Associate Safety Professional (ASP) exam prep

Preparing for the BCSP ASP exam ? Check out this book, you will have series of questions that will help you prepare for your exam.

1. ASP 10
Associate Safety
Professional
Questions and Answers
Fred MPAMA, MBA, CSP, ASP

2. PREFACE

These questions and answers were put
together to give test takers an idea only of
different subjects or questions they might
encounter during the test.

There is no guarantee that any of these
questions will be found on the actual exam.

Use this as a reference ONLY.

3. About the Author

Fred MPAMA, MBA, CSP, ASP

Fred has worked for companies such as General Electric,
Baker Hughes, Goodman Manufacturing, Pacific Gas and
Electric, Fluor corporations, Southern Company, the
National Civil Aviation Agency and many other.
He has held Managerial positions for various projects
and has a broad experience in different industries such as:
construction, manufacturing, oil and gas, transmission and
distribution, wind and more.
He has an MBA from Capella University, a BA in Natural
sciences from Thomas Edison State University and an AS in
Environmental Engineering. He has over 40 safety
certificates such as: CSP, ASP, CTSP, STS, CSST, is a black
belt in Lean Six Sigma and is an authorized OSHA and First
Aid/CPR instructor.

4. COPY RIGHTS
This “questions and answers” - book contains information
obtained from authentic and highly regarded sources.
Reasonable efforts have been made to publish reliable data
and information, but the author cannot assume responsibility
for the validity of all materials or the consequences of their
use.
The author has attempted to trace the copyright holders of all
material reproduced in this publication and apologize to
copyright holders if permission to publish in this form has not
been obtained.
If any copyright material has not been acknowledged please
write and let us know so we may rectify in any future reprint.




Contacts:
Email: [email protected]
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5. HOW TO USE THIS
DOCUMENT?
Each question is specific and
does not necessarily offer all
details, make sure you search
the terms that are unfamiliar
to you in other to have a
better understanding.

6. Questions and Answers:

1. An LP truck gets in an accident and there was a fire. What should the Emergency Medical Responders
possibly prepare for?
• BLEVE (Boiling Liquid Expanding Vapor Explosion)

A boiling liquid expanding vapor explosion is an explosion caused by the rupture of a vessel containing
a pressurized liquid that has reached temperatures above its boiling point
[1]

[2]
Because the boiling point of a liquid
rises with pressure, the contents of the pressurized vessel can remain liquid so long as the vessel is intact.

2. What are the effects of Mercury Poisoning on the body?
• Nervous System (Impacts cognitive thinking, memory, attention, language, and motor skills)

The inhalation of mercury vapor can produce harmful effects on the nervous, digestive, and immune systems,
lungs and kidneys, and may be fatal. The inorganic salts of mercury are corrosive to the skin, eyes and
gastrointestinal tract, and may induce kidney toxicity if ingested.

3. The three ways to protect your employees in the event of a fire would be:
• Train employees on Fire Evacuation
• Evacuate the hazardous area,
• contain the fire

4. How can chemicals cause dermatitis?
• Remove the skin oils and moisture from the out layer of the skin. (First sign of dermatitis is irritation.)

Dermatitis is a general term that describes a skin irritation. Dermatitis is a common condition that has many causes
and occurs in many forms. It usually involves itchy, dry skin or a rash on swollen, reddened skin. Or it may cause
the skin to blister, ooze, crust or flake off.

5. A Safety Professional does a Biological audit at a college campus. What can be spread through Vector
transmission
• Mosquitoes, Vector Transmission is bacterial and viral diseases transmitted by mosquitoes, ticks and fleas.

A vector-borne disease (specifically a biological transfer rather than mechanical) is one in which transmission of
infection in a population (the host population) occurs only via a second population (vectors). Vectors are usually
hematophagous (blood-feeding) arthropods such as mosquitoes, sandflies or ticks.

6. The preferred method to control Industrial Ventilation is:
• 1. Eliminate/Substitute
• 2. Engineered Controls
• 3. Administration Controls

NIOSH defines five rungs of the Hierarchy of Controls: elimination, substitution, engineering
controls, administrative controls and personal protective equipment. The hierarchy is arranged beginning with the
most effective controls and proceeds to the least effective.

7. What refers to the measurement of the human individual?
• Anthropometry

Anthropometry refers to the measurement of the human individual. An early tool of physical anthropology, it has
been used for identification, for the purposes of understanding human physical variation, in paleoanthropology and
in various attempts to correlate physical with racial and psychological traits.

