention strategy can be proposed?
Option B:
Adolescent health is an area often neglected by many authorities despite its important
1 What are the most important health education message for adolescents (13-18 years!?
2 What are the behavioral interventions and special health care services which should be developed to address the health needs of this age
group?
3 Is there a need to establish particular health care clinics for adolescents and why? What are challenges in this approach?
QUESTION 3: Option: A
Pesticides have been widely used to control biological entities harmful to agricultural crops, and to control known vectors of diseases in humans
and animals. In recent years however, negative effects of pesticides have become a public health concern.
1. Mention some adverse effects on health?
2. Discuss the loss of efficiency in controlling vectors using chemical principle?
3. What are innovative ways to replace chemical potentially harmful pesticides. Provide
Option B:
You are assigned as a medical doctor to accompany the pilgrims from your country going to Haji
1. What are health measures their principle should considered before leaving to Hajj?
2. What are health problems which you may encounter during the Hajj and how can you be prepared for those?
3. What are health problems which you may expect upon returning from Hajj? Are there serious recent health issues to be considered for
special attention?

ARAB BOARD FOR COMMUNITY MEDICINE EXAM 2018

Page 66 of 107
MCQS 2018
1. A cohort study of males aged 50 and older revealed that
the cumulative incidence rate of myocardial infarction
(MI) during the follow-up period was 7 per 1000 for
long-term coffee drinkers and 3 per 1000 for those who
never or rarely drank coffee. Despite these findings, the
investigators hesitated to consider that coffee drinking
causes MI because...
A. They failed to adjust for age differences
between coffee users and non-users.
B. The study design did not allow for the
establishment of a temporal sequence between
potential cause and effect.
C. The proportion is used when a rate is required
to support the evidence.
D. Animal experimentations clearly demonstrated
that coffee cannot cause MI.
E. The investigators did not consider smoking as
a potential confounding variable in the
association.

2. Which study design would you prefer to provide the
strongest evidence for a causal association?
A. Review of cases
B. Case-control
C. Cross-sectional
D. Ecological
E. Descriptive

3. Which random sampling method should be used in order
to allow for the representation of all age-sex subgroups
in a survey?
A. Simple
B. Cluster
C. Stratified
D. Systematic
E. Multi-stage

4. The diagnosis of a lung cancer case during routine chest
X-rays does not delay the eventual time of death. The
longer apparent duration of disease in that case is known
as the
A. Low sensitivity of chest X-rays
B. High correlation bias
C. Lead-time bias
D. Length bias
E. Natural history of lung cancer

5. In a suspected case of polio, which specimen should be
taken for the identification of the virus?
A. Feces
B. Throat swab
C. Blood
D. Cerebrospinal fluid
E. Urine

Q6-8:
During an 8-hour shift in a building, 30 employees (20
females and 10 males) visited the company physician with
complaints of nausea, vomiting, headache and dizziness. All
affected individuals responded to supportive treatment and
were sent home.

6. If 600 persons worked in the building, then the attack
rate was...
A. 3%
B. 5%
C. 10%
D. 20%
E. 30%

7. If 400 females and 200 males worked in the building, the
male to female risk ratio was...
A. 0.3
B. 0.5
C. 1
D. 2
E. 3

8. Which statement corresponds to the final purpose of
tertiary prevention?
A. To prevent the occurrence of disability
B. To improve the quality of healthy living
C. To change the course of disease
D. To change the health behavior of the patient
E. To start treatment as early as possible

9. Which gas induces lethal respiratory distress when used
as weapon of mass destruction?
A. Methane
B. Chlorine gas
C. Sarin
D. Nitrogen oxide
E. Phosphorus

10. In an epidemic, in which situation can a normal
distribution of cases be found on the epidemic curve?
A. Repeated exposures
B. Pandemic
C. Person-to-person transmission
D. Common source
E. Endemic

ARAB BOARD FOR COMMUNITY MEDICINE EXAM 2018

Page 67 of 107
Qll-12:
The following readings are the fasting blood glucose levels (in
g/dl) of a sample of (11) children: 56, 62, 63, 65, 65, 65, 65, 68,
70, 72, 73.

11. The median value is...
A. 59.1
B. 65
C. 60
D. 72
E. 80.2

12. The mean value is...
A. 59.1
B. 65.8
C. 60
D. 72.2
E. 80

13. Several studies have found that approximately 85% of
cases of lung cancer are due to smoking. This measure is
an example of...
A. An incidence rate
B. An attributable risk
C. A relative risk
D. A prevalence
E. A proportionate morbidity rate

14. In amoebic dysentery:
A. Travelers should start chemoprophylaxis three
days before arriving in a highly endemic area.
B. The diagnosis is based on the presence of cysts
of Entamoeba histolytica in the feces.
C. Humans are the usual reservoir.
D. Epidemics are rather common.
E. The majority of cases are asymptomatic

15. Which of the following statements concerning iron
requirements is correct?
A. Not affected by menopause
B. Same in men and women
C. Increase during pregnancy
D. Satisfied by adequate intake of cow’s milk
E. More important in rural populations

16. Two cases of meningococcal meningitis were detected in
a primary school. The most appropriate measure for the
control of the disease among contacts is...
A. Closing the school.
B. Chemoprophylaxis by rifampicin.
C. Vaccination.
D. Close surveillance of contacts.
E. CSF examination of all contacts.

17. Which of the following measures of blood pressure is
most closely related to disease outcomes such a coronary
heart disease and stroke?
A. Diastolic pressure.
B. Mean blood pressure.
C. Systolic blood pressure.
D. Postural hypotension.
E. Differences between systolic and diastolic
pressure

18. Which of the following features should be considered
when recommending screening for a given disease?
A. Natural history that can be altered by medical
intervention.
B. No efficacious treatment available.
C. Short incubation period.
D. Low prevalence in identifiable subgroups of
the population.
E. High case-fatality.

19. Which factor is NOT included in psychosocial models
which predict health behavior?
A. Belief that the person is actually vulnerable
(susceptible to become sick) if the behavior is
not adopted.
B. Cost of preventive actions
C. Belief that the illness can be avoided with the
recommended behavior.
D. Perceived social approval of the recommended
behavior.
E. Belief that the targeted disease is severe.

Q 20-24:
Match one letter for every question:

a. Alpha or type I error
b. Beta or type II error
c. Power
d. P-value
e. Confidence interval

20. Rejecting a hypothetical association when it should
actually be accepted.
21. The probability of making an error when accepting a
hypothesis.
22. Accepting a hypothetical association when it should
actually be rejected.
23. The probability of detecting a weak association.
24. The higher and lower values of an estimate given
potential random errors.

ARAB BOARD FOR COMMUNITY MEDICINE EXAM 2018

Page 68 of 107
25. What is the most appropriate parameter for examining
historical trends in death rates in a population?
A. Crude death rates
B. Infant mortality rates
C. Incidence
D. Age-adjusted rates
E. Life expectancy

26. The incidence rate of a disease is five times greater in
women than in men, but the prevalence rate shows no
sex difference. The best explanation is that...
A. The crude mortality rate is greater in women.
B. The case-fatality rate for this disease is greater
for women.
C. Treatments exist only for men.
D. The duration of this disease is shorter in men.
E. Risk factors for developing the disease are
more common in women.

Q 27-30:
A screening test is applied to 600 asymptomatic persons. The test
results are positive in 200 cases. Of these, 100 persons are
discovered on clinical examination to have the disease, but 50
individuals who have negative test results are also proved to have
the disease on clinical grounds. –

27. The sensitivity of the test is
A. 25%
B. 33%
C. 50%
D. 67%
E. 78%

28. The specificity of the test is
A. 25%
B. 33%
C. 50%
D. 67%
E. 78%

29. The positive predictive value is
A. 25%
B. 33%
C. 50%
D. 67%
E. 78%

30. The clinical prevalence of the disease is
A. 25%
B. 33%
C. 50%
D. 67%
E. 78%

31. Which of the following prenatal tests should be repeated
for all pregnant women at various points during
pregnancy?
A. Fetal ultrasounds
B. Hb level
C. Hb electrophoresis
D. HIV serological test
E. Rubella serological test

Q32-36:
Match one letter for every question

a. Hepatic angiosarcoma
b. Mesothelioma
c. Neurotoxicity
d. Leukemia
e. Skin cancer

32. Asbestos
33. Mercury
34. Polyvinylchloride (PVC)
35. Arsenic
36. Benzene

Results
Positive
Negative
Total
Disease
100
50
150
Healthy
100
350
450
Total
200
400
600

ARAB BOARD FOR COMMUNITY MEDICINE EXAM 2018

Page 69 of 107
Q37-40:
To test a new influenza vaccine, parents of all children aged 6
months to 3 years living in a village were contacted to obtain
informed consent. The children whose parents agreed to participate
were randomly allocated in a double-blind fashion to an
experimental (n= 200) or a placebo (n= 200) group. In the
following winter, a flu epidemic was signaled in the area. All the
children who had participated in the trial were visited at the end of
the epidemic to obtain information on their health status. It
appeared that 20 children in vaccine group had developed a flu
versus 60 in the placebo group

37. Based on the results, it appears that the risk for influenza
in the placebo group compared to the experimental
group is...
A. Actually lower
B. Equal
C. Twice higher
D. Three times higher
E. Cannot be calculated with the available data

38. Relying on double-blinding in this trial means that:
A. The parents and the doctor receive information
from a third person
B. The reliability of the study is increased
C. The control group must receive a placebo
D. Every child is given a specific code
E. Children are excluded from the trial if they
have already had influenza

39. Which statement regarding the placebo is correct?
A. The placebo should include only substances
with potentially positive effects on users.
B. Ethically speaking, those receiving a placebo
should be informed of their status.
C. Participants should be given the freedom to
select the group in which to be included.
D. The placebo equalizes the confounding effect
of psychological expectations among
participants.
E. The placebo group is considered as the
unexposed group in a vaccination trial.

40. Under the null hypothesis (if the new vaccine is not
effectives), the expected number of flu cases among
children who received the experimental injection should
have been:
A. Zero
B. Lower than the number observed
C. 80
D. 40
E. Impossible to calculate with the available data

Q41-45: Match one letter for every question

a. Malaria
b. Dengue fever
c. Syphilis
d. Plague
e. MERS

41. Coronavirus
42. Treponema pallidum
43. Yersinia pestis
44. Ictero-hemorrhagic virus
45. Plasmodium falciparum

46. Which statement regarding polio is correct?
A. One of the conditions for a country to be
certified as polio-free is to display a valid
surveillance system for acute flaccid paralysis
(AFP)
B. Vaccine-Associated Polio (VAP) cases cannot
be prevented as long as the disease is not
officially eradicated
C. Transmission of the wild poliovirus still occurs
in Asia, Africa and the Caribbean islands
D. Arab countries currently reporting wild polio
cases are Sudan and Yemen
E. Once a country is certified as polio-free, it can
cancel its polio vaccination program and re-
allocate the money to other public health
issues.

47. Which statistical test should be used to measure whether
the difference in means of blood pressure among
students before and after football training is significant?
A. Paired t-test.
B. Correlation coefficient.
C. Chi-squared test.
D. AVOVA test.
E. Independent t-test.

Results
Vaccinated

Placebo
Total
Disease
20
60
80
Healthy
180
140
320
Total
200
200
400

ARAB BOARD FOR COMMUNITY MEDICINE EXAM 2018

Page 70 of 107
48. Which of the following vitamins does not accumulate in
the adipose tissue?
A. A (retinol)
B. B1(thiamine).
C. K
D. E
E. D (cholecalciferol).

49. Which of the following is NOT associated with breast-
feeding?
A. Post-partum involution of uterus.
B. Lower risk of breast cancer.
C. Increased risk of postpartum depression.
D. Fertility regulation associated with lactation
amenorrhea.
E. Decreased maternal weight after delivery.

50. Mammography screening is an example of...
A. A strategy to prevent occurrence of disease
B. Secondary prevention to identify the disease
before it becomes symptomatic
C. A tool to support the treatment plan
D. Detection of benign diseases which may lead
to cancer
E. An application where double-blinding is
necessary

51. Residents of three villages with different water supply
systems were asked to participate in a study to identify
cholera carriers. The carriage rate of Vibrio cholera in
each village was computed and compared. What is the
design of this study?
A. Cross-Sectional Study
B. Case-Control Study
C. Prospective Cohort
D. Experimental Study
E. Retrospective Cohort

52. The most serious threat to the precision of estimates
derived from mass screenings for hypertension may
originate from
A. Selection bias
B. Random errors
C. Social bias
D. Confounding factors
E. Double-blind techniques

53. Which of the following statements is true about
conjugated vaccines?
A. More than one antigen is provided in one
vaccine
B. They tend to induce a poorer response than
polysaccharide vaccines
C. Meningitis vaccine is not available in a
conjugated form
D. Hib vaccine is an example of a conjugated
vaccine
E. Conjugation involves attaching a
polysaccharide antigen to a carbohydrate
carrier

54. By 24 months of age, all children should have received
at least...
A. Three doses of polio and one of measles
B. Dtap/IPV/Hib
C. Three doses of OPV
D. Two doses of measles and one of Hib
E. One dose of polio

55. A Preventive Medicine doctor investigates a cluster of
cases of learning disabilities, hearing impairment, and
developmental delays in school age children who live in
an apartment complex that was built in 1971. The doctor
suspects exposure to:
A. Carbon monoxide
B. Lead
C. Nitrogen dioxide,
D. Radon
E. Asbestos

56. The Ministry of Health has estimated the annual cost of
starting a massive vaccination campaign against HPV
for all girls aged 11-13 years. The cost is compared to
the expected expenditures on incident cases of cervical
cancer diagnosed in the same year. This type of analysis
A. Cost-Benefit Analysis.
B. Operational Evaluation
C. Cost-Effectiveness Analysis
D. Cost Documentation
E. Productivity Analysis

57. Which health problems can be prevented by prescribing
folic acid to women before conception?
A. Scurvy
B. Congenital heart defects
C. High blood pressure
D. Dementia
E. Neural tube defects

ARAB BOARD FOR COMMUNITY MEDICINE EXAM 2018

Page 71 of 107
58. Which statement regarding “essential nutrients” is
correct?
A. Deficiency in those nutrients may lead to a
major loss of function or structure.
B. Nutrients which are not usually found in the
basic diet.
C. Essential components for the maintenance of
the Basal Metabolic Rate of the body.
D. Insufficiently synthesized or not synthesized at
all in the body.
E. Short term deficiency may cause irreversible
damage in specific target organs.

