ITI Employability Skills Book PDF NIMI MCQ

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New Pattern

( Employability skills )

(Common For All Trades)

(According to the New Syllabus Issued by the DGE&T Department of India)

Sr. No. Topics Page No.
1. English Literacy 3
2. Communication Skills 49
3. IT Literacy 71
4. Entrepreneurship Skills 107
5. Maintaining Efficiency at workplace 121
6. OSHEE (Occupational Safety, Health & Environmental Education) 130
7. Essential Skills for Success 141
8. Labour welfare legislation/Labour Laws 149
9. Quality Tools/Management 155
10. Preparation to the world of work 161
11. Customer Interaction/Service 168

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ITI Employability skills MCQ Book in Hindi/English (New Syllabus)
https://bharatskills.in/iti-employability-skills-mcq-book-1st-year-english-hindi/

Craftsman Training Scheme/ Apprenticeship Training Scheme
(In Question-Answer according to the New Style)

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Under

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English Literacy
1.which one is NOT a vowel?
a) a b) e c) f d) i
Ans. c

2. What is essential to understand pronunciation of simple words?
a) Role of vowels b) Role of consonants c) Both A& B d) None of these
Ans. c

3. Fill in the blank with a, an, the or this, _______ Aeroplane flies in the air.
a) A b) An c) The d) This
Ans. b

4. which word is an adjective ?
a) eat b) hot c) mend d) soup

5. I help in designing and building houses, I am _________
a) An architectural assistant b) plumber
c) a machinist d) fireman

6. A group of words which makes sense, but not complete sense, is called______.
a) Phrase b) Adverb c) Adjective d) Verb
Ans. a

7. Choose the correct answer in responds to the mentioned question. “When will you see the movie’’?
a) At 3.15 P.M., tomorrow b) In PVR cinema
c) At 2.45 P.M. d) At home
Ans. a

8. Choose the correct proposition?
The young gentleman is engaged ________ Miss Brown.
a) In b) With c) At d) Above
Ans. b

9. Which one from the following is not a cardinal number________.
a) 20 b) 56 c) 18
th
d) 9
Ans. c

10. Which is a silent letter in word ‘Psychology’?
a) O b) I c) H d) P
Ans. d

11 . What does it mean to paraphrase?
a) To obscure b) To summarize c) To summarize d) to evaluate

12. Fill in the blank with correct future tense of verb.
“He_______ for you at the station”
a) Has wait b) are waiting
c) Had wait d) Will wait
Ans. d

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13. Synonym of the word “Blend” is_______.
a) Mix
b) Award
c) Daring
d) Proposal
Ans. a

14. Which of the following, makes the sound “j”?
a) Gin b) game c) gap d) go

15. She-for a while
a) Are ailing b) is ailing c) has been ailing d) have been ailing

16. One of the type of sentence is:
a) Common sentence b) assertive sentence
c) proper sentence d) abstract sentence

17. Shall we go out for pizza tonight?
a) I know that b) it’s very good c) I’m too tired d) I’m so late

18. . The vowels in English are :-
a) AEIOU b) AIOUB c) ABNMX D) QWERT
Ans. a

19. There are …………. Distinctive consonents.
a) 26 b) 24 c) 23 d) 25
Ans. b

20. Which of the following sentences is correct-
a) The tired old man just lay down and died b) The tired old man lied down and died
c) The tired old man just laid down and died. d) None of these
Ans. a

21. He would starve to death rather than ______ a loan.
a) Have asked b) Ask c) To ask d) To have asked
Ans. b

22. Understanding _______different parts of speech forms the base of learning grammar.
a) Five
b) Eight
c) Seven
d) Six
Ans. b

23. It was easy to guess what they had been doing_________.
a) From living b) So as to live c) For a living d) To live
Ans. c

24. Reading comprehension means understanding a ________text.
a) Oral b) Written
c) Usual d) Audio
Ans. b

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25. Any word that adds more meaning to the noun is called an_____.
a) Adverb b) Verb c) Adjective d) Noun
Ans. c

26. Which of the following spellings is correct-
a) Computer b) Cumputer c) Computor d) Cumputor
Ans. a

27. Which of the following spellings is correct-
a) Futball b) Fuutbal c) Footbal d) Football
Ans. d

28. Active voice: The sailor anchored his boat in the harbor.
a) The sailor anchored the boat b) The boat was anchored by the sailor in the harbor
c) The boat was anchored by sailor d) None of these
Ans. b