7. 8. The best way to make warning signs more visible without illumination is to:
• Put the signs perpendicular to the employees’ path - eye level

9. What gas is used as a measurement to determine air quality?
• CO2 (Showing poor Ventilation)

The use of carbon dioxide as a tracer gas. Carbon dioxide (CO2) is one of the gaseous organic compounds always
detectable in the indoor air. CO2 concentration is often used to assess the air quality of occupied rooms.

10. What falls under the non-particulate when determining a filter?
• Smoke, Fume, Gas or Mist.

Nonparticulate - not composed of distinct particles. particulate - composed of distinct particles.

11. What lifting equation is used to calculate ergonomics in a "Static Work" area?
• Rapid Entire Body Assessment

This ergonomic assessment tool uses a systematic process to evaluate whole body postural MSD and risks
associated with job tasks. A single page worksheet is used to evaluate required or selected body posture, forceful
exertions, type of movement or action, repetition, and coupling.

12. How can spills or overflow be prevented in underground tanks?
• Spill Protection or Overflow Protection

Protection devices either shut off product flow, restrict product flow or alert the delivery operator with an alarm
when the tank is close to being full. These devices are installed inside the tank and activate if the product in the
UST reaches a certain level in the tank (Automatic shutoff devices, overfill alarms, Flow restrictors (also called ball
float valves)

13. What is so specific with the use of CO2 fire extinguisher?
• CO2 Fire Extinguisher doesn't leave behind a residue

Carbon Dioxide extinguishers are filled with non-flammable carbon dioxide gas under extreme pressure. You can
recognize a CO2 extinguisher by its hard horn and lack of pressure gauge. The pressure in the cylinder is so great
that when you use one of these extinguishers, bits of dry ice may shoot out the horn.

14. What is the amount of time a person can be exposed to the STEL?
• 15mins

A short-term exposure limit is the acceptable average exposure over a short period of time, usually 15 minutes as
long as the time-weighted average is not exceeded. STEL is a term used in occupational health, industrial hygiene
and toxicology.

15. What situation would a class A and B fire extinguisher with expanding foam be best used for ( Confined
Space, Computer Room, Filled Dykes (Containing Hydrocarbon fuels), or Metals)
• Filled Dykes (Containing Hydrocarbon fuels)

The foam must be applied carefully, so that it forms a "blanket" over the burning materials, to cut off the fire's
oxygen supply. Foam is extremely effective on burning flammable liquids and can also be used on a spill to prevent
it from igniting. This makes foam extinguishers good for use in commercial garages and chemical storage facilities.
Class B foam, on the other hand, repels carbon. When mixed with water, it forms a film that hovers over a spill or
burning liquid, sealing the flammable vapors. In the case of a spill, a Class B foam blanket prevents vapor
production and ignition, or, in the case of a fire, suppresses the blaze and prevents it from spreading or

8. 16. How does a Carbon Dioxide extinguisher work?
• The carbon dioxide pushes oxygen away from the fuel. Carbon dioxide extinguisher works by suffocating the fire.
Carbon dioxide displaces oxygen in the air. However, once discharged, the CO2 will dissipate quickly and allow
access for oxygen again, which can re-ignite the fire.

17. What are the two types of financial losses a family can anticipate when an employee is injured at work?
• Loss of employment and wages, Burdensome debt, Inability to maintain a previous standard of living, Loss of home
ownership and even Bankruptcy

18. What are the dangers of drinking alcohol and being exposed to Hypothermia?
• Alcohol may make your body feel warm inside, but it causes your blood vessels to dilate, or expand, resulting in
more rapid heat loss from the surface of your skin. Surface blood vessels contract further as the body focuses its
remaining resources on keeping the vital organs warm.

19. What does the Globe Temperature (GT) stand for and how does it work?
• Transferring of Radiant Heat/Temperature

The WetBulb Globe Temperature (WBGT) is a measure of the heat stress in direct sunlight, which takes into
account: temperature, humidity, wind speed, sun angle and cloud cover (solar radiation). This differs from the heat
index, which takes into consideration temperature and humidity and is calculated for shady areas.

20. What is the first sign before a workplace act of violence?
• Written or Verbal Threats

Workplace violence is violence or the threat of violence against workers. It can occur at or outside
the workplace and can range from threats and verbal abuse to physical assaults and homicide, one of the leading
causes of job-related deaths.