59. The reliability of a screening test refers to...
A. The ability of the test to distinguish people
who are truly diseased and people who are not
truly diseased
B. The degree to which the test on the same
person will give the same result when the test
is repeated.
C. The positive predictive value of the test.
D. The capacity of the test to really measure what
it targets to measure a test without bias

60. Which of the following items is considered as primary
prevention?
A. Measles vaccination
B. Corrective skin surgery for lepromatous
patient
C. Chemotherapy for tuberculosis
D. INH in a child breastfeed by a tuberculous
mother
E. Neonatal screening for inborn errors of
metabolism

61. A new drug proves to be highly effective against
leukemia. Which indicator is LEAST likely to be
affected by widespread use of this drug?
A. Five-year survival rate
B. Expected utility
C. Prevalence
D. Incidence
E. Mortality rate

Q62-65:
A case-control study was performed to determine the association
between water pipe (“shishah” or “narghileh”) and acute
myocardial infarction (MI). Cases were patients with MI admitted
to a single hospital, and controls were patients hospitalized at the
same hospital without a diagnosis of MI. Trained interviewers then
asked all subjects about their prior smoking history.
62. Which characteristic should NOT be required in the
“control” group?
A. Controls should be disease-free.
B. Controls should come from the same
population from which cases were selected.
C. Controls should have the same exposure as
cases.
D. Restrictions applied to cases should also apply
to controls
E. Controls should receive full information about
the aims of the study

63. The most specific type of bias potentially found in case-
control studies is the...
A. Measurement bias
B. Random bias
C. Study cost
D. Recall bias
E. Loss to follow-up

64. The measure of association in this study design...
A. Requires obtaining also the prevalence rates of
smoking in the general population.
B. Can be measured even if one does not know
how large is the population from which
participating individuals were selected.
C. Relies on the estimation of MI incidence rates
in the two comparison groups.
D. Is the relative risk.
E. Is not valid.

65. Both cases and controls groups include 500 patients
each. A history of regular water-pipe use was found in
300 cases and 100 controls. Calculate the association
between the potential exposure and MI.

A. 0.1
B. 0.5
C. 1
D. 2
E. 6
Exposure Cases Control
Yes 300 100
No 200 400

500 500

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66. Under which circumstances should the public health
authorities declare an epidemic situation?
A. Cholera cases have been reported this summer
as they have been during that season for the
past ten years
B. A cluster of eight mysterious deaths in a
provincial hospital have been attributed to
pulmonary plague
C. All three members of a family returning from
vacations in Thailand came down with malaria
D. Isolated cases of meningitis may occur in
schools in various areas of Lebanon
E. An increase in reported cases of measles
among schoolchildren is expected during the
first two months of the school year.

Q67-71:
Match each letter with one of the following questions

a. Passive surveillance
b. Active surveillance
c. Sentinels
d. Outbreak
e. Emergency

67. Outbreak spreading across international boundaries
68. A serological survey is conducted in a sample of the
population to assess herd immunity
69. A list of reportable diseases is established in every
country
70. Hospital laboratories perform random testing among
asymptomatic clients
71. There were no polio cases reported outside a tribe of
nomads

72. In a study of causes of lung cancer, patients who had the
disease were matched with cancer free controls by age,
sex, and place of residence. The frequency of cigarette
smoking was then compared in the two groups. The aim
of matching in this study is...
A. Increasing the precision of the study
B. Restricting the participants to the same sex and
age-group
C. Controlling errors
D. Equalizing a potential confounder in the two
comparison groups
E. Avoiding the inclusion of too many men and
not enough women
73. A cohort study of smoking and repeated spontaneous
abortions in young women was conducted. It found an
association with a RR= 4.1; 95% confidence interval
[3.8-4.4]. The p-value for this association is...
A. < 0.03
B. < 0.05
C. > 0.06
D. > 0.10
E. Impossible to determine in this way

74. Which principle represents the most serious ethical
consideration in clinical randomized
A. Justice and equity
B. Being careful
C. Always doing good
D. Building trust in the doctor-patient relationship
E. First doing no harm

75. Which result CANNOT be obtained while conducting a
survey on eye problems?
A. The prevalence of corrected eye problems
B. The age-distribution of eye problems
C. The sex ratio for corrected eye problems
D. The speed with which eye problems are
corrected
E. Differences in corrected eye problems between
urban and rural areas

76. The burden of disease in a country is best measured by...
A. Lost life expectancy
B. Years of productive life lost (YPLL)
C. Years lived with lower quality because of
disability or handicap
D. Years lived after retiring for health reasons
E. Potential years of productive life lost plus
portions of years lost to poor quality of life

77. Which mental illness is most likely to occur in young
adults (15-24)?
A. Autism
B. Schizophrenia
C. Affective disorders
D. Involution melancholia
E. Agitated depression

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78. Which criteria is Not part of the metabolic syndrome
diagnosis?
A. Abdominal obesity
B. Dyslipidemia
C. High blood pressure
D. High fasting glucose
E. Microalbuminuria

79. Which statement concerning oral rehydration solution
(ORS) is correct?
A. Mothers should not stop breast-feeding when
giving ORS to their infants.
B. ORS contains salt, sugar and traces of vitamins
and minerals.
C. Salt is included to improve the function of the
small intestine mucosa and increase water and
sodium absorption.
D. ORS acts by preventing vomiting.
E. Mothers should not give ORS to their children
in case of cholera

80. A man of 63 had been treated for some years for
malignant hypertension. While seriously ill with
congestive heart failure, he developed acute appendicitis.
Appendectomy was carried out successfully, but the
heart condition deteriorated further and he died 2 weeks
later. The underlying cause of death was:
A. Malignant hypertension
B. Congestive heart failure
C. Cardiac hypertrophy
D. Acute appendicitis
E. Appendectomy

81. The crude birth rate refers to...
A. The lifetime average number of live births
expected per woman.
B. Number of live births per 1000 population per
year.
C. The probability of conceiving in the
reproductive age-years.
D. The probability of conceiving in a given year
per 1,000 women.
E. The ratio of live births to total pregnancies.

82. If the outputs of a program meet the expected outcomes,
this program is described as...
A. Adequate
B. Productive
C. Efficient
D. Effective
E. Relevant

83. How much exercise is recommended for the average
adult to prevent cardiovascular diseases?
A. Fifteen minutes of vigorous activity at least
three times a week.
B. One hour of moderate intensity per day.
C. Thirty minutes of moderate intensity at least 5
days a week.
D. One very long exercise session at least once a
week.
E. No exercise is necessary unless one is
overweight.

84. How do you classify a man whose height is 180 cm and
weight 93 kg?
A. Normal weight
B. Overweight
C. Obese
D. Morbidly obese
E. Cannot be calculated just with height and
weight

85. Specialty mal-distribution” is characterized by
physicians tendency to
A. Be located mostly in urban areas
B. Avoid primary health care
C. Practice be salaried
D. Prefer surgical specialties
E. Ignore issues of disease prevention

86. Which term most appropriately describes the mortality
rate that includes stillbirths and live born infants who die
within the first 7 days of life?
A. Post-neonatal mortality rate
B. Maternal mortality rate
C. Neonatal mortality rate
D. Infant mortality rate
E. Perinatal mortality rate

87. Demand for health care
A. Is the professional assessment of the
population's health needs.
B. Can be assessed through general surveys.
C. Is always met by the national health services of
the country.
D. Does not vary between social classes.
E. Is the objective indicator to be used in health
planning.

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88. Which statement is a characteristic of asthma?
A. Age of onset before 40 in about 95 percent of
cases
B. Persistently abnormal forced expiratory
volume (FEV1)
C. Greater frequency in girls than boys
D. Frequent family history of atopy
E. Preventive treatments are indicated for siblings
of asthmatic children

89. In disasters, the highest priority in triage and care is for
patients with...
A. Hemorrhage from accessible sites
B. Penetrating abdominal wounds
C. Closed fractures of major bones
D. Incomplete amputations
E. Multiple severe injuries

90. The first step in conducting an outbreak investigation is
to...
A. Determine the number of cases
B. Calculate the incubation period
C. Determine the population at risk
D. Collect appropriate samples
E. Verify the diagnosis

Q91-93:
A survey of health status of workers was conducted targeting all
600 employees of the factory. Of those, 400 returned a completed
questionnaire. A total of 80 persons reported symptoms consistent
with a syndrome previously observed among workers in that
factory, but for which they had not sought care.

91. What was the response rate to the questionnaire?
A. 5.0%
B. 7.5%
C. 20.0%
D. 37.5%
E. 67.0%

92. Based on the survey data, the real attack rate was
A. 5.0%
B. 7.5%
C. 20.0%
D. 37.5%
E. 67.0%

93. In this case, the possibility of a secondary attack among
contacts would most likely indicate...
A. A point exposure
B. Vector transmission
C. Sexual transmission
D. Fecal-oral contamination
E. Person-to-person transmission

Q94-98:
Match a letter with each of the following questions

a. Cohort study
b. Descriptive studies
c. Unmatched case-control study
d. Sample survey
e. Cross-sectional study

94. What is the prevalence of myopia among school children
in primary schools in Greater Beirut?
95. How did the incidence of myopia vary over the past 50
years in Lebanon?
96. Is myopia in schoolchildren better controlled when
parents are also myopic?
97. Is cataract more frequent among adults with a history of
myopia in early life?
98. Will myopic children develop glaucoma more frequently
than non-myopic children?

99. The chief source of air pollution in large modern Arab
cities is
A. Decaying solid waste
B. Open fires
C. Domestic heating
D. Industrial activities
E. Vehicle exhaust fumes

100. The process of day-to-day follow-up of activities to
ensure that health programs are proceeding as planned is
known as...
A. Evaluation.
B. Surveillance.
C. Monitoring.
D. Implementation.
E. Prioritization.

101. The best indicator for the assessment of the nutritional
status of under- five children is...
A. Weight for age.
B. Height for age.
C. Weight for height.
D. Head circumference.
E. Skinfold thickness.

ARAB BOARD FOR COMMUNITY MEDICINE EXAM 2018

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102. Which item in our usual diet is the best source of iron?
A. Dates
B. Whole wheat bread
C. Egg yolk
D. Raisins
E. Milk

103. Which condition is NOT a consequence of high parity?
A. Hypertensive disorders of pregnancy
B. Uterine prolapse
C. Breast cancer
D. A high risk of infant mortality
E. Gestational diabetes mellitus

104. Post-partum depression is...
A. More common after the birth of a male child
B. More common with increasing parity
C. Experienced by 50% of all delivering mothers
D. Most commonly diagnosed in the first three
months following Delivery
E. Can be predicted through psychometric tests in
pre-natal care

105. Concerning salmonella food-borne intoxication:
A. Can be caused by S. Typhi and S. Paratyphi
species.
B. Contaminated food of animal origin is the
predominant mode of transmission.
C. The period of infectivity is usually constant.
D. Severity of the intoxication is not related to
host factors.
E. Relapses are common after an initial recovery
phase

106. Which of the following parameters cannot be obtained
from a population pyramid?
A. Level of development of the country.
B. Gender percentage in the total population.
C. Age groups in the population.
D. Geographic distribution of the population.
E. Demographic profile of the population.

107. The cold chain refers to...
A. The logistics composed of the personnel who
organize and manage the distribution of
vaccines in cold areas.
B. The equipment to transport vaccines.
C. The equipment to store vaccines.
D. The logistics composed of personnel,
equipment and procedures
E. The procedures of handling vaccines.

108. Which of the following is NOT a correct statement about
prenatal care?
A. It identifies already existing risks by a detailed
history.
B. It identifies maternal risk situations which may
develop during the course of the pregnancy.
C. It identifies fetal risk situations which may
develop in the course of pregnancy.
D. The time of the perinatal care and the number
of visits are not related to its impact on
lowering prenatal mortality..
E. The last month of pregnancy requires frequent
visits as compared to earlier months.

109. Of the following factors, which one is the most important
in determining the success of a smoking cessation
program?.
A. The desire of the patient to quit smoking
B. An effective pharmacologic agent
C. The inclusion of a behavior modification
component to the program
D. Physician’s advice to quit smoking
E. Repeated office visits

110. Which is the most common site of hospital-acquired
infections?
A. Surgical wound
B. Respiratory tract
C. Skin
D. Urinary tract
E. Gastrointestinal tract

111. Which of the following items is NOT considered as a
possible risk factors of the development of colon cancer?
A. Irritable bowel syndrome
B. Diet rich in animal fat
C. Inflammatory bowel disease
D. Familial polyposis
E. Uretrosigmoidostomy

112. In postnatal care...
A. One medical examination is enough.
B. Breast feeding promotion is crucial.
C. Health supervision is advisable until the uterus
returns to the pelvis.
D. Exercise is contraindicated,
E. Working mothers are encouraged to return to
the office if they had a vaginal delivery
without complications.

ARAB BOARD FOR COMMUNITY MEDICINE EXAM 2018

Page 76 of 107
113. Patients indicate their satisfaction with treatment by
responding to a question with four options (very
satisfied, dissatisfied, satisfied and every satisfied).
Which type of variable is this?
A. Continuous
B. Ordinal
C. Internal
D. Binomial
E. Categorical

114. In the discharge summary, the disease outcome of a
patient is registered as: recovered or not recovered.
Which type of variable is this?
A. Continuous
B. Ordinal
C. Internal
D. Binomial
E. Categorical

115. Which of the variables listed below has the most
considerable impact on physical resistance, the
physiological state and the risk of exposure?
A. Marital status
B. Sex
C. Age
D. Race
E. Socio-economic status

116. The prevalence ratio of type I (insulin- dependent) to
type II (non- insulin dependent) diabetes mellitus is
about...
A. 1.1
B. 1:9
C. 4:1
D. 9:1
E. 117

117. Which description is central in the historical distribution
of a disease?
A. Differences in infant mortality rates between
Europe and Africa
B. Trends in incidence of tuberculosis in North
Africa since the 1990s
C. Social determinants of handicap prevalence
D. Spontaneous abortions in public hospitals
E. The importance of thalassemia in Iraq

118. WHO reported that the Ebola outbreak originally
signaled in Guinea, Liberia and Sierra Leone may be
spreading to the entire African continent. The spread of
Ebola is best described as…
A. Sporadic
B. Dangerous
C. Epidemic
D. Pandemic
E. Zoonotic

119. Which statement adequately describes herd (collective)
immunity?
A. Herd immunity can only be obtained through
massive immunization campaigns
B. It limits naturally the spread of many
infectious diseases
C. It is naturally transmitted from one generation
to the other
D. Herd immunity is always very low in islands
E. It did not exist during the large pandemics of
the Middle Ages in Europe

120. In 2013, IPV has replaced the first dose of OPV in the
Extended Program of Immunization in Lebanon. Why
was this measure taken?
A. Polio has been eradicated in the East
Mediterranean Region.
B. There is still some need to vaccinate against
polio.
C. IPV is less expensive than OPV.
D. OPV is not effective in preventing sporadic
disease.
E. OPV may cause vaccine-associated polio cases
in children not yet fully immunized

************************
GOOD LUCK

ARAB BOARD FOR COMMUNITY MEDICINE EXAM 2018

Page 77 of 107

Long Questions 2018
SECTION 0NE:
Option A:
Many Deadly diseases can now prevented or even eradicated through vaccines
1. List down diseases currently under eradication plan using effective vaccines and briefly state progress to ward reaching that's goals?
2. What is eradication? With example?
3. Type of surveillance?
Option B:
Acute watery diarrhea (AWD) is a threat to public health and an indicator of inequity and lack of social development.
1. What are the usual routes of transmission of AWD in epidemic situations? Provide an example
2. What are the usual routes of transmission of AWD in small outbreaks or sporadic case? Provide an example.
3. Describe the social and economic factors which may delay the prevention and control of
4. Identify strategies to address those factors on short and long-term basis.
SECTION TWO
Option A:
The world has made substantial progress in child survival since 1990. However, children's morbidity and mortality indicators are still alarming.
1. What are the two major age groups of children which bear the greatest burden of morbidity and mortality? What are major risks for
each group?
2. Mention components of an integrated preventive program to address the risks of each one of these two age-groups.
3. Identify stakeholders outside the Ministry of Health concerned with the overall health and well- being of children at the National level,
and briefly describe their roles.
Option B:
Health Information System (HIS) is an integral part of the national health system.
1. How can a valid HIS contribute to the cycle of decision-making process in health?
2. Mention at least 2 different sources for HIS, and detail their characteristics.
3. What requirements do you need to consider to have an effective and efficient HIS in place?
SECTION THREE
Option A:
Promotion of mental health has been recognized as a health priority within the global agenda summarized in the Sustainable Development
Goals.
1. There is rising trend of mental health problems in our region. What are conditions which may be considered as new mental health
challenges in our societies?
2. What are specific risk group for each one of those conditions.
3. Describe changes which may contribute to the emergence of these new challenges?
4. What actions do you suggest to integrate mental health services in primary health care?
Option B
The cement industry poses a challenge in occupational health in some Arab countries.
1. What are main occupational diseases related to this industry?
2. Mention preventive measures of these diseases.
3. What are the obstacles in implementing those preventive measures, and what would you suggest to overcome them?

Arab board for community medicine April 2019
Dr.AbdulQawi Almohamadi
Page 78 of 107
MCQs April 2019

1. Recall bias is most commonly associated with which study
design;
A. Case-control study
B. Cohort study.
C. Randomized controlled trial
D. Cross-sectional study
E. Correlation studies

2. The prevalence of a disease is increased by:
A. In-migration of healthy people.
B. Slow cure of cases
C. Decrease in incidence.
D. High case-fatality rate
E. Out-migration cases.

3. Endemic disease is;
A. Constant presence of a disease within a given
geographic area
B. Occurrence of a disease clearly from time to time
C. The cases occurs irregularly from time to time
D. Diseases which are imported into a country
E. Diseases occurring over a wide geographic area

4. Post exposure immunization is done in;
A. Yellow fever.
B. Viral hepatitis.
C. Rabies
D. Meningitis
E. Measles

5. During a 3-month period, 9 cases of H1N1 are reported and 3
of cases died. Which of the following, calculations would be
33%?"
A. The attack rate
B. The crude death rate
C. The case fatality rate
D. The Standardized mortality rates
E. Proportionate mortality rate

A randomized trial studied 242 HIV-seropositive, 2
nd
trimester
pregnant women to assess the efficacy of zidovudine (AZT) in
preventing perinatal HIV transmission. Results were: Results from
a randomized trial of the efficacy of zidovudine in preventing
perinatal HIV

6. Using the data in the table, estimate the relative risk of HIV
infection for infants whose mothers took zidovudine relative
to infants of mothers whose took placebo.
A. 0.71
B. 3.5
C. 16.5
D. 0.29
E. 1.3

7. Health care providers send reports to the health department
based on known set of rules and regulations. This describes
which type of SURVEILLANCE
A. Passive Surveillance
B. Sentinel surveillance
C. Active surveillance
D. Laboratory - based Surveillance
E. Case finding

8. All the statement are true about standardization EXCEPT:
A. Standardization allows comparison to be made
between two different populations
B. The national population is always taken as the
standard population
C. For direct standardization age specific rates of the
study population are applied to the standard
population
D. For Indirect standardization age specific rates of the
study population are applied to the study
population

9. What is the purpose of randomization in a clinical trial?
A. To equalize the effects of extraneous variables, thus
guarding against bias
B. To allow inferential statistics to be used
C. To guard against placebo effects
D. To guard against clinical problems in the allocation
of patients to experimental and control groups
E. Guard against interviewer bias

10. Maternal Mortality Ratio is:
A. Percentage of deaths during pregnancy, delivery
and within 42 day after delivery from total numbers
of deaths
B. Number of deaths during pregnancy, delivery and
within 12 days after delivery per pregnant women.
C. Number of deaths during pregnancy, delivery and
within 12 days after delivery per Female
population.
D. Number of deaths during pregnancy, delivery and
within 42 days after delivery per 10000 live births

Birth ( no.)
Infection Status of infants
Non- Infected
HIV - Infected
Transmission Rate %
Zidovudine
121
112
9
7.4
Placebo
121
90
31
25.6
Total
242
202
40
16.5

Arab board for community medicine April 2019
Dr.AbdulQawi Almohamadi
Page 79 of 107
Qs 11-13::
A group of intern Doctors were interested to study the magnitude:
of Anemia in pregnant women. They visited the maternity hospital
of a city (where about 97% of the deliveries are taking place). They
were able to obtain the medical records of all the women who gave
birth during 2018. They listed the records numerically after
exclusion of those who gave history of complicated pregnancy or
labor. From 16000 listed records they had randomly selected 1600
records. From which, they collected data on Hb level and other
socio-demographic variables. In the final report they stated
(Anemia is quite common among Pregnant women; 70% of the
simple population had Hb level less than 11 g/dl (10 ± 1.5).

11. What is the type of study?
A. Cross-sectional study
B. Longitudinal study
C. Case-control study
D. Case series

12. What sampling technique had be adopt
A. Simple random sampling
B. Systemic random sampling
C. Multistage random sampling
D. Stratified random sampling
E. Cluster sampling

13. What is the appropriate term for the rate (70%)
A. Incidence rate
B. Prevalence rate
C. Attack rate
D. Attributable risk
E. Relative risk

Qs 14-17::
0f the total 360 diabetic pregnant women with fatal malformation,
ultrasound (US) was found to be abnormal (+ ve) in 220 women,
while (US) was normal (-ve) in 610 women of the total 620
diabolic pregnant women without fatal malformation. From the
given results"

14. Sensitivity is:
A. 61%
B. 98.4%
C. 95.7%
D. 38.9%
E. 81.3%

15. Predictive value of negative test is:
A. 98.4%
B. 61%
C. 95.7%
D. 81.3%
E. 38.9%

16. Predictive value of positive test is:
A. 98.4%
B. 61%
C. 95.7%
D. 38.9%
E. 81.3%

17. Specificity is:
A. 81.3%
B. 38.9%
C. 98.4%
D. 61%
E. 50%.

18. Herd immunity has NO role in the prevention of following
infection:
A. Measles
B. Mumps
C. Rubella
D. Tetanus
E. Pertussis

19. Which of the following infections are NOT transmitted
vertical (trans placental)?
A. Toxoplasmosis
B. Coxasacki b virus
C. Tetanus
D. HIV
E. Hepatitis B

20. A schoolchild is diagnosed to have chicken pox. He should be
isolated from other school children till:
A. The scabs fall off
B. Two days after the scabs are formed
C. Three days after the fever develops
D. Five days after the development of pustule
E. Seven days after development of pustules

21. There is of epidemic of Meningococcal Meningitis among jail
prisoners. The best chemoprophylaxis for the protection of
contacts is giving：
A. Ciprofloxacillin
B. Chloramphenicol
C. Chloroquine
D. Doxycycline
E. Penicillin
Results
Ultrasound
Total
+ve -ve
Positive 220 10 230
Negative 140 610 750
Total 360 620 980

Arab board for community medicine April 2019
Dr.AbdulQawi Almohamadi
Page 80 of 107
22. Most common bacteria present in poultries and makes food
poisoning is
A. Shigella
B. Listeria
C. Salmonella
D. E.coli

23. The following preventive measures are effective in controlling
Tuberculosis EXCEPT :
A. BCG vaccination of eligible population
B. Giving INH for those yet not diagnosed
C. Early diagnosis & treatment of TB cases
D. Health education

24. To eradicate measles the percentage of population to be
vaccinated is least……..%
A. 70
B. 80
C. 85
D. 95

25. Influenza vaccine is recommended for the all the following
EXCEPT
A. Residents of long-term care facilities
B. Children < 2 years age
C. Patients of chronic diseases (DM, HIV, Renal
Disease)
D. Pregnant women

26. Which of the following is characterized of single exposure
common vehicles outbreak?
A. Frequent secondary cases
B. Severity increases with increasing age
C. Explosive
D. Cases occur continuously beyond the longest
incubation period

27. All of the following statements about eradication programs
are true EXCEPT
A. There is complete interruption of disease
transmission in the entire area of the community
B. It is over once the disease has been certifying as
having been eradicated
C. Case finding is of secondary importance
D. The objective is to eliminate the disease of the
extent that no new cases occurs to the future

28. All of the following statements about the Mosquito are true,
EXCEPT
A. It is a definitive host of malaria
B. It's average life cycle is completed in 2-8 weeks
C. The female can travel up to 3 kilometers
D. It is the vector in Visceral Leishmaniasis

29. The following flies are vectors for The disease opposite each,
EXCEPT
A. Musca Domestica :Typhoid fever.
B. Simulium damonsum. :Onchocerciasis.
C. Phlepbotmuspapatasi. :Yellow fever.
D. Glassine Moristans :Trypanosoa. Rhodesinse.
E. Aedes Egypti. : Rift valley fever.

30. Restriction activities of a contact, who has been exposed to a
case of communicable disease for maximum incubation
period is termed as:
A. Elimination.
B. Quarantine
C. Surveillance.
D. Control.
E. Isolation.

31. The following viruses are associated with human cancers,
EXCEPT:
A. HPV
B. EBV
C. HBV
D. Adenoviruses

32. The killing of microorganisms and spores is term as:
A. Sanitation.
B. Biocide.
C. Antiseptic
D. Decontamination.
E. Sterilization

33. In cases of needle slick and regarding to the results of HBV
blood tests of the patient and the Health care worker (HCW);
which of the following is false:
A. If HBV blood test of the patient is negative and the
HCW is non-vaccinated , the HCW most start an
HB vaccine series.
B. If the HBV blood test the patient is positive and the
HCW is non-vaccinated HCW must receive HBIG
and started an HB vaccine series.
C. If the HBV blood test of the patient is positive and
the HCW is vaccinated and known responder, HCW
must receive one dose of HBIG.
D. If HBV blood test of the patient is negative and the
HCW is vaccinated , no further action can be done

34. The major risks for cervical cancer include all of the
following EXCEPT:
A. Infection with the human papilloma virus
B. Early marriage
C. Premature menopause
D. Multiple sexual partners
E. Severe dysplasia in pap smear

Arab board for community medicine April 2019
Dr.AbdulQawi Almohamadi
Page 81 of 107

35. Hard water has been associated with which of the following
beneficial health effects
A. Decrease in cardiovascular disease
B. Decrease in colon rectal cancer
C. Decrease in lung Cancer
D. Decrease in anemia
E. Decrease in osteoporosis

36. The following are risk factors for development of the
atherosclerosis EXCEPT:
A. Cigarettes smoking.
B. Diabetes mellitus .
C. Female sex
D. Hyperlipidemia.
E. Hypertension.

37. Following dietary changes are advised to reduce the
prevalence of coronary heart disease EXCEPT
A. Increased complex carbohydrates intake
B. High saturated fat intake less than 10% of total
energy intake
C. Salt intake less than 20g/day
D. Reduce fat intake to 20-30% of total energy intake
E. Avoidance of alcohol consumption

38. Choose the true statement about chronic diseases:
a. They mainly affect high income countries
b. They mainly affect rich people
c. They are only the result of unhealthy lifestyle
d. Their prevention and control is cost effective

39. All the following are true about cancer EXCEPT
A. They are among the leading cause of death
worldwide.
B. Majority of all cancer deaths occur in high-income
countries.
C. Deaths from cancer are estimated to increase by
double by 2030
D. About 30% of cancers are attributable to behavior
risk factors .

40. Which of the following statements is true regarding stroke &
hypertension
A. Systolic hypertension in the elderly (> 75) does not
require active treatment
B. Hypertension is an important risk factors for
hemorrhagic stroke only
C. Monotherapy is preferred to polytherapy to
minimize side- effects of treatment
D. Successful hypertension therapy lowers stroke risk
by 30-40%.
E. None of the above

41. Which among the following is a cardio protective fatty acid?
A. Omega-3 fatly acids
B. Oleic acid
C. Palmitic acid
D. Steric acid

42. What statistical technique can the investigators use to study
average body weight before and after a supervised exercised
program:
A. Independent - group tests
B. Chi Squair test
C. Person correlation
D. Paired t-test
E. AN OVA

43. Box plot graph shows the following EXCEPT :
A. The lower value.
B. The median value.
C. The maximum value.
D. The relative frequency
E. The inter-quartile range

44. Power of study can be increased by:
A. Increasing α error
B. Decreasing ß error
C. Decreasing α error
D. Increasing ß error

45. You are preparing a report to present the Public Health
Council on the declining rates of gonorrhea in your state in
both men and women over the last 10 years. Which type of
graph would best illustrated the data?"
A. Bar chart
B. Cross distribution
C. Histogram
D. Pie chart
E. Line Graff

46. Consider the following distribution carve. Which statement
best applies to this carve?

A. The mean is a more robust measure of Central
Tendency
B. The median is higher than the mean
C. The data is skewed to the right
D. This is a normal distribution
E. This is a bimodal illustration

47. In a double blind clinical drug Trial :
A. Each patient receives a placebo
B. Each patient receives both (double) treatments
C. Only the patients do not know which treatment
they are receiving
D. The patient and investigators don not know which
treatment patients are receiving
E. The patients do not know what they are in a drug
Trial

Arab board for community medicine April 2019
Dr.AbdulQawi Almohamadi
Page 82 of 107
48. Three drugs' (Antacid, Ranitidine, Omeprazole) have been
independently evaluated for effectiveness in peptic ulcer
disease. Each of these drugs was associated with ulcer healing
in 90% of the patients in a 3-month period. Assuming no
sampling error, no bias, and no confounding , what conclusion
can be made?
A. Each of the 3 drugs is effective in peptic ulcer
disease
B. None of the drugs is significant effective in peptic
ulcer disease
C. Additional information are needed to make valid
conclusions
D. Combination of these drugs is likely to be more
effective in peptic ulcer disease than any of them
alone.
E. None of the above

49. The term critical reading of the evidence refers to
A. A report produced on a research examining its pros
and cons.
B. The process of reading as much research to ensure
good number of studies
C. The process of carefully and systematically reading,
research to judge its value.
D. The process of carefully and systematically
examining research to test the hypotheses

50. The use of multiply data sources to ultrasound a phenomenon
is one strategy that is used to promote qualitative and
quantitative research validity. Which of the following terms
describes this strategy
A. Data matching
B. Data filtration
C. Data triangulation
D. Data feedback

51. In a randomized double blinding trial to compare a new
analgesic with placebo for the control pain in arthritis subjects
reported less pain while using the analgesic and the difference
in pain scores between the two regimes was highly significant
(P= 0.002). We can conclude that:
A. An important clinical advance has been made.
B. There is good evidence that the drug reduces pain.
C. The drug is a very elective analgesic.
D. The difference between mean pain scores on the
two regimes was 0.002.