21. What does the 200,000 represent in the Incident Rate Calculation
• 100 Workers, 40hrs a Week for 50 Weeks out of the year

The 200,000 figure in the formula represents the number of hours 100 employees working 40 hours per week, 50
weeks per year would work, and provides the standard base for calculating incidence rate for an entire year.

22. Why have employees help with the Violence Prevention Program?
• It's along the lines of them knowing the procedure, so they will know what to do if something was to happen.
(Trained on how to react)

23. A Union and Management person is on the Safety Committee. Who should be appointed the Chairperson of
the Committee?
• They should take turns so there will be no unnecessary conflict or offense

24. Why is the advanced Whole Air Sampler mostly used?
• Store Data for later use

The Advanced Whole Air Sampler (AWAS) is an instrument for the collection of gas samples in canisters where
the sample can be preserved for subsequent analysis using ground-based laboratory equipment.

25. When a third-party contractor takes on the liability what is that called?
• Risk Transfer (A risk management technique whereby risk of loss is transferred to another party through a contract)

Risk transfer is a risk management and control strategy that involves the contractual shifting of a pure risk from
one party to another. One example is the purchase of an insurance policy, by which a specified risk of loss is
passed from the policyholder to the insurer.

26. How to ensure that drivers are doing what they are supposed to do along the lines of operating?

9. • Monitor the Vehicle (Hawthorne Study)

The Hawthorne studies showed that people’s work performance is dependent on social issues and job satisfaction,
and that monetary incentives and good working conditions are generally less important in improving employee
productivity than meeting individuals’ need and desire to belong to a group and be included in decision making and
work.

27. What is the Hold Harmless Clause?
• A Hold Harmless Agreement is a contract between two parties designed to release one or both parties from legal
claims. Most often, one party agrees not to sue the other party for any expenses, damages, or losses arising from a
transaction or activity between the two parties.

28. What is the most important or severe factor in electric shock?
• Amount of current/amps flowing through the body (measured in amperes).

70-100mA is the amount of electrical current needed for fatality

29. What are the two proprieties of Static Electricity ?
• Low Flow and High Voltage

Static electricity is an imbalance of electric charges within or on the surface of a material. The charge remains until
it is able to move away by means of an electric current or electrical discharge.

30. What is the theory of Psychologist Abraham ?
• Maslow suggested that the first and most basic need people have is the need for survival: their physiological
requirements for food, water, and shelter.

Maslow's hierarchy of needs is an idea in psychology proposed by Abraham Maslow in his 1943 paper "A theory of
Human Motivation" in Psychological Review. There is little scientific basis to the idea: Maslow himself noted this
criticism.



31. What are the requirements of a new manufactured chemical?
• It's the list of what is most important to health of a person. (PEL, Lethal Dose (LD), TLV, Lethal Concentration
(LC))

In toxicology, the median lethal dose, LD₅₀, LC₅₀ or LCt₅₀ is a measure of the lethal dose of a toxin, radiation, or
pathogen. The value of LD₅₀ for a substance is the dose required to kill half the members of a tested population after
a specified test duration.


32. Which term is best used when comparing chemicals?
• Toxicological.

Toxicology is a scientific discipline, overlapping with biology, chemistry, pharmacology, and medicine, that
involves the study of the adverse effects of chemical substances on living organisms and the practice of diagnosing
and treating exposures to toxins and toxicants.

10. 33. A means of Egress includes three parts, which are
• Exit Access, Exit and Exit Discharge.

A means of egress is a continuous and unobstructed way of exit travel from any point in a building or structure to a
public way and consists of three separate and distinct parts: the way of exit access; the exit; and the way of exit
discharge.

34. Why is it important to know the layout and design of a building when installing Fire Protection?
• To ensure the entire building is protected

35. What part of the eye is most light sensitive?
• Retina

Parts of the eye: Sclera, the cornea, Anterior & Posterior Chambers, Lens, Iris/Pupil, Vitreous humor and retina

36. If a supervisor leaves his office and walks out into a manufacturing part of the warehouse. What type of
noise will he experience?
• Intermittent

Intermittent exposure to intense noise results in very severe loss in high frequencies but relatively little or no
hearing loss in the lower frequencies even after many years of exposure. This differs substantially from the effects
of continuous exposure to noise of the same intensity.