52. A new medicine is marketed as being safer and more effective
than exiting medicines used for the same indication. Which of
the following sources of evidence is the strongest
A. The medicine was compared to existing medicines
in a double blind clinical trial with 5000 patients .
B. The medicine was compared to existing medicines
in a meta-analysis of four clinical trials with a
combined total of 5000 patients .
C. The medicine was compared to a placebo in a
double blind clinical Trial with 5000 patients.
D. The medicine was compared to a placebo in a meta-
analysis of four clinical Trials with a combined
total of 5000 patients

53. A 45 years old man has weight of 70 kg and height 160 cm.
He is:
A. Under weight
B. Normal weight
C. Over weight
D. Obese
E. Severely obese

54. Silicosis is often complicated by:
A. Cancer lung
B. Asthma
C. Mesothelioma
D. Tuberculosis
E. Gastrointestinal Tumors

55. Asbestosis may be complicated by all of the following
EXCEPT:
A. Lung cancer
B. Leukemia
C. Mesothelioma
D. Ovarian tumors
E. Gastrointestinal tumors

56. The treatment of the decompression sickness is:
A. Oxygen inhalation
B. Gradual decompression and gradual recompression
C. Rapid decompression and rapid recompression
D. Rapid recompression and gradual decompression
E. Rapid recompression and rapid decompression

57. The character of alpha particles include all of the following
EXCEPT:
A. They are negative charged
B. Penetrate air for 5 - 10 cm
C. Penetrate tissues for 0.1mm
D. Cause intense ionization
E. Can be stopped by a piece of paper or board

58. All of the followings are true about LASER EXCEPT:
A. They are used for cutting and welding metals
B. They are used in communication systems
C. They cause mild to severe retinal change
D. They are used to repair detachment of retina
E. They may cause cancer lung

Arab board for community medicine April 2019
Dr.AbdulQawi Almohamadi
Page 83 of 107
59. Pre-placements examination as a measure in occupational
health is mainly needed:
A. For future comparison of workers health.
B. To deled workers will diseases like HIV/AIDS.
C. As a routine purpose.
D. For placing workers to suitable work.
E. To satisfy the requirement of a higher authority.

60. Water related diseases include all EXCEPT :
A. Typhoid
B. African sleeping sickness
C. Hepatitis A
D. Scabies
E. Leishmaniasis

61. Mosquitoes transfer all EXCEPT:
A. Malaria
B. Dengue Fever
C. Yellow Fever
D. Japanese Encephalitis
E. Legionella

62. A dental surgeon appointed in rural health centre report an
increased incidence of dental carries in the children of that
area. The relevant preventive measure that be should suggest
to the health authority is:
A. Fluoridation of water
B. Chlorination of water
C. Use of bacterial filler
D. Use of boiled water
E. Softening of hard water

63. One of the following is NOT a potential indoor air pollution :
A. Biological pollutants like allergens and bacteria.
B. Radon.
C. Carbon monoxide.
D. Carbon dioxide.
E. Tobacco smoke including second hand smoke.

64. Radioactivity is measured by:
A. Curie
B. Joule
C. Rad
D. Rem
E. Sievert

65. Pesticides are classified according to their formula into:
A. Insecticides fungicides, rodenticides
B. Organophosphorus, organ chlorine, pyrothroids
C. Organic and inorganic
D. Liquid, powder solid
E. Low toxicity , moderate toxicity, high toxicity

66. Which of the following, statements is correct regarding, water
pollution:
A. Caused by chemical contaminants only
B. Its effect is limited to human beings
C. Its affects the desired use of water
D. Its often has no serious effect on human health
E. All of the above

67. Which of the following is correct regarding Ozone use in
water treatment?
A. Used as disinfectant for tap water only
B. Kills most microbes, depending on dosage applied
C. Leaves a taste in the treated water
D. Maintains disinfectant in sealed containers
E. Cheaper than chlorine

68. An epidemic of gastroenteritis affected more than 500 people
in a city. Samples of water were taken from different sites of
the supply system. Bacterial examination was positive for coli
forms. A clinical analysis of water showed the presence of
high fluoride ,nitrate, chloride and PH of 6. Which content is
suggestive of water born epidemic?
A. Nitrate
B. Chlorides
C. High PH
D. Coli-form
E. Fluoride

69. The insecticide DDT after absorption in the body is most
likely to be concentrated in
A. Muscles
B. Bones
C. Thyroid gland
D. Fatty tissues
E. Kidneys

70. Which of the following waste management methods is the
preferred method of waste
A. Waste minimization
B. Incineration
C. Recycling
D. Physical Treatment
E. Biological treatment

71. _________Skills are necessary to accomplish or understand
the specific kind of work in an organization.
A. Technical
B. Interpersonal
C. Conceptual
D. Decision-making
E. Time management

72. Motivating members of the organization to work in the best
interests of the organization is defined as:
A. Organizing
B. Planning
C. Controlling
D. Leading
E. Decision making

Arab board for community medicine April 2019
Dr.AbdulQawi Almohamadi
Page 84 of 107
73. Determining how best to group activities and resources is
defined as:
A. Organizing
B. Planning
C. Controlling
D. Leading
E. Decision Making

74. Efficiency means all of the following EXCEPT :
A. Doing things right.
B. Getting the most output for the best inputs
C. Low resource waste
D. High attendance of organizational goals
E. Maximum output from available resources
(minimum waste)

75. Telecommunication Company has selected "Ahmed" the best
employee of the month. The vice president of the company is
giving Ahmed his award in a special event. What role does
the vice president play in this events"
A. Figurehead
B. Entrepreneur
C. Negotiator
D. Disturbance handler
E. Monitor

76. Building a new hospital in the city ready to receive patients is
considered as which of the building blocks of health care
systems?
A. Human resources
B. Service delivery
C. Information
D. Governance
E. Medicines and Technologies

77. The following are pillars of the health system building blocks
EXCEPT:
A. Governance and leadership.
B. Financing and service delivery.
C. Human resources and medical technologies .
D. Coordination and communication between different
health system levels.
E. The information needed for monitoring and
evaluation of health programs & services

78. The expected impact of a successful health program depends
mainly on:
A. Community involvement.
B. The availability of person interventions.
C. Having an evidence-based packages of intervention.
D. Suitable service delivery outlets.
E. Multi-sectorial approach.

79. All are true about Primary Health Care EXCEPT:
A. Essentials health care is provided.
B. The closest to the people.
C. First referral level.
D. A majority of prevailing health problems can be
managed.
E. Provided by the primary health care centers.

80. All are true about Primary Care approach EXCEPT:
A. Focuses on the disease not the person.
B. Integrated care when there is more than one
problem.
C. Use resources to narrow difference.
D. Forms the basis for other levels of healthy system.
E. Addresses most important problems in the
community.

81. The most important objective of the Maternal Childhood
Services in PHC is:
A. To improve the health of the women and children
B. To reduce unplanned or unwanted pregnancies
C. Promotion of reproductive health
D. To reduce the incidence and prevalence of STD
E. To reduce maternal and child morbidity and
mortality

82. All of the following are true about factors influencing food
habits in adolescence EXCEPT:
A. Increasing influence of peers
B. Decreasing media exposure
C. Increasing prevalence of employment outside home
D. Increasing responsibilities
E. Decreasing influence of family

83. A woman brought her child with congenital anomalies heart
and cataract. She gave history of mild fever and rash in the 1
st

Trimester of pregnancy which settled with mild antipyretics.
possible gestational condition that could have resulted in this
anomalies is:"
A. Measles
B. Herpes
C. Rubella
D. Chickenpox
E. Toxoplasmosis

84. Life expectancy is:
A. Important determinant of health status in a country
B. The context dimension in the health policy triangle
C. The last the most used determent of health status in
a country
D. The most used indicator for the health status of a
country
E. The best important indicator for the health status of
a country

Arab board for community medicine April 2019
Dr.AbdulQawi Almohamadi
Page 85 of 107
85. The income level of a country is:
A. The least important determinant for the health
status of a country
B. The most important indicator of a health status in a
country
C. An important determinant for the health status of a
country
D. Is a HALY measure
E. Is a DALY measure

86. When a country gets richer, which of the following indicators
is easiest to improved?
A. Infant Mortality rate.
B. Under 5 Morality rates.
C. Maternal mortality ratio.
D. Neonatal morality rate.
E. School age morality rate.

87. In low-income countries all of the below is true EXCEPT:
A. Life expectancy is around 59 years
B. One billion people live there
C. People die mostly from road traffic accidents
D. These countries has low income
E. People die mostly from infectious diseases.

88. All the following vaccines can be given to a pregnant woman
EXCEPT:
A. Tetanus Toxoid vaccine
B. Inactivate Polio Vaccine(IPV)
C. Rabies vaccine
D. Pneumococcal vaccine
E. Chicken Pox vaccine

89. The most sensitive vaccine to high Temperature is:
A. Inactivated Polio Vaccine (IPV).
B. Hepatitis B.
C. BCG vaccine.
D. Oral Polio Vaccine (OPV).
E. BCG vaccine.

90. All the followings are true regarding Health promotion
EXCEPT:
A. It is about enabling people to increase control over
their health.
B. Health promotion strategies are limited to a specific
health problem.
C. Health promotion is everyone’s business.
D. Focus on the whole population.
E. Support people to make a ‘healthy’ choice.

91. All the following are true regarding determinants of health,
EXCEPT:
A. The higher the income category, the lower the
morality rate.
B. The lower the occupational status, the higher the
morality rate.
C. The bigger the gap between rich and poor within a
country, the higher the mortality rate.
D. The limited social interaction and participation, the
more positive physical and psychological
wellbeing.
E. The more access to healthy food and clean drinking
water, the more positive physical and psychological
wellbeing.

92. By asking a question like “Are you concerned about getting
complications if you get Hepatitis B infection? aim to assess
which constructs of the Health Believe Model?
A. Perceived barrier.
B. Perceived severity.
C. Perceived susceptibility.
D. Perceived benefits.
E. Self- efficacy.

93. The following is the most recent WHO recommendation on
the number of ANC- visits:
A. One visit during the whole period of pregnancy.
B. Four visits during the whole period of pregnancy.
C. Once/week visit during the last monthly of
pregnancy.
D. Two visits during the second trimester.
E. At least eight visit during pregnancy.

Q.94 – 95. :
Read the following case carefully and then answer the following
question;
Patient A.S., 56 years old female, divorced, resident in rural area,
had undergone hysterectomy in a city. Five days post-operative,
she was discharged and went back to her home outside the city, the
following day she was taken by her son to primary health services
clinic because she had experienced acute abdominal pain, the
physician decided to transfer her urgently to the hospital but she
died during the journey. In the legal necropsy they found a
compress (surgical gauze) in the abdominal cavity with necrosis
signs around it.

94. All the following ethical conflicts have aroused in this case
EXCEPT :
A. Medical error.
B. Medical negligence.
C. Bad referral procedure.
D. Poor doctor patient communication.
E. No established Informed consent.

95. The main ethical conflict in this case was:
A. Informed consent.
B. Medical negligence.
C. Poor doctor patient relationship.
D. Medical paternalism.
E. Unethical and inadequate referral procedure.

Arab board for community medicine April 2019
Dr.AbdulQawi Almohamadi
Page 86 of 107
96. Which one of the following Hippocratic ethical principles has
been severely violated in this case?
A. Confidentiality.
B. Beneficence.
C. Non maleficence.
D. Truth telling.
E. Fidelity.

97. Examples of mental defense mechanism include the
followings EXCEPT:
A. Denial
B. Projection
C. Lying
D. Rationalization

98. Health is not distributed evenly in the world basis of region
and nation EXCEPT:
A. Social Factors
B. Cultural factors
C. Psychological factors
D. Health planning

99. Health system:
A. Activities are either clinical practice or non-clinical
practice
B. Clients
C. Beliefs are the same as attitudes
D. State policy

From the figure bellow, carefully answer the following :

100. This figure represents all of the following EXCEPT:
A. A population with high birth rate
B. A population with potential male worker in-
migration
C. A population with percentage of elderly population
D. A population with more males as compared with
females
E. A population with low birth rate
************************
GOOD LUCK

Arab board for community medicine April 2019
Dr.AbdulQawi Almohamadi
Page 87 of 107
Long Questions April 2019
❖ QUESTION ONE:
Meningococcal meningitis outbreaks are reported in some Arab countries. You are the director of health services in a
province and you received a report from a medical officer in a rural hospital about suspicious situation were 13
patients reported to the hospital from the town and the surroundings villages complaining of headache and neck
stiffness, of whom 2 died. More cases and deaths believed to have occurred without reporting to the hospital. The
medical officer
1. What additional information you require to investigate the situation and how you confirm the diagnosis?
2. What steps you will take if CSM is confirmed?

❖ OUESTION TWO:
Promotion of mental health is recognized as health priority, and there is a rising trend of mental health problems in
Arabic region.
1. What are the conditions / changes which contributed to this rise?
2. What are the most vulnerable groups for mental health disorders?
3. What actions you suggest to integrate mental health services in to primary health care?
❖ OUESTION THREE:
Perinatal and neonatal mortalities comprise the major share among infant mortality especially in developing countries.
You are a consultant to assess the situation and suggest the strategies and activities to lower these mortalities.
1. Define both perinatal and neonatal mortality rates?
2. What are the possible and potential causes of these deaths?
3. What are the main strategies and interventions you suggest to reduce these mortalities?
4. What are the indicators you will use to asses success of these strategies?