37. What is the definition of A - weighting sounds (Sound Level Measurements)?
• A - Weighting - used as the "standard" scale in occupational noise measurement because it most closely weights the
sound to the injurious effects on the noise of the ears. Follows the frequency sensitivity of the human ear at low
levels. This is the most commonly used weighting scale, as it also predicts quite well the damage risk of the ear.
Sound level meters set to the A-weighting scale will filter out much of the low-frequency noise they measure,
similar to the response of the human ear. Noise measurements made with the A-weighting scale are designated
dBA.

38. What can be by those exposed to large concentrations of cotton or flax dust?
• Byssinosis

Byssinosis is a rare lung disease. It's caused by inhaling hemp, flax, and cotton particles and is sometimes referred
to as brown lung disease. It's a form of occupational asthma. In the United States, byssinosis occurs almost
exclusively in people who work with unprocessed cotton.

39. Which electrical circuit is used to measure the mixture of combustible gas to air?
• Wheatstone Bridge

A Wheatstone bridge is an electrical circuit used to measure an unknown electrical resistance by balancing two legs
of a bridge circuit, one leg of which includes the unknown component. The primary benefit of the circuit is its
ability to provide extremely accurate measurements.

40. What is the definition of Deflagration? describes a
• It is a subsonic explosion

Deflagration is subsonic combustion propagating through heat transfer; hot burning material heats the next layer of
cold material and ignites it. Most "fires" found in daily life, from flames to explosions such as that of black powder,
are deflagrations.

41. To reduce eye strain while transposing data from a paper to a computer, it is best to
• Place the paper next to the computer screen

11. Consider these tips to reduce or prevent eyestrain: Adjust the lighting, take breaks, Limit screen time, Improve
the air quality of your space, Choose the right eyewear for you.

42. What is the recommended angle of a video display device from the operator’s horizontal line of sight
(HLOS)?
• 15 degrees to 25 degrees below horizontal line of sight.

43. A disease that could cause numbness of the fingers could be associated with
• Raynaud's Syndrome (Disease) It's caused by cold weather and vibration. It will also turn your fingers white.

Raynaud's disease is a rare disorder of the blood vessels, usually in the fingers and toes. It causes the blood vessels
to narrow when you are cold or feeling stressed.

44. What is in correct descending order
• Exa, Peta, Tera, Giga, Mega, Kilo, Hecto, Deka .... Deci, Centi, Milli, Micro, Nano, Pico, Femto, Atto

45. Anthropometric dimensions for each population are ranked by size and described as percentiles
• It is common practice to design for the 5th percentile (5th%) female to the 95th percentile (95th%) male.

Anthropometric measurements are a series of quantitative measurements of the muscle, bone, and adipose tissue
used to assess the composition of the body. The core elements of anthropometry are height, weight, body mass
index (BMI), body circumferences (waist, hip, and limbs), and skinfold thickness.

46. What is the definition and uses of the Rapid Entire Body Assessment (REBA)?
• This ergonomic assessment tool uses a systematic process to evaluate whole body postural MSD and risks associated
with job tasks.

A single page worksheet is used to evaluate required or selected body posture, forceful exertions, type of movement
or action, repetition, and coupling. Using the REBA worksheet, a score is assigned for each of the following body
regions: wrists, forearms, elbows, shoulders, neck, trunk, back, legs and knees. Data is then used to compile the risk
factor variables, generating a single score that represents the level of MSD risk

47. What is the definition and uses of the Rapid Upper Limb Assessment (RULA)?
• The RULA Assessment Tool was developed to evaluate the exposure of individual workers to ergonomic risk
factors associated with upper extremity MSD.

The RULA ergonomic assessment tool considers biomechanical and postural load requirements of job
tasks/demands on the neck, trunk and upper extremities.

48. What is the definition and uses of the Rodger's Muscle Fatigue Assessment?
• This tool is used as a means to assess the amount of fatigue that accumulates in muscles within five minutes of
work.

The basis behind the tool is that fatigued muscles are more susceptible to injury. The goal is to eliminate the
amount of fatigue caused by a task, and therefore decrease the amount of injuries. This can be used for the whole
body or upper body.

49. Employees working inside a lab were not wearing their safety glasses. What should have been done before
giving training about PPE
• Needs Assessment

A needs assessment is the process of identifying the "gap" between performance required and current performance.

50. What is the Definition and uses of the NIOSH Lifting Index?
• A tool used by occupational health and safety professionals to assess the manual material handling risks associated
with lifting and lowering tasks in the workplace.

12. The primary product of the NIOSH lifting equation is the Recommended Weight Limit (RWL), which defines the
maximum acceptable weight (load) that nearly all healthy employees could lift over the course of an 8 hour shift
without increasing the risk of musculoskeletal disorders (MSD) to the lower back.

51. What is not important when using the NIOSH Lifting Index
• Height and Weight of the Person

NIOSH developed the Lifting Equation to help predict the risk of lifting injuries. The Lifting Equation defines
a Lifting Index (LI) based on the Recommended Weight Limit (RWL) for specific lifting tasks that most workers
could perform in an eight-hour day without increasing the risk of developing low back pain.

52. How does a Ground Fault Circuit Interceptor work?
• The GFCI will "sense" the difference in the amount of electricity flowing into the circuit to that flowing out, even in
amounts of current as small as 4 or 5 milliamps.

The GFCI reacts quickly (less than one-tenth of a second) to trip or shut off the circuit. (LEAKAGE) GFCIs look at
the current going out and compare it to the current coming back.

53. When to use a GFCI?
• When working with a possibly faulty power tool.

54. Lab working and safety glasses.
• Make a Standard (SOP)

A standard operating procedure is a set of step-by-step instructions compiled by an organization to help workers
carry out routine operations.

55. Examples of Indirect Costs:
• Any wages paid to injured workers for absences not covered by workers' compensation.

The wage costs related to time lost through work stoppage, Administrative time spent by supervisors following
injuries, Employee training and replacement costs, Lost productivity related to new employee learning curves and
accommodation of injured employees, Replacement costs of damaged material, machinery and property




56. What is the definition of Risk?
• The Chance or probability of harm actually being done


57. Define the term Hazard
• The potential for harm. In practical terms, a hazard often is associated with a condition or activity that, if left
uncontrolled, can result in an injury or illness. (OSHA)

58. What is the definition of Risk Assessment?
• Overall process of estimating the magnitude of risk and deciding whether or not the risk is tolerable.

13. 59. What does Source Reduction and Reuse mean?
• Also known as waste prevention, means reducing waste at the source, and is the most environmentally preferred
strategy.
It can take many different forms, including reusing or donating items, buying in bulk, reducing packaging,
redesigning products, and reducing toxicity.

60. What is Recycling and Composting?
• Collecting used, reused, or unused items that would otherwise be considered waste; sorting and processing the
recyclable products into raw materials; and remanufacturing the recycled raw materials into new products

61. What is Energy Recovery?
• Conversion of non-recyclable waste materials into useable heat, electricity, or fuel through a variety of processes,
including combustion, gasification, anaerobic digestion, and landfill gas (LFG) recovery. This process is often
called waste-to-energy (WTE).

62. What are some notions on Treatment and Disposal?
• Treatments can be physical (e.g., shredding), chemical (e.g., incineration), and biological (e.g., anaerobic digester).
• Landfills are the most common form of waste disposal and are an important component of an integrated waste
management system.

63. What is the difference between a Reactive and Proactive approach?
• A proactive approach focuses on eliminating problems before they have a chance to appear and a
• A reactive approach is based on responding to events after they have happened.

64. The Z10 is a management system standard compatible and harmonized with quality (ISO 9000 series) and
environmental management systems (ISO 14000 series). What best describes these standards?
• Performance

65. According to the NSC, three basic steps of the behavior-based safety process are
1. Identify Critical Behaviors
2. Conduct Measurement through Observation
3. Give Performance Feedback




66. How can a company best control the major cause of driver error?
• Implementing a program of driver selection, training and supervision

67. Which of the following is not one of the major provisions of the consensus standard incorporating best
practices in OSHM?
• Regulatory Compliance

68. Which principal involves the "Fellow Servant Rule"?
• Employer will not be responsible for injuries caused by another worker.

The Fellow Servant Rule was a defense which, prior to the enactment of workers' compensation laws, could be used
by an employer to protect him/herself when sued by an employee for damages from jury caused by one or more
fellow employees.

69. What is the Assumption of Risk?
• Worker knew he/she was involved in a risky or hazardous occupation.

70. Contributory Negligence
• Worker contributed to his/her injury.

14. In some common law jurisdictions, contributory negligence is a defense to a tort claim based on negligence. If it is
available, the defense completely bars plaintiffs from any recovery if they contribute to their own injury through
their own negligence.