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MCQs October 2019

1. Each of the following is an example of primary prevention
EXCEPT:
A. Genetic counseling of parents with one retarded
child
B. Nutritional supplements in pregnancy
C. Immunization against tetanus
D. Chemoprophylaxis in a recent tuberculin converter
E. Speed limits on highways

2. An HIV positive person receives anti-retroviral therapy to
delay progress to AIDS, define the level of prevention in this
case.
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. Primordial
E. This is treatment, not prevention

3. What is the technical term used by epidemiologists to describe
the situation that occurs when a third factor influences the
relationship between an exposure and a disease?
A. Selection bias.
B. Random error.
C. Information bias.
D. Relative risk.
E. Confounding.

4. A rare disorder of amino acid metabolism causes severe
mental retardation if left untreated. If the disease is detected
soon after birth a restrictive diet prevents mental
abnormalities. Which of the following characteristics would
be most desirable in a screening test for this disease?
A. High sensitivity
B. High specificity
C. High positive predictive value
D. High cutoff value
E. High cost

5. In a suspected case of polio, which specimen should be taken
for identification of the virus?
A. Feces
B. Throat swab
C. Blood
D. Cerebrospinal fluid
E. Urine

6. Any diseases for which an official report is required either
nationally ’ internationally is called:
A. Infectious disease.
B. Contagious disease.
C. Notifiable disease.
D. Communicable disease.
E. Surveillance of disease.

7. Which of the following is the most common site of hospital-
acquired infections?
A. Surgical wounds
B. Respiratory tract
C. Skin
D. Urinary tract
E. Gastrointestinal tract

8. The reliability of a screening test refers to.
A. The ability of the test to distinguish people who are
truly diseased and people who are not truly diseased
B. The degree to which the test on the same person will
give the same result when the test is repeated
C. The positive predictive value of the test
D. The capacity of the test to really measure what it
targets to measure
E. A test without bias

9. Research published in a well-respected medical journal
looked at screening for lung cancer using a new method. The
researchers reported that patients who were screened and had
lung cancer detected lived longer after diagnosis than people
who were not screened. Which is true?
A. This shows that screening is effective in prolonging
survival.
B. This may be an example of lead-time bias.
C. This may be an example of verification bias.
D. Well-respected medical journals are always right.
E. This shows that screening test is highly sensitive

10. In a survey of 10,000 iv drug users in town A, 1,000 turn out
to be infected with hepatitis. During one year of follow-up,
100 patients with hepatitis-c infection die. Also during follow-
up, 100 iv drug users acquire hepatitis-c. Which of the
following is the best estimate of the annual incidence of
hepatitis-c infection in iv drug users in town A?
A. 1,000/10,000
B. 1,100/10,000
C. 100/10,000
D. 100/9,000
E. 100/9,800

11. The incidence rate of a disease is five times greater in woman
than in men, but the prevalence rate shows no sex difference.
The best explanation is that...
A. The crude mortality rate is greater in women
B. The case-fatality rate for this disease is greater for
women
C. Treatments exist only for men
D. The duration of this disease is shorter in men
E. Risk factors for developing disease are more
common

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12. All of the following features are true about Cross-Sectional
study EXCEPT:
A. Follow up is not a necessary feature
B. Cause and effect relationship can be established
C. All cases are seen at one point in time
D. More useful for chronic diseases
E. The most appropriate design to measure prevalence

13. All are true regarding randomized controlled trial (RCT)
EXCEPT:
A. Bias may arise during evaluation
B. The groups should be representative of the
population
C. Both study and control group should be comparable
D. Used only for testing new drugs on human or animal
subjects
E. Considered as a gold standard among study designs

14. Differentiation between a point-source epidemic and a
progressive (propagated) epidemic is made by:
A. Considering the characteristics of the infectious
agent
B. Determining the level of immunity in the
community
C. Determining the number of persons infected and
calculating the attack rate
D. Plotting the distribution of cases by time onset
E. None of the above

15. The aims of an outbreak investigation include the followings
EXCEPT:
A. To verify the existence of an outbreak
B. To select the appropriate control measures
C. To describe the natural history of newly recognized
disease
D. To improve logical epidemiological thinking
E. To treat an individual case

16. In a classroom of 25 students (15 males and 10 females), 5
males develop hepatitis A over a 2-week period. During the
next 6 weeks, an additional 3 males and 2 females develop the
infection. The secondary attack rate is
A. 20%
B. 25%
C. 35%
D. 40%
E. 45%

17. During an 8-hour shift in a building；30 employees (20
females and 10 males) visited the company physician with
complaints of nausea, vomiting, headache and dizziness. All
affected individuals responded to supportive treatment and
were sent home. If 600 persons (400 females and 200 males)
worked in the building, the male to female risk ratio was...
A. 0.3
B. 0.5
C. 1
D. 2
E. 3

18. Among women aged 18 to 34 in a community, weight is
normally distributed with a mean of 52 Kg and a standard
deviation of 7.5 Kg. What percentage of women will have a
weight over 29.5 Kg?
A. 2.5%
B. 0.5%
C. 5%
D. 49.5%
E. 99.5%

19. The weight of high-school children who engage in
competitive sports is compared to that of students who do not.
The best way of testing whether differences are statistically
significant between the two groups is to use.
A. Chi-square test.
B. A correlation coefficient.
C. An unbiased distribution.
D. Student's (independent) t-test.
E. Fisher exact-test

20. Pilot study is undertaken to:
A. Formulation of hypothesis
B. Find out feasibility of certain procedure
C. Find out of incidence of the disease
D. Confirm the etiological hypothesis
E. Make conclusion about the study

21. Incidence rate of lung cancer is 2 times higher among smokers
than non-smokers. Indicate which of the Hill's criteria is
addressed by this statement:
A. Strength of association
B. Coherence
C. Biological plausibility
D. Biological gradient
E. Temporality

22. Several studies have found that approximately 85% of cases
of lung cancer are due to smoking. This measure is an
example of....
A. An incidence rate
B. An attributable risk
C. A relative risk
D. A prevalence
E. A proportionate morbidity rates.

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PAGE 90 OF 107
23. A study was performed to determine the association between
cigarette smoking and acute myocardial Infarction (Ml). Cases
were patients with Ml admitted to a single hospital, and
controls were patients hospitalized at the same hospital
without a diagnosis of Ml. Trained interviewers then asked all
subjects about their prior smoking history. Which bias poses
the most serious threat to the validity of this study?
A. Recall bias
B. Selection bias
C. Lost to follow-up
D. Interviewer bias
E. Diagnosis bias

24. Higher crude annual mortality rate in a developing country as
compared to a developed country is mostly due to one of the
following reasons:
A. An incorrect record keeping
B. A younger age distribution
C. An inaccurate census of the population.
D. More stressful life style
E. Greater exposure to occupational hazards.

25. Influenza pandemic occurs after every 7-10 years. This kind
of disease distribution in time is known as:
A. Secular trend
B. Short time fluctuation
C. Cyclical trend
D. Seasonal trend
E. Endemicity

26. Which of the following infections is NOT transmitted from
mother to child:
A. Toxoplasmosis
B. Rubella
C. Tetanus
D. Syphilis
E. Hepatitis B

27. In epidemiology of Measles, all are true EXCEPT:
A. It caused by RNA virus.
B. Is an acute highly contagious disease.
C. Human are the only natural host.
D. Incubation period is up to 6 weeks.
E. Clinically presented by fever, cough conjunctivitis,
Koplik's spots & rash

28. Which statement adequately describes herd (collective)
Immunity?
A. It can only be obtained through massive
immunization campaigns
B. The spread of many infectious diseases is naturally
limited by herd immunity
C. It is naturally transmitted from one generation to the
other
D. It is always very low in Islands
E. It exists during large pandemics

29. Maintaining the cold chain ensures that vaccines are stored
according to the manufacturer's instructions at:
A. +4 C⁰
B. -1 - +5 C⁰
C. +2 - +l0 C⁰
D. +4 - +8 C⁰
E. +2 - +8 C⁰

30. Diseases transmitted by Aedes Egypti include all the
followings, EXCEPT:
A. Dengue fever
B. Chikungunya
C. Yellow fever
D. Rocky mountain fever
E. Zika disease

31. The following are water borne disease EXCEPT:
A. Cholera
B. Hepatitis A
C. Typhoid fever
D. Shigellosis
E. Pertussis

32. Which one of the following statements about the MMR
vaccine is correct?
A. It protects against measles, meningococcus and
rubella
B. It is a live attenuated vaccine
C. Autism and inflammatory bowel disease are rare but
serious side effects
D. The MMR booster is given at high school
E. The vaccine is grown on sheep embryo tissue

33. How much exercise is recommended for the average adult to
prevent cardiovascular diseases?
A. Fifteen minutes of vigorous activity at least three
times a week.
B. One hour of moderate Intensity per day.
C. Thirty minutes of moderate intensity at least 5 days
a week.
D. One very long exercise session at least once a week.
E. No exercise is necessary unless one is overweight..

34. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease characterized by the
followings EXCEPT:
A. Airflow limitation precede chronic cough and
sputum production by many years
B. The disease affects men and women almost equally.
C. Its diagnosis is confirmed by the spirometry
D. The primary cause is tobacco smoke.
E. The majority of COPD deaths occur in low and
middle-income countries.

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35. According to trials on diabetes prevention, high-risk
individuals can reduce their risk to develop diabetes by doing
the following:
A. Eating a very low carbohydrate diet.
B. Consuming a diet high in monounsaturated fats.
C. Losing 5-7% of body weight through a hypocaloric
low fat diet and 30 minutes of daily activity.
D. Initiating metformin 850 mg BID and practicing
daily vigorous exercise

36. According to the recommendations for the nutritional
management of patients with diabetes, the consumption of
saturated fat should be:
A. <10% of total daily energy.
B. <12%
C. <15%
D. <16%
E. <20%

37. A preventive approach to hypertension includes all the
followings EXCEPT:
A. A diet rich in sodium and saturated fat
B. A diet rich in fruits and vegetables
C. Strength training with dynamic or isometric exercise
D. Weight reduction in the overweight
E. Weight reduction in the obese

38. A body mass Index (BMI) of ________ is classified as
overweight.
A. < 18.5% kg/m²
B. 20 to <25 kg/m²
C. 25 to <30 kg/m²
D. 30 to <40 kg/m²
E. > 40 kg/m²

39. Pulmonary embolism (PE) is usually the result of the
mobilization of blood clots due to thrombosis in which
site(s)?
A. Lower extremities
B. Upper or lower extremities
C. Pelvis or lower extremities
D. Pelvis or upper extremities

40. Which among the following is a cardio-protective fatty acid?
A. Omega-3 fatty acids
B. Oleic acid
C. Palmitic acid
D. Stearic acid

41. The following data represent length of hospitalization (in
weeks) for six patients who receive no physical therapy after a
total hip replacement: 4,4,3,5,4, and 20. the best measure of
central tendency for this group of data is
A. Mean
B. Range
C. Mode
D. Median
E. Standard deviation.

42. You want to produce a graph that will show the distribution of
scores in your data. An appropriate way to display the
information would be to use a:
A. Frequency table with percentages
B. Histogram
C. Bar chart
D. Pie chart
E. Box plot

43. The following is discrete quantitative variable:
A. Age
B. Blood sugar
C. Gender
D. Family number
E. Weight

44. Regarding Chi square test x²:
A. Not suitable test when comparing proportions
between two groups.
B. Used to compare means for more than two groups.
C. It compares observed versus expected data.
D. It is a rarely used test in medical research.
E. Degree of freedom is the sum of columns and rows.

45. In hypothesis testing we reject Ho when:
A. The calculated value of statistics is equal to
tabulated value
B. The calculated value of statistics is greater than the
tabulated one
C. The tabulated is greater than the calculated one
D. All of the above
E. B and C are true

46. The most suitable sampling for representation of a
homogenous small population is:
A. Cluster random sampling
B. Stratified random sampling
C. Systemic random sampling
D. Simple random sampling
E. Multistage random sampling

47. A type II error occurs when:
A. The null hypothesis is incorrectly accepted when it
is false
B. The null hypothesis is incorrectly rejected when it is
true
C. The sample mean differs from the population mean
D. The alternative hypothesis is incorrectly accepted
when it is false
E. The test is biased

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48. Which of the following is the first step in hypothesis testing?
A. Drawing a sample from the population
B. It does not matter where you begin when you test
hypotheses
C. Developing a null and alternative hypothesis
D. Setting the cutoff value for rejecting the null
hypothesis
E. Selecting the appropriate statistical test

49. When the number of educated females is expressed of the
total females present in a village. It is known as:
A. Proportion
B. Rate
C. Ratio
D. Frequency
E. Cumulative frequency

50. Which value represents the strongest and significant relative
risk?
A. 1.3 (0.8-2.1)
B. 0.5 (0.4-0.6)
C. 2.4 (1.2-3.6)
D. 2.2 (1.2-3.6)
E. 2.6 (0.7-4.5)

51. All the followings are generally included in the proposal
EXCEPT:
A. Problem identification
B. Pretest questionnaire
C. Data editing
D. Final report dissemination plan
E. Data analysis plan

52. The first step in the development of research is:
A. Literature review
B. Problem identification
C. Formulation of the objectives
D. Data collection
E. Writing research plan

53. The purpose of a double blind or double masked study is to:
A. Achieve comparability of treated and untreated
subjects
B. Reduce the effects of sampling variation
C. Avoid observer and subject bias
D. Avoid observer bias and sampling variation
E. Avoid subject bias and sampling variation

54. In a population of 10,000, beta carotene was given to 6000
people. The remainder did not receive any carotene. 3 out of
the first group later suffered from lung cancer while 2 out of
the second group (non-recipients') also got lung cancer. What
is your reasonable conclusion?
A. Beta carotene and lung cancer have no relation to
each other
B. The P value is not significant
C. The study is not designed properly
D. Beta carotene is associated with lung cancer
E. Beta carotene causes lung cancer

55. Which of the following is NOT a barrier to the use of
evidence-based practice (EBP)? A Reasons related to the
evidence base, such as gaps in the evidence base or a poor
quality of evidence
A. Personal reasons related to the individual
practitioner, such as a lack of skills to undertake
EBP or a lack of time.
B. Evidence that demonstrates qualified health workers
make the best decisions about how to practice.
C. Reasons related to the organization, such as
inappropriate or inadequate support for EBP or the
perceived threat of EBP.
D. A lack of understanding of the process, economic
constraints, or inadequate access to evidence.