71. What are the Electrostatic precipitators?
• Highly efficient filtration devices that minimally impede the flow of gases and easily remove fine particulate matter
such as dust and smoke from the air stream.

72. What is the definition of closed-loop systems?
• Closed-loop systems are the backbone of a circular economy – one which looks to keep materials engaged in a
circular way, recycled and reused throughout rather than used once and turned into waste.

Waste is conveyed through closed systems to tank storage and then recycled in tanks before returning the
reprocessed material to the production system.

73. A waste will be subject to the hazardous waste regulations if it meets any of the following conditions except?
• Solid Waste

When categorizing hazardous waste, the EPA breaks it down by four characteristics: ignitability, corrosivity,
reactivity, toxicity.


74. What is the definition of Source Reduction for Waste?
• Source reduction, also known as waste prevention or pollution prevention, is the elimination of waste before it is
created. It involves the design, manufacture, purchase or use of materials and products to reduce the amount or
toxicity of what is thrown away. Source Reduction means stopping waste before it happens.

75. Which of the following groups of hydrocarbons would have the greatest chance of not being flammable?
• Halogenated

Halogenated hydrocarbons, also known as halocarbons, are hydrocarbon compounds in which at least one
hydrogen atom is replaced by a halogen (Group VII A of the Periodic Table) atom, such as fluorine, chlorine, or
bromine.



76. A white light entering a triangular prism would be refracted downward and separated into the colors of the
spectrum. Which color would be refracted most?
• Violet (Red would be the least refracted)


77. Treatment of hazardous wastes to eliminate their toxicity and/or their hazardous characteristics can be
achieved using a wide spectrum of technologies which represent :
• Chemical, Physical, Mechanical

78. Solid airborne contaminants, of those listed, which has the largest average particle size?
• Silica Dust (Answer)
Asbestos Fibers
Zinc Fumes
Fiberglass Fibers

15. 79. What paperwork stays with the chemical from its birth to grave
• Manifest

80. Why are smoke detectors better than heat detectors?
• Because a smoke detector can sense an Incipient Fire (The first stage of a fire) – Smoldering

81. If propane (LP) leaked/or was spilled out into a field what can you expect to happen to the LP?
• It will settle to the lowest point, but it's quickly dispersed with the slightest movement of air. Propane begins to boil
at -44 degrees and is heavier than air. It will not turn into a vapor and rise when the temp goes up. It collects at the
lowest point.

82. The four basic types of chemical interactions are
• Synergism, Potentiation, Additivity, and Antagonism

Synergism- two or more chemicals results in toxic effects that is far greater than the sum of the two toxic materials
(e.g., 1+1=4) Therefore, synergism is hazardous.
Potentiation- Exposure to one toxic substance results in a great toxic effect than if the exposure involved another
specific substance (e.g., 0+1=2)
Additivity- The combination of two toxic substances results in a toxic effect that is equal to the sum of the two
toxic materials (e.g., 1+1=2)
Antagonism- The combination of two toxic substances results in a toxic effect that is less than the sum of the two
toxic materials (e.g., 1+1=0)


83. The three common routes of exposer are
• Inhalation, Ingestion, and Absorption.

84. What is detonation?
• Supersonic wave (faster than the signals can be transmitted into the explosive ahead - explosive has no idea its
coming) which propagates through shock compression of the explosive.

85. In order for combustible dust to explode it must:
• Be confined




86. What type of Manager utilizes an external reward and punishment system to affect performance?
• Theory X

Theory X manager holds that people must be motivated to work by external reward and punishment because they
are unmotivated towards work.
Theory Y manager assumes all workers are basically interested and motivated to work and therefore have a reduced
need for external reward system.

87. Why are safety incentive programs not working and management moving away from them?
• They do not deal with the root issue of the problems.

88. What does Heinrich's research state?
• It emphasizes on unsafe actions of employees rather than unsafe conditions caused in the workplace.

89. The definition of ergonomics is
• Design the job to fit the person

90. When is it ok to not have something grounded?
• When something is double insulated.

16. 91. What's the definition of Stereotyping?
• an often unfair and untrue belief that many people have about all people or things with a particular characteristic.
(Painting a group of people with a broad brush)

92. What is an Epidemiological Study (Think People Groups)?
• Analysis of the patterns, causes, and effects of health and disease conditions in defined populations.

93. When the use of grounding and bonding equipment is needed as a rule which must be done first?
• You always ground the equipment first before bonding them together.
• Ground each piece of equipment separately then bond them together.

94. What is most important when it comes to training adults
• Adults have to know the purpose of the training.
• Also, when will they use it or why it's important.

95. Do workers have the right to change an abatement date of an OSHA citation?
• No, a worker can contest it but not change it.

96. The responsible party to ensure the completion of shipping documents in the transport of hazardous
materials falls on who?
• The Shipper

97. What is the definition of Loss Control?
• It is a system has as its primary functions to identify hazardous conditions, assess their risk and establish
effective risk control measures.

98. What is the least important thing when it comes to learning objective and training objectives?
• Writing them Down.

99. Under ICS, the Command Staff positions include
• Safety Officer
• Public Information Officer
• and Liaison Officer


100. Which of the following is the best statement related to audit documentation?
A. Checklists must always be used
B. Forms to record supporting evidence must be documented ( Answer)
C. Audit sampling plans are generally not documented
D. Chain of custody is not a legal form of documentation

B is correct because: The audit team members should collect and review the information relevant to their audit
assignments and prepare work documents, as necessary, for reference and for recording audit evidence.
101. The audit objectives define what is to be accomplished by the individual audit and may include which
of the following?
A. Evaluation of the ineffective monitoring of audit program outcomes.
B. Determination of the extent of non-conformity of activities, processes and products with the requirements and
procedures of the management system.
C. Conformity with audit program procedures.
D. Determination of the extent of conformity of the management system to be audited, or parts of it, with
audit criteria. (Answer )

D is correct because: Each individual audit should be based on documented audit objectives, scope and criteria.
These should be defined by the person managing the audit program and be consistent with the overall audit program
objectives.

17. 102. With regard to collecting and verifying information all of the following are correct except?
A. Information relevant to the audit objectives, scope, and criteria should be collected by appropriate
sampling.
B. Only verifiable information should be accepted as audit evidence.
C. Audit findings do not need to be recorded.
D. The audit team should address any new circumstances that may occur.
C is correct because: During the audit, information relevant to the audit objectives, scope and criteria, including
information relating to interfaces between functions, activities and processes, should be collected by means of
appropriate sampling and should be verified. Only information that is verifiable should be accepted as audit
evidence.

103. Which of the following best defines a management system audit under ISO 19011?
A. Systematic, independent, and documented process for obtaining audit evidence and evaluating it
objectively to determine the extent to which the audit criteria are fulfilled
B. Systematic and independent examination of data, statements, records, operations, and performances (financial or
otherwise) of an enterprise for any unstated purpose.
C. Examination of financial statements and formulation of an opinion on the effectiveness of a company's internal
control over financial reporting
D. Enables organizations to develop their environmental performance through a process of continuous improvement

A is correct because: Based on the 6 principles below
Integrity, Fair presentation, Due professional care, Confidentiality, Independence, Evidence-based approach.

104. Auditing is characterized by reliance on a number of principles. Adherence to these principles is a
prerequisite for providing audit conclusions that are relevant and sufficient and for enabling auditors,
working independently from one another, to reach similar conclusions in similar circumstances. Which of
the following are included in these principles?
A. Integrity, confidentiality, due professional care
B. Confidentiality, conformity, liability
C. Fair representation, subjective observation, performance in partial manner
D. Evidence based, interdependence, biased

D is correct because: Each individual audit should be based on documented audit objectives, scope and criteria.
These should be defined by the person managing the audit program and be consistent with the overall audit program
objectives.

105. Hierarchy of Controls
• Elimination, Substitution, Engineering, Warnings, Administrative, PPE


106. Which of the following statements about committees is not correct?
1.) Safety and health committees must be careful not to assume the employer's ultimate responsibility for providing
a safe and healthful workplace.
2.) In some union workplaces, it may be better to form two safety and health committees - one joint committee for
coordinating with management and one limited to union members.