56. Which of the following is not a component of the health belief
model?
A. Perceived susceptibility
B. Perceived barriers
C. Perceived behavioral control
D. Perceived severity
E. Cues to action

57. A process in which, one individual influencing another
individual or group, to achieve particular objectives is
A. Leadership
B. Motivation
C. Communication
D. Directing
E. Actuating

58. In the relationship between obesity and cardiovascular
disease, what are hyperlipidemia and hyperglycemia?
A. Confounders
B. Effect modifiers
C. Intervening variables
D. Necessary causes
E. Unrelated

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59. Zidovudine is now routinely offered in association with all
pregnancies to known HIV- seropositive mothers. However,
growth of resistant strains will reduce the drug's effectiveness
in preventing perinatal HIV transmission. Observational
studies for assessing zidovudine effectiveness have serious
methodological problems, but which of the following case-
control designs would be the most nearly valid?
A. Cases are HIV-infected infants; controls are
uninfected infants.
B. Cases are HIV-infected infants; controls are
uninfected infants of HIV-seropositive mothers.
C. Cases are HIV-infected infants; controls are infants
whose mothers should have received zidovudine but
did not.
D. Cases are HIV-infected infants whose mothers
received zidovudine; controls are uninfected infants
whose mothers received zidovudine.
E. None of the above.

60. The type of study design that can prove causation is:
A. Experimental study
B. Cohort study
C. Case-control study
D. Case report
E. Correlation study

61. As part of a quality control study, the hemoglobin A1c values
of diabetic patients at two clinics are compared. In a study of
4,000 patients, it is found that the mean hemoglobin A1c
value in group-1 is 7.4% and the mean hemoglobin A1c value
in group-2 is 7.6%. The significance level of this study was
set at < 0.05. The authors did the correct statistical test and
found a P value of 0.04 for this comparison. Based on this
information, you conclude:
A. Group-1 is significantly different from group-2:
Reject the null hypothesis.
B. Group-1 is not significantly different from group-2:
Don't reject the null Hypothesis
C. Group-1 is not significantly different from group-2:
Reject the null hypothesis.
D. Group-1 is significantly different from group-2:
Don't reject the null hypothesis.

62. Which of the following interventions is the most effective in
the prevention and control of road traffic injuries?
A. Education
B. Economic incentives
C. Law enforcement
D. Engineering
E. Emergency response

63. Many Healthcare professionals operate using a Patient-
Centered approach. Which of the following is NOT an
example of this approach?
A. A physiotherapist asking their client whether they
feel "too tired to walk?"
B. A doctor orders a medication that a client repeatedly
states he is uncomfortable with.
C. A doctor shares his thoughts with the medical team
and the patient to make him decide on his treatment
plan
D. A physician asks the patients which language he
prefers and offer the assistance of an interpreter
E. A health educator encourage and support his patient
to plan and make a decision relate to his health

64. All the followings are required to provide quality health
services in Primary Health Care EXCEPT:
A. Implement Evidence Based Medicine
B. Continue to allow medical staff to develop their
own protocols
C. Ensure the workforce is trained
D. Engage the community
E. Implement the patient centered approach

65. Which one is the most Cost-Beneficial technology in
improving community health in developing nations?
A. Safe water supply
B. Oral rehydration solutions
C. Hospitals in all communities with at least 1,000
population
D. One doctor for 500 population
E. Control of industrial pollution

66. The followings are among the enabling factors for behavior
change in health education, EXCEPT:
A. Skills
B. Attitude
C. Availability
D. Accessibility
E. Laws

67. The most important anthropogenic greenhouse gas, which is
responsible for more than 60% of the greenhouse effect, is
which of the following?
A. Carbon dioxide.
B. Carbon monoxide.
C. Methane.
D. Nitrous oxide.
E. Sulfuric acid

68. The following chemical levels indicates recent water
contamination by sewage:
A. Chlorides
B. Nitrites
C. Bicarbonates of magnesium
D. Mercury
E. All of the above

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69. Common practice in solid waste management includes all the
followings EXCEPT:
A. Identification of waste type
B. Segregation of waste
C. Transport and storage of waste
D. Sanitary dumping
E. Incineration

70. Electromagnetic radiations generated by high-voltage
electrical power lines have been incriminated in causing
A. Lymphoma.
B. Childhood leukemia.
C. Breast cancer.
D. Diarrhea.
E. Emphysema.

71. In Occupational Deafness (Noise induced hearing loss), dip or
V shaped notch in audiogram occurs at the following level in
early stages:
A. 2000 Hz.
B. 3000 Hz.
C. 4000 Hz.
D. 8000 Hz.
E. 10000 Hz

72. Raynaud's phenomenon of occupational origin is caused by
exposure to:
A. Vibration
B. Radiation.
C. Noise.
D. Heat.
E. Chemicals.

73. Which of the following agents are most resistant to water
disinfection with chlorine?
A. Hepatitis virus species
B. Schistosomes species
C. Coliforms
D. Cysts of Entamoeba histolytica
E. Enteric bacteria

74. An important indicator of environmental air pollution is...
A. Chlorine.
B. Fluoride.
C. Sulphur dioxide.
D. Carbon dioxide.
E. Ozone.

75. Industries associated with increased risk of bladder cancer
include the following EXCEPT:
A. Manufacture of rubber.
B. Manufacture of paint.
C. Manufacture of steel.
D. Dyeing of textile.
E. Printing.

76. Foundry workers may suffer all the following disease as a
result of occupational exposure EXCEPT:
A. Silicosis
B. Asbestosis
C. Stomach cancer
D. Lung cancer
E. Hearing loss

77. Which of the following substances is causally associated with
pneumoconiosis?
A. Sulfur dioxides
B. Mercury
C. Oil fumes
D. Dust particles
E. Lead

78. Among the principles for integrating mental health into PHC,
all of the followings are true EXCEPT:
A. Adequate training of primary care workers is
required
B. Patients must have access to essential psychotropic
medications
C. Primary care tasks must include all mental disorders
diagnosis and treatment
D. A mental health service coordinator is crucial
E. Advocacy is required to create change

79. The following services are included in the secondary
prevention of mental disorders EXCEPT:
A. Early case finding at the PHC level
B. Psychiatric services to the at risk cases including
referral to specialists
C. Giving enough folic acid before and during
pregnancy
D. Involve the family in early detection of individuals
with social maladjustment
E. Treatment of bipolar disorder

80. The most common prenatal cause of mental retardation is:
A. Maternal infections
B. Maternal ingestion of alcohol or other drugs
C. Genetic transmission
D. Maternal nutritional deficiencies
E. Accidents

81. In the international death certificate, which of the following is
true?
A. Part I of the certificate deals with the immediate and
also the underlying cause
B. Part I of the certificate deals with the immediate
cause only
C. Part II of the certificate deals with the underlying
Cause
D. Other morbid conditions not related to the cause of
death are not included

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82. A man of 63 had been treated for some years for malignant
hypertension. while seriously ill with congestive heart failure,
he developed acute appendicitis. Appendectomy was carried
out successfully, but the heart condition deteriorated further
and he died 2 weeks later. The underlying cause of death was:
A. Malignant hypertension
B. Congestive heart failure
C. Cardiac hypertrophy
D. Acute appendicitis
E. Appendectomy

83. A good indicator of the availability, utilization and
effectiveness of health care services in a country is:
A. Maternal mortality rate
B. Hospital bed occupancy rate
C. Infant mortality rate
D. Disability adjusted life years (DALYs)

84. Which of the following is NOT ONE of the Millennium
Development Goals?
A. Achieve universal tertiary education.
B. Reduce child mortality.
C. Eradicate extreme poverty and hunger.
D. Ensure environmental sustainability.
E. Promote gender equality and empower women.

85. The components (elements) of primary health care as
envisaged in Alma Ata declaration include all of the following
EXCEPT:
A. Providing essential drugs
B. Prevention and control of locally endemic diseases
C. Adequate supply of safe water basic sanitation
D. Sound referral system
E. Maternal and child health, and Family planning

86. The mental illness most diagnosed in children aged 2 years
is...
A. Schizophrenia.
B. Autism.
C. Anxiety-depression.
D. Evolutional melancholia.
E. Agitated depression.

87. Choose the incorrect statement regarding research ethics:
A. It's generally agreed that subjects may not be paid
under any circumstances
B. A widely accepted provision in human research is
that the use of placebos is unethical when effective
treatments are already available.
C. For a clinical trial to be morally permissible,
subjects must give their informed voluntary consent
D. It is generally understood that consent to do research
on children is required

88. The three guiding principles of ethical research involving
humans are:
A. Empathy, caution and truthfulness
B. Respect for persons, beneficence and Justice
C. Respect for human dignity, compensation and
Integrity
D. Beneficence, legal recourse and reimbursement
E. Legal recourse, justice and compensation

89. A child is exclusively led on cow's milk, the deficiency seen
in:
A. Iron
B. Riboflavin
C. Vitamin A
D. Thiamine
E. Zinc.

90. The most popular method of dietary assessment is:
A. From patient file.
B. Food frequency questionnaire.
C. 3- day food dairy.
D. 24 hours recall method.
E. Direct observation method.

91. Which of the following statements concerning iron
requirements is correct?
A. Not affected by menopause
B. Same in men and women
C. Increase during pregnancy
D. Satisfied by adequate intake of cow's milk
E. More important in rural populations

92. The element believed to have the greatest influence in
inhibiting the formation of free radicals that cause cancer is
A. Iron.
B. Selenium
C. Copper.
D. Zinc.
E. Mercury.

93. In relation to infant and young child feeding practices:
A. Colostrum is richer in fat, lactose and energy
compared to mature milk.
B. Breast milk volume is readily affected by mother's
daily food intake compared to its composition.
C. In predominant breastfeeding, an infant may receive
water and fruit juices but not infant formula
D. Complementary food is better to be introduced as
late as the infant aged 12 months
E. The mineral concentration is greater in breast milk
compared to other types of milk.

94. Which item in our usual diet is the best source of iron?
A. Dates
B. Whole wheat bread
C. Egg yolk
D. Raisins
E. Milk

THE ARAB BOARD OF HEALTH SPECIALIZATIONS THE FIRST PART EXAMINATION 20 / OCTOBER 2019

PAGE 96 OF 107
95. Gestational Diabetes is associated with the followings
EXCEPT:
A. Usually appear between 24th - 28th weeks of
gestation
B. The most common medical complication of
pregnancy
C. It can develop later to type II diabetes
D. Underweight women are more likely to develop it
compared to overweight women
E. Infant macrosomia

96. High parity is a protective factor against
A. Breast cancer
B. Hypertensive disorders of pregnancy.
C. Cervical cancer.
D. Neonatal mortality.
E. Gestational diabetes mellitus.

97. Death of fetus weighing less than 500 gr is considered as
A. Stillbirth
B. Perinatal death
C. Spontaneous abortion
D. Neonatal death
E. Infant mortality

98. Number of live births per 1000 women in the reproductive age
group in a given year is:
A. Birth rate
B. General marital fertility rate
C. Fecundity rate
D. General fertility rate
E. Fertility replacement rate.

99. Which of the following is a leading potential cause of death
for a child aged 5 years or more with no known congenital
malformations?
A. Lead toxicity
B. Accidents
C. Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS)
D. Pneumonia
E. Anemia

100. Factors associated with high risk of drug abuse include all the
followings EXCEPT:
A. Un-employment.
B. Migration to cities.
C. Early exposure to drugs.
D. Nuclear family.
E. One parent families

************************
GOOD LUCK

THE ARAB BOARD OF HEALTH SPECIALIZATIONS THE FIRST PART EXAMINATION 20 / OCTOBER 2019

PAGE 97 OF 107
Long Questions October 2019

❖ SECTION ONE:

▪ Option A: about cholera control and prevention?

▪ Option B:
▪ Tuberculosis is re-emerging as a public health problem in several parts of the world.
1. What are the social and biological risk factors contributing to this re-emergence?
2. Discuss the importance of BCG vaccination as a tool for TB prevention?
3. What other TB prevention and control measures are currently recommended?
4. When is a TB re-emergence considered an international health threat?

❖ SECTION TWO:
▪ Option A:
▪ The cement industry poses a challenge in occupational health in some Arab countries.
1. What are main occupational diseases related to this industry?
2. Mention preventive measures of these diseases.
3. What is the environmental impact of cement industry?

▪ Option B:
1. What challenges confront the public health system, communities and individuals in conflict settings?
2. How and by whom the health needs of conflict-affected populations can be met?

❖ SECTION THREE:
▪ Option A:
▪ You are appointed by your Ministry of Health to put a National Reproductive Plan to achieve the goal of
reducing maternal mortality by three quarters within 5 years, as mentioned by Sustainable Development
Goals (SDGs).
1. Define the maternal mortality ratio.
2. What are the most frequent causes of maternal mortality? List by order of magnitude.
3. Ante-natal care is an effective strategy to reduce maternal mortality. List the specific components
included in your antenatal care strategy
4. What other strategies would you suggest reaching the target set by the Ministry?

▪ Option B:
▪ If you are involved as a health care manager in a conflict setting;
What strategies, you will support/work on together with the public health system partners to maximize
health care provision to the needy

PRIMARY COMMUNITY EXAMINATION. PAPER ONE. 18/ JANUARY 2021
Dr.AbdulQawi Almohamadi
Page 98 of 107
MCQs January 2021

1. In a study on aggressive primary school children the table
appears

A. The type of the study was Case-control study
B. The subject was to demonstrate the risk factor for
aggression among children
C. The applied test was OR.
D. The proper test in this case is chi square test or one
of its modalities
E. This is a correlation study

2. A case of Acute Flaccid Paralysis should be kept under
surveillance for residual paralysis for?
A. 15 days
B. 30 days
C. 45 days
D. 60 days
E. 90 days

3. Regarding the epidemic curve of outbreak investigation, all of
the following statements are incorrect EXCEPT:
A. It provides demographic information of the cases.
B. It is a line graph of number of cases by their
geographical locate on
C. The probable time period of exposure cannot be
estimated
D. It is impossible to construct an epidemic curve if
only the number of cases by their date/time of onset
is known.
E. It gives clues on whether it is a "common source
outbreak" or a "propagated outbreak".

4. Findings of the FNAB of Breast cancer are presented in the
table below: which of the following interpretation of the
findings is true.

A. High specificity might reflect experience of the
team of screening.
B. The high specificity is mostly due to selection of
proper patients.
C. Core biopsy was introduced and recently, wide bore
vacuum biopsy. Unfortunately, in Arab research still
is digging in FNAB.
D. Early detection clinics are the same as screening.
E. The table is not reflecting the accuracy of the test.

5. Which of the following is not a method of controlling the
effects of confounding in epidemiological study?
A. Matching
B. Stratifications
C. Randomization
D. Blinding.
E. Hawthorne effects

6. In study of intrauterine growth retardation (IUGR)
A. The prospective cohort study could be used
B. Sample to be selected from hospitals only
C. It is impossible to select cases from primary health
care centers
D. Antenatal care cannot be used to screen IUGR
E. Cross-Sectional study is a tool to determine
prevalence of IUGR

7. All of the following should be considered when assessing
causality EXCEPT:
A. Alternative explanation.
B. Biologic plausibility.
C. Dose-response relationship.
D. Consistency of findings.
E. Method of transmission .