18. 3.) When a joint safety and health committee is formed, the union and management should have an equal number of
members.
4.) In a joint committee, the role of a chairperson should only be rotated among labor members. (Answer)

107. Emergency lighting test are required
• A 30 second functional test every thirty days and 1 1/2-hour test annually

108. Selecting media to be used for presenting instructional content:
• Should be done only after a planning process that includes content analysis, audience analysis and other steps

109. What is the meaning of MARR?
• Minimum Attractive Return Rate

110. Successful management system according to the OHSAS 18001 should be based on all the following
• Identification of occupational H&S risk, along with legal requirements. Objectives, targets, and programs that
ensure continual improvements, managements activities that control occupational H&S risk

111. What do Overlapping systems required for sustainability involve?
• People, Environment, and Profit

112. Environmental Management is defined as:
• The organizing and controlling of affairs related to an organization's impact on natural world, our surroundings,
people, animals, and plants

113. What is the meaning of LEED?
• LEED, Leadership in Energy and Environmental design

114. An environmental Life Cycle Assessment (LCA) is best described as
• Systematic set of procedures for evaluating environment impacts of product, service or system.

115. Primary desirable attribute of a safety training instructor is
• Convey quantity of material as outlined by the course objective





116. Analysis, Design, Development, Implementation, Evaluation
• The ADDIE model is the generic process traditionally used by instructional designers and training developers. The
five phases—Analysis, Design, Development, Implementation, and Evaluation—represent a dynamic, flexible
guideline for building effective training and performance support tools.

117. Retention scale in increasing order
• Words or written, Auditory Aid, Still Pictures, Displays, Feminization, Demonstration, Simulation, And highest
Actual experience.

19. 118. The least important measurement of a safety training program effectiveness is:
• Reaction - How well the students liked the training

119. The basic approach to many management systems includes four basic sequential steps:
• Plan, Organize, implement, control

120. A symptom a person would experience when suffering a heatstroke is
• Severe headache, loss of consciousness, rapid temperature rise, and hot dry skin

121. What is the angle of a flight of stairs that rises 10 ft. vertical for every 12-ft. horizontal?
• 40 degrees

122. What is an infection connected with milk?
• Brucellosis

Brucellosis is an infectious disease caused by a type of bacteria called Brucella. The bacteria can spread from
animals to humans. There are several different strains of Brucella bacteria. Some types are seen in cows. Others
occur in dogs, pigs, sheep, goats, and camels.

123. What is Meniere’s disease?
• It is a disease of the inner ear that causes Vertigo, tinnitus, and hearing loss

124. What is Highballing? of.
• It is a project method consists of Padding the budget

125. What is an example of an occupational illness not caused by a virus?
• Tuberculosis

Tuberculosis (TB) is a potentially serious infectious disease that mainly affects your lungs. The bacteria that
cause tuberculosis are spread from one person to another through tiny droplets released into the air via coughs and
sneezes.




126. Which of the following is most often recommended fundamental safety training for plant workers?
• Fire extinguisher training, first aid, and contingency.

127. What do Descriptive or analytical refer to?
• Epidemiological studies

128. Three approaches for evaluating manual material handling task?
• Biomechanical, physiological, psychophysical

129. Generally, system life cycle phases include a
• Concept, development, operation and disposal

130. Which training methods allows for the least amount of student - instructor interaction?
• Lecture

131. Which of the following is the best statement related to audit documentation?
• Forms to record supporting evidence must be documented

20. 132. The audit team members should collect and review the information relevant to their audit
assignments and prepare work documents, as necessary, for reference and for recording audit evidence.
Such work documents may include the following
• Checklists
• Audit sampling plans
• Forms for recording information, such as supporting evidence, audit findings, and records of meetings.

The use of checklists and forms should not restrict the extent of audit activities, which can change as a result of
information collected during the audit

133. What is the best delivery method when presenting statistical data for comparison at a meeting?
• Bar graph - Bar charts are simplest and most effective way to display data

134. The audit objectives define what is to be accomplished by the individual audit and may include which
of the following?
• Determination of the extent of conformity of the management system to be audited, or parts of it, with audit criteria.

135. With regard to collecting and verifying information what is correct?
• Audit findings do not need to be recorded.

136. How long should a manufacturer keep records relating to produce safety for what period?
• As long as possible

137. The signal word indicates the relativity degree of severity a hazard. The signal words used in the GHS
are:
• Danger and Warning


138. What is the most missed use tool?
• Screwdriver

139. What is administrative control regarding contaminates in the air and what would be an
administrative control?
• Write a procedure program or Policy

140. Symbol of corrosion


141. What is the second crash?

21. When a vehicle crashes, the occupants continue in motion until they impact on the interior of the passenger
compartment. The term second crash refers to this crash of occupants against the interior surfaces of the vehicle
after vehicle impact.

142. Some Formulas:


143. Representation of a positive progression





144. Sum of decibels :