8. In the definition of epidemiology, the terms "distribution" and
"determinants" taken together refer to:
A. Frequency, pattern, and causes of health events
B. Dissemination of information to those who need to
know
C. Study design and settings of health events
D. Knowledge, attitudes, and practices related to health
E. Public health services and resources.

Favoriets
game type
Puzzle/ educational games
War/combat/action games
Violence
(aggression)
Low score
N (%)
200 (99%)
106 (53.5%)
High score
N (%)
2 (1%)
92 (46.5%)
p
value
<
0.001
FNAB
Histological
Examination
Positive
Negative
Total
Positive
89
13
102
Negative
0
102
102
Total
89
115
204

PRIMARY COMMUNITY EXAMINATION. PAPER ONE. 18/ JANUARY 2021
Dr.AbdulQawi Almohamadi
Page 99 of 107
9. Analysis of patient flow at the primary health care clinics to
determine waiting times for patients represents which of the
following core functions of epidemiology:
A. Public health surveillance
B. Field investigation
C. Analytic studies
D. Evaluation
E. Policy development

10. Comparing persons with symptomatic versus asymptomatic
Chlamydia infection to identify predictors is an example of
A. Field investigation
B. Analytic epidemiology
C. Descriptive epidemiology
D. Policy development
E. Application

11. A foodborne outbreak of salmonella has twice occurs in the
same hospital, the primary concern of the infection control
specialist of the hospital, when visiting the kitchen, is to
A. Identify whether resources for providing food
services from outside the hospital are needed.
B. Promote the health of clients affected by the
previous outbreak.
C. Educate the kitchen workers about safe food
preparation.
D. Ensure that all workers know about various
microorganisms which may infect food preparation.
E. Vaccinate workers against salmonella infection.

12. Which of the following mortality indicators CANNOT be
used to compare between different communities or
population?
A. Crude death rates
B. Infant mortality rates
C. Maternal mortality ratio
D. Child mortality rate
E. Life expectancy

13. The most essential component of an effective infection
surveillance system is:
A. The capability to monitor everything
B. Collection of meaningful data
C. Outbreak detection
D. Complying with accreditation agencies
E. Interpretation and dissemination of data

14. The reliability of a screening test refers to
A. The ability of the test to distinguish people who are
truly diseased and people who are not truly diseased
B. The degree to which the test on the same person will
give the same result when the test is repeated
C. The positive predictive value of the test
D. The capacity of the test to really measure what it
targets to measure
E. A test without bias
15. Which of the following is a primary goal for undertaking
foodborne disease outbreak investigations?
A. To study the natural history of the causative agent.
B. To train staff
C. To stop the current outbreak by implementing
effective control measures
D. To respond to public concerns
E. To describe the outbreak

16. Which of the followings is true about herd immunity?
A. It can only be obtained through massive
immunization campaigns.
B. It's naturally limits the spread of many infectious
diseases
C. It is naturally transmitted from one generation to the
other
D. It is always very low in Islands
E. It exists during pandemics

17. The strength of an association between risk factor and a
disease is measured by
A. Prevalence rate of risk factor
B. Attributable rate
C. Population attributes rate
D. Relative risk
E. An incidence rate of the disease in the total
population

18. Increase in the incidence rate of a disease will:
A. Increase the case-fatality.
B. Increase the prevalence.
C. Increase the survival rate.
D. Increase the
E. Not change the prevalence rate.

19. The incidence of a disease is five times greater in woman than
in men, but the prevalence rate shows no sex difference. The
best explanation is that...
A. The crude mortality rate is greater in women
B. The case-fatality rate for this disease is greater for
women
C. Treatments exist only for men
D. The duration of this disease is shorter in men
E. Risk factors for developing disease are more
common

20. People who smoke 40 cigarettes per day are at a higher risk of
developing lung cancer than those who smoke 5 cigarettes per
day. This describes which of the causality criteria
A. Temporality
B. Dose-response relationship
C. Coherence
D. Biological plausibility
E. Specificity

PRIMARY COMMUNITY EXAMINATION. PAPER ONE. 18/ JANUARY 2021
Dr.AbdulQawi Almohamadi
Page 100 of 107
21. Which one of the following is a good index of the severity of
an acute disease?
A. Cause specific death rate
B. Case fatality rate
C. Standardized mortality ratio
D. Five year survival
E. Crude mortality rate

22. All are true about randomized control trial EXCEPT?
A. Baseline characteristics of intervention and control
groups should be similar
B. Investigator bias can be minimized by double
blinding
C. Randomization implemented to control confounders
D. The sample size depends on the hypothesis tested
E. Dropout must be excluded from the analysis

23. A study began in 1990 with a group of 5000 adults. who were
asked about their alcohol consumption, the occurrence of
cancer was studied, in this group between 2010 – 2015? This
is an example of:
A. Cross-sectional study.
B. Retrospective cohort study
C. Prospective cohort study
D. Case -control study
E. Non-randomized Clinical Trial

24. The aim of experimental studies is to:
A. Generate etiological hypothesis.
B. Describe health problems in relation to
epidemiological parameters.
C. Test of etiological hypothesis.
D. Identify the role of environmental factors in
occurrence of disease.
E. Confirm etiological hypothesis.

Questions (25-27:
A screening test is applied to 600 asymptomatic persons, the test
results are positive in 200 cases. Of these, 100 persons are
discovered on clinical examination to have the disease, but 50
individuals who have negative test results are also proved to have
the disease on clinical grounds.

25. The sensitivity of the test is
A. 25%
B. 33%
C. 50%
D. 67%
E. 78%

26. The positive predictive value of the test is
A. 25%
B. 33%
C. 50%
D. 67 %
E. 78%

27. The clinical prevalence of the disease is
A. 25%
B. 33%
C. 50%
D. 67%
E. 78%

28. Regarding HIV infection, all below statements are true
EXCEPT:
A. From 15-20% of infants born to HIV positive
mothers get infected.
B. Infection rates are usually lower in rural areas.
C. Post exposure prophylaxis preferable after 48 hours
D. Male circumcision association with lower risk for
infection with HIV.
E. Infection with other sexually transmitted diseases
increases the risk of infection with HIV.

29. "Five clean practice" under strategies for elimination of
neonatal tetanus include all EXCEPT:
A. Clear surface for delivery
B. Clean hand of the attendant
C. New blade for cutting the cord
D. Clean air way
E. Clean cord care

30. These communicable diseases should be notified immediately:
A. Poliomyelitis, Leprosy, Measles, Tuberculosis.
B. Poliomyelitis, AIDS, Measles, Tuberculosis.
C. Poliomyelitis, AIDS, Measles, Diphtheria.
D. Poliomyelitis, Brucellosis, AIDS, Diphtheria.
E. Brucellosis, AIDS, Tuberculosis, Diphtheria.

PRIMARY COMMUNITY EXAMINATION. PAPER ONE. 18/ JANUARY 2021
Dr.AbdulQawi Almohamadi
Page 101 of 107
31. Which one of the following statements about the
immunization schedule is CORRECT?
A. If a child misses an immunization the course should
be restarted
B. BCG is a killed vaccine
C. Immunization should not be given to children
younger than indicated in the schedule
D. Immunizations should be given on time even if the
child has a fever
E. Fever, swelling at the injection site and irritability
are signs of anaphylaxis and the child should not be
given the vaccine again .

32. Which one of the following statements about the MMR
vaccine is correct?
A. It protects against measles, meningococcus and
rubella
B. It is a live attenuated vaccine
C. Autism and inflammatory bowel disease are rare but
serious side effects
D. The MMR booster is given at high school
E. The vaccine is grown on sheep embryo tissue

33. Maintaining the cold chain ensures that vaccines are stored
according to the manufacturer's instructions at:
A. +4 C⁰
B. -1 - +5 C⁰
C. +2 - +l0 C⁰
D. +4 - +8 C⁰
E. +2 - +8 C⁰

34. Direct transmission includes which of the following modes of
transmission?
A. Droplet spread
B. Vehicle-borne transmission
C. Vector-borne transmission
D. Food borne transmission
E. Air borne transmission.

35. Which of the following is NOT TRUE of Measles?
A. High secondary attack rate
B. Only one strain causes infection
C. Not infectious in prodromal stage
D. Infection confers lifelong immunity
E. Period of Communicability is 4 days before and 5
days after the appearance of rash

36. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about influenza virus?
A. Influenza virus A is subject to frequent antigenic
B. Antigenic drift is a gradual antigenic change over a
period of time
C. Antigenic shift is due to genetic recombination of
virus
D. Pandemics are due to antigenic drift
E. Has a lot of animal reservoir

37. Which infectious disease is NOT associated with newborn
diseases?
A. Toxoplasmosis
B. Rubella
C. Tuberculosis
D. Cytomegalovirus
E. Herpes Simplex Virus ( HSV)

38. The following diseases are transmitted by anthropode vectors
EXCEPT?
A. Malaria.
B. Leishmaniasis.
C. Yellow fever .
D. Onchocerciasis.
E. Typhoid.

39. How do you classify a man whose height is 180 cm and
weight 93 kg?
A. Normal weight
B. Overweight
C. Obese
D. Morbidly obese
E. Cannot be calculated just with height and weight

40. Which of the following patients is at highest risk for
developing colon cancer?
A. A 50-year-old male with a long history of a diet
high in animal fat.
B. A 45-year-old female with irritable bowel
syndrome.
C. A 30-year-old with a history of familial polyposis.
D. A 35-year-old male diagnosed with ulcerative colitis
at age 25.
E. A 45-year-old obese female with a diet low in fiber.

41. To reduce the risk of cardiovascular diseases, the WHO
recommends that an average adult should exercise
A. Fifteen minutes of vigorous activity at least three
times a week.
B. One hour of moderate intensity per day
C. Thirty minutes of moderate intensity at least 5 days
a week
D. One very long exercise session at least once a week
E. No exercise is necessary unless one is overweight.

42. Following dietary changes are advised to reduce prevalence of
coronary heart disease EXCEPT:
A. Increased complex carbohydrate intake
B. Saturated fat intake less than 10 % of total energy
intake
C. Salt intake less than 20 g/ day
D. Reduce fat intake to 20-30 % of total energy intake
E. A voidance of alcohol consumption

PRIMARY COMMUNITY EXAMINATION. PAPER ONE. 18/ JANUARY 2021
Dr.AbdulQawi Almohamadi
Page 102 of 107
43. Which one of the following statements about influence of
smoking on risk of coronary heart disease (CHD) is NOT
true?
A. Risk of death from CHD decreases from cessation
of smoking
B. Filters provide a protective effect for CHD
C. Influence of smoking is synergistic to other risk
factors for CHD
D. Influence of smoking is directly related to number
of cigarettes smoked per day
E. Up to 25% of CHD deaths under 65 years age are
attributed to smoking

44. Which is NOT a predisposing factor for carcinoma cervix?
A. Late marriage
B. Early coitus
C. Early child bearing
D. Repeated childbirths
E. Having multiple sexual partners

45. The STEP wise approach to surveillance (STEPS) is used for
A. Communicable diseases
B. Non-communicable diseases
C. Immunodeficient diseases
D. Auto-immune diseases
E. Newly emerging diseases

46. Diabetes mellitus is best diagnosed by:
A. Fasting blood sugar (FBS) > 100 mg/dl and
Postprandial blood sugar (PPBS) > 140
B. FBS >125 mg/dl and PPBS >199 mg/dl
C. HbAlc = 5.5%
D. FBS > 70 mg/dl
E. HbAlc = 9.0 %

47. The relationship of body weight (in KG) and systolic blood
pressure was observed in 10000 persons. The correlation
coefficient (r) was found to be + 0.8, thus we conclude that:
A. There is no relationship between the two variables.
B. There is a weak relationship between the two
variables
C. There is a strong negative relationship between the
two variables
D. There is a strong positive relationship between the
two variable
E. None of the above

48. If the systolic blood pressure in a population has a mean of
130 mmHg and a median of 150 mm Hg, the distribution is
said to be?
A. Symmetrical
B. Positively skewed
C. Negatively skewed
D. Either positively or negatively skewed depending on
the Standard deviation
E. Bell-shaped distribution

49. The ECG plotting is:
A. A bar chart.
B. A pie chart.
C. A frequency polygon .
D. A frequency distribution
E. A line Chart

50. People who are available, volunteer, or can be easily recruited
are used in the sampling method called
A. Simple random sampling
B. Cluster sampling
C. Systematic sampling
D. Convenience sampling
E. Multistage random sampling.

51. A stem-and-leaf display describes two-digit integers between
20 and 80. For one of the classes displayed, the row appears
as 5 | 246. What numerical values are being described?
A. 25, 45, and 65
B. 60, 50, 40, and 20
C. 52, 54, and 56
D. 46 and 52
E. None of the above

52. ...........are used when you want to visually examine the
relationship between two quantitative variables.
A. Bar graphs
B. Pie graphs
C. Line graphs
D. Scatter plots
E. Histogram

53. Known that the Sample mean is 23, the standard deviation is
0.5, the sample size is 100 and the distribution is normal:
what is the 95% confidence interval of the mean?
A. [21-25]
B. [22.1-23.9]
C. [21-24]
D. [22.5-23.5]
E. [22.9-23.1]

54. The probability of making an error when accepting a
hypothesis
A. Alpha or type I error
B. Beta or type II error
C. Power
D. P-value
E. Confidence

55. Which statistical test should be used to measure whether the
difference in means of blood pressure among students before
and after football training is significant?
A. Paired t-test
B. Correlation's coefficient
C. Ch. square
D. AVOVA test
E. Independent

PRIMARY COMMUNITY EXAMINATION. PAPER ONE. 18/ JANUARY 2021
Dr.AbdulQawi Almohamadi
Page 103 of 107
56. As part of a quality control study. the hemoglobin A1c values
of diabetic patients at two clinics are compared . In a study of
4,000 patients, it is found that the mean hemoglobin A1c
value in group 1 is 7.4% and the mean hemoglobin A1c value
in group 2 is 7.6%. The significance level of this study was set
at 0.05. The authors did the correct statistical test and found a
P value of 0.04 for this comparison. Based on this information
, you conclude:
A. Group 1 is significantly different from group 2:
Reject the null hypothesis.
B. Group 1 is not significantly different from group 2:
Don't reject the null hypothesis.
C. Group 1 is not significantly different from group 2:
Reject the null hypothesis.
D. Group 1 is significantly different from group 2:
Don't reject the null hypothesis.
E. No conclusion can be done based on the reported
findings

57. In a cohort study of the relationship between calcium dietary
supplementation and the occurrence of hip fractures, the
relative risk of hip fractures with supplementation was 0.5
with a 95% Cl of 0.18 - 1.41. The correct interpretation of this
finding is that...
A. Significant association exists between calcium
supplementation and lower risk of hip fracture.
B. The association between calcium supplementation
and risk of hip fractures should not have been
measured with the relative risk.
C. The association between lower risk of hip fractures
and calcium supplementation is not statistically
significant.
D. One can conclude with 95% confidence that calcium
supplement protects against hip fractures.
E. Chi-square test should be performed to assess the
statistical significance of the association.

58. Research published in a well-respected medical journal looked
at screening for lung cancer using a new method. The
researchers reported that patients who were screened and had
lung cancer detected lived longer after diagnosis than people
who were not screened. Which is true?
A. This shows that screening is effective in prolonging
survival.
B. This may be an example of lead-time bias.
C. This may be an example of length-time bias.
D. This may be an example of verification bias.
E. Well-respected medical journals are always right

59. In a field trial to measure the protective effect of a new
influenza vaccine, 200 children were randomly allocated to
receive the vaccine and 400 children were allocated in the
placebo group. Twenty children of the vaccine group
developed influenza compared to 80 of the placebo group.
Based on the results, it appears that the risk for influenza in
the placebo group compared to the experimental group is

A. Actually lower
B. Equal
C. Two times higher
D. Three times higher
E. Cannot be calculated with the available data

60. A factor which is associated both with exposure & outcome of
interest & potentially change the result is:
A. Dependent variable.
B. Confounding variable.
C. Criterion variable.
D. Random variable.
E. None of the above.

61. Random allocation is statistical procedure used to:
A. Select the reference population
B. Ensure comparability by matching
C. Select experimental population from reference
population
D. Offer every participant an equal chance for
allocation in either group
E. Eliminate assessment bias

62. The following are among the enabling factors for behavior
change in health promotion, EXCEPT:
A. Skills
B. Attitude
C. Availability
D. Accessibility
E. Laws

63. Guidelines for effective patient education and counseling
include all the following EXCEPT:
A. Obtaining commitment from patient to change
behavior
B. Involving office staff
C. Involving patient in selection or risk factors that
require change
D. Using a single strategy
E. Monitoring progresses through follow-up contact

64. Which of the following factors is most effective in increasing
patient's compliance?
A. The absence of a psychiatric disorder
B. Long-term treatment
C. Behavioral change required
D. Medicines with fewer side effects
E. Treatment with lower cost
Results
Vaccinated

Placebo
Total
Disease
20
80
100
Healthy
180
320
500
Total
200
400
600

PRIMARY COMMUNITY EXAMINATION. PAPER ONE. 18/ JANUARY 2021
Dr.AbdulQawi Almohamadi
Page 104 of 107
65. Following is an example of a person's handicap.
A. Accidental injury to right upper limb.
B. Inability to write due to the injury
C. Inability to left objects due to the injury
D. Permanent deformity caused by the injury
E. Inability to find a job because of disability

66. The best method of promoting healthy life style in children
A. Primordial prevention
B. Specific protection
C. Secondary prevention
D. High risk strategy
E. Health education

67. A 22 year of male client wants to start an exercise program,
but he says he doesn't have the time or money to attend a
fitness club. The nurse recognizes the behavior-specific
cognitions and affect variable of
A. Perceived self-efficacy
B. Perceived barriers to action
C. Interpersonal influences
D. Situational influences
E. Perceived benefit of the action

68. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
A. People from poorer backgrounds have better health
outcomes.
B. Women who owned a care are less likely to have
had a mammography than those who don't own one
C. Women often find mammography screening painful
D. Women from ethnic minorities are more likely to
participate in cervical cancer screening.
E. Up take of mammography is higher among women
from lower socio-economic backgrounds.

69. All the following are true about pre-placement examination as
measure in occupational health EXCEPT:
A. For future comparison of worker health.
B. To detect workers with diseases like HIV/AIDS.
C. As a routine purpose.
D. For placing workers to suitable work.
E. To satisfy the requirement of a higher authority.

70. The safe limit of chlorine in drinking water is:
A. 0.2 - 0.5 mg/dl
B. 0.5 - 0.8 mg/dl
C. 0.8 - 1.1 mg/dl
D. -1.5 mg/dl
E. 1.5 - 2.1 mg/dl

71. Drinking water should be
A. Excessive soft water
B. Soft water
C. Hard water
D. Moderate hard water
E. Very hard water

72. Which of the following is not true about break-point of
chlorination?
A. Free chlorine is released in water after break-point
B. The point at which demand of water is met is called
the break-point chlorination
C. 1 ppm free chlorine should be present in water after
break-point has reached
D. Break-point is reached when all combined chlorine
have been destroyed
E. A contact period of at least one hour of free chlorine
after break-point is required

73. Most effective rodent control measure is;
A. Environmental sanitation
B. Trapping
C. Rodenticides
D. Fumigation
E. Chemosterilants

74. An occupational worker presented with complaints of
exertional dyspnoea. He gave history of being in an industry
dealing with spare parts such as gas kit and brakes, he also
gave history of smoking for about five years. His X-ray chest
showed a ground glass appearance / honey combing in the
lower two thirds of the lung fields. The likely condition that
he suffers from is:
A. Silicosis
B. Anthracnosis
C. Asbestosis
D. Siderosis
E. Aspergillosis

75. An industrial worker reported to you with complaints of
cough, history of dyspnoea on exertion and pain in the chest,
his x-ray chest showed snow storm appearance. The diagnosis
would be
A. Asbestosis
B. Siderosis
C. Silicosis
D. Aspergillosis
E. Bagassosis

76. A person aged 40 years, working as a laborer in grain market
for the last 25 years presented with a history of repeated
attacks of respiratory infections in the last 1 year. X-ray
showed pulmonary fibrosis. The likely diagnosis was:
A. Tuberculosis
B. Silicosis
C. Silicotuberculosis
D. Farmer's lung
E. Byssinosis.

77. A worker who had been in the battery manufacturing unit for
the last 20 years, reported to you with complaints of loss of
appetite and abdominal colic of 2 weeks duration. You will
prefer to investigate him for:
A. Cholecystitis
B. Lead poisoning
C. Appendicitis
D. Ameobiasis
E. Ca stomach

PRIMARY COMMUNITY EXAMINATION. PAPER ONE. 18/ JANUARY 2021
Dr.AbdulQawi Almohamadi
Page 105 of 107
78. In a lead pipe factory, you want to carry out a screening
program in workers to exclude lead poisoning. Your choice of
the most useful screening test will be measurement of:
A. Lead in blood
B. Lead in urine
C. Coproporphyrin in urine
D. Aminolaevulinic acid in urine
E. Basophilic stippling of RBCs

79. In an automobile manufacturing plant of Pakistan, a large
number of employees are working in different sections.
Persons who work in the section of welding the parts together
have started reporting sick with redness of eyes. On
examination conjunctivitis and keratitis are found. What could
be the cause of this problem?
A. Poor Personal Hygiene
B. Heat
C. Overwork
D. Ultraviolet radiations
E. Ionizing radiation

80. Your opinion is sought as a Public Health Specialist by the
employers of a glass factory in which workers have developed
Silicosis. The most important control measure that you
recommend is some
A. Pre-placement examination
B. Adequate person al hygiene
C. Substitution
D. Periodic X- ray chest
E. Rigorous dust control

81. Electromagnetic radiations generated by high voltage
electrical power lines have been incriminated in causing ...
A. Lymphoma
B. Childhood leukemia
C. Breast cancer.
D. Diarrhea.
E. Emphysema.

82. Paternalism among doctors is not an ethical attitude because it
conflicts with
A. Patient's medical care
B. Doctor's tasks and duties
C. Patient's autonomy
D. Doctor's autonomy
E. Patient's family rights

83. The concept of justice in ethics is:
A. An obligation of the patient to the society.
B. That the health resources must be distribute
according to the principals of equity.
C. Taken as patients right to choose or refuse
treatment.
D. For all medical professionals to do good for all
patients under circumstances
E. The obligation to do no harm to the patients

84. You are a male doctor and a female patient comes to your
clinic wearing revealing clothes. She comes up very close to
the doctor and starts asking personal questions in a seductive
tone. What would be the appropriate response?
A. Refuse to examine her.
B. Call in a nurse
C. Use open ended questioning technique
D. Ask about her personal life
E. Refer her to another doctor

85. Criteria for substance dependence include all the followings
EXCEPT:
A. Tolerance
B. Withdrawal
C. Social isolation
D. Neglect Occupational duties
E. Carry active recreational activities

86. All the followings are examples of mental defense mechanism
EXCEPT:
A. Rationalization
B. Regression
C. Repression
D. Projection
E. Lying

87. The following measures contribute for the prevention of
maternal mortality EXCEPT:
A. Better living condition sanitary environment.
B. Encourage early or teenage marriage and
pregnancies.
C. Encourage enough educational level for girls and
women.
D. Development of asepsis and sterilization.
E. Promotion of good nutrition in childhood and
supplementation during pregnancy.

88. A good indicator of population socio-economic status of a
country is:
A. Maternal Mortality Rate
B. Hospital Bed Occupancy Rate
C. Infant Mortality Rate
D. Disability Adjusted Life Years (DALYS).
E. Crude Death Rate

89. For individuals suffering from dementia, they should be
advised to:
A. Increase their daily intake of sodium
B. Increase their daily intake of potassium
C. Increase their daily intake of calcium
D. Increase their daily intake of magnesium
E. Increase their daily intake of iron

90. The recommended windows area for a good ventilation in a
healthy class room is more than:
A. 05% of floor area
B. 10% of floor area
C. 20% of floor area
D. 40% of floor area
E. 60% of floor area

PRIMARY COMMUNITY EXAMINATION. PAPER ONE. 18/ JANUARY 2021
Dr.AbdulQawi Almohamadi
Page 106 of 107
91. A 65 years old male patient had been treated for malignant
hypertension for some years. While seriously ill with
congestive heart failure, he developed acute appendicitis.
Appendectomy was carried out successfully, but the heart
condition deteriorated further and he died 2 weeks later. The
under lying cause of death was:
A. Malignant hypertension
B. Congestive heart failure
C. Cardiac hypertrophy
D. Acute appendicitis
E. Appendectomy

92. The Ministry of health estimates the costs of starting a
massive vaccination campaign against HPV for all girls aged
11-13 years. The cost is compared to the expected
expenditures on incident cases of cervical cancer cases
diagnosed in the same given year. This type of analysis is
known as a
A. Cost-benefit analysis
B. Operational evaluation
C. Cost-effectiveness analysis
D. Cost documentation
E. Productivity analysis

93. The followings are general principles for developing district
health system, EXCEPT:
A. Affordability
B. Sustainability
C. Centralization
D. Accessibility
E. Acceptability

94. The process of day- to day follow - up activities to ensure that
health program are proceeding as planned is...
A. Evaluation.
B. Surveillance.
C. Monitoring
D. Implementation.
E. Prioritization.

95. The current recommendation for breast feeding is that
A. Exclusive breast -feeding should be continued till 6
months of age followed by supplementation with
additional foods
B. Exclusive breast-feeding should be continued till 4
months of age followed by supplementation with
additional foods
C. Colostrum is the most suitable food for a new born
baby but it is best avoided in first 2 days
D. The baby should be allowed to breastfeed till one
year of age
E. Exclusive breast-feeding should be continued till 2
years of age

96. A 65 years old male patient had been treated for malignant
hypertension for some years. While seriously ill with
congestive heart failure, he developed acute appendicitis.
Appendectomy was carried out successfully, but the heart
condition deteriorated further and he died 2 weeks later. The
under lying cause of death was:
A. Malignant hypertension
B. Congestive heart failure
C. Cardiac hypertrophy
D. Acute appendicitis
E. Appendectomy

97. The Ministry of health estimates the costs of starting a
massive vaccination campaign against HPV for all girls aged
11-13 years. The cost is compared to the expected
expenditures on incident cases of cervical cancer cases
diagnosed in the same given year. This type of analysis is
known as a ....
A. Cost-Benefit Analysis
B. Operational Evaluation
C. Cost-Effectiveness Analysis
D. Cost Documentation
E. Productivity Analysis

98. The followings are general principles for developing district
health system, EXCEPT:
A. Affordability
B. Sustainability
C. Centralization
D. Accessibility
E. Acceptability

99. The process of day-to day follow-up activities to ensure that
health program is proceeding as planned is
A. Evaluation.
B. Surveillance.
C. Monitoring
D. Implementation.
E. Prioritization.

100. The current recommendation for breast feeding is that:
A. Exclusive breast-feeding should be continued till 6
months of age followed by supplementation with
additional foods.
B. Exclusive breast-feeding should be continued till 4
months of age followed by supplementation with
additional foods.
C. Colostrum is the most suitable food for a new born
baby but it is best avoided in first 2 days.
D. The baby should be allowed to breastfeed till one
year of age.
E. Exclusive breast-feeding should be continued till 2
years of age.

************************
GOOD LUCK

PRIMARY COMMUNITY EXAMINATION. PAPER ONE. 18/ JANUARY 2021
Dr.AbdulQawi Almohamadi
Page 107 of 107
Long Questions January 2021

Section A :
COVID 19:
o Characteristics in COVID-19 making it
a pandemic.
o Characteristic in epidemic to say it
became a pandemic.
o known MOT.
o Prevention.
Polio :
o causative organism
o MOT
o Eradication
o Countries preparedness
o How can we Re-use infrastructure after polio
is eradicated
Section B :
Refugee and displaced :
o Problems during acute phase
o Problems during Chronic phase
o How host country protect it’s self
Breast Cancer :
o Risk factor
o prevention
o Screening
Section C :
CHILD HEALEH :
o components IMCI
o Different Age groups, Different Health
problems
ADOLESCENT HEALTH :
o HE
o Do we need Special Clinic??why??
o challenges

Answers Exam January 2021

1D 2D 3E 4C 5E 6A 7E 8A 9D 10B 11C 12A 13B 14B 15C 16B 17D 18B 19B 20B
21B 22E 23C 24E 25D 26C 27A 28C 29D 30A 31D 32B 33E 34A 35C 36D 37C 38E 39B 40C
41C 42C 43B 44A 45B 46B 47D 48C 49E 50D 51C 52D 53E 54C 55A 56A 57E 58B 59C 60B
61D 62E 63D 64C 65E 66A 67B 68C 69E 70A 71D 72C 73A 74C 75C 76D 77B 78C 79D 80E
81B 82C 83B 84B 85E 86E 87B 88C 89D 90C 91A 92A 93C 94C 95A 96A 97A 98C 99C 100A

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