29. The past tense for SPEAK is –
a) Speaked b) Speaking c) Spokes d) Spoke
Ans. d

30. Which of the following sentence is correct-
a) I have 2 brother b) I have 2 brothers c) I have 1 brothers d) None of these
Ans. b

31. My father is________ Engineer.
a) One b) A c) An d) None of these
Ans. c

32. Good _________I am going to sleep.
a) Morning b) Afternoon c) Evening d) Night
Ans. d

33. Which is a silent letter in the word “ANSWER”?
a) R b) E c) S d) W
Ans. d

34. Choose the correct punctuation mark after the word “Rohan” in the given sentence “Rohan David and
Ram are playing hide and seek”.
a) Comma (,) b) Period (.) c) Slash (/) d) Hyphen (-)
Ans. a

35. Fill in the blank with suitable place preposition. “My house is…….the third floor”?
a) at b) in c) on d) under
Ans. c

36. Fill in the blank with correct future tense of verb “We…… to the zoo after breakfast.”
a) went b) are going c) had gone d) shall go
Ans. d

37. Fill in the blank with correct word. He______ going to school.
a) is b) am c) had gone d) will go
Ans. a

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38. Fill in the blank with correct question word. “…..is the speaker at the function”?
a) what b) when c) why d) who
Ans. d

39. Which one is a cardinal number?
a) X b) II c) IV d) 3
Ans. d

40. Fill in the blank with proper interrogative adjective –“………are you going?”
a) who b) where c) which d) what
Ans. b

41. which one is in passive voice?
a) Mohan is painting a house b) She was reading a book
c) Her birthday was celebrated by us d) I have seen that movie
Ans. c

42. Fill in the blank with proper reflexive pronoun. “She has hurt………”
a) myself b) herself c) himself d) itself
Ans. b

43. Re-arrange the following set of words into meaning sentence. “teacher/school/worked/she/a/as”
a) School worked as a she teacher b) She worked as a school teacher
c) She teacher worked as a school d) Worked she as a school teacher
Ans. b

44. Which one is ordinal number?
a) Two b) Seventh c) Twenty d) Twelve
Ans. b

45. Choose an appropriate with question for the following sentence. I live in Kolcutta.
a) Where do you live?
b) When did you leave Kolcutta?
c) What is your native place?
d) Do you love living in Kolcutta?
Ans. a

46. Read the following memo and answer the question given below.
To : HITEC staff
From : HR Manager
Date : October 16, 2013
Subject : Staff meeting to announce training programme I am pleased to announce that two week training
programme will start from October 20, 2013. There will be a meeting to introduce trainers and schedule at
11.00 a.m on October 17, 2013. Please join me to discuss the training programme arrangements. Please
share this announcement with all staff immediately. When is the staff meeting going to be held?
a) October 16, 2013 b) October 17, 2013
c) October 11, 2013 d) October 20, 2013
Ans. b

47. Fill in the blanks with suitable place, prepositions. We had dinner …….The train.
a) an b) at c) in d) on
Ans. c

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48. Fill in the blank with a suitable tense verb. I ………… (write) an English test yesterday.
a) written
b) will write
c) shall write
d) wrote
Ans. d

49. What is the full form of the short message service of “FAQ” ?
a) Frequently answered question
b) Frequently asked question
c) Feely answered question
d) Formerly asked question
Ans. b

50. Fill in the blanks with suitable proposition from the given choices.
It was not possible ……….All trainees to attend the classes yesterday.
a) of b) for c) to d) by
Ans. b

51. Fill in the blanks with a suitable “Wh” word for the given sentence.
………….. are you living?
a) When b) What c) Where d) Why
Ans. c

52. Fill in the blanks with suitable tense verb. Vinod…… the length of the table and noted it down.
a) Measure b) Will measure c) Shall Measure d) Measured
Ans. d

53. What does “ASAP” stand for in SMS language?
a) As silent as probable
b) As soon as probable
c) As soon as possible
d) As simple as possible
Ans. c

54. Fill in the blanks with suitable preposition from given choices.
The books were kept……..the table.
a) at b) in c) on d) over
Ans. c

55. Choose an appropriate ‘wh’ – question for the following sentence. : “ I live in Haryana”
a) What is your place?
b) When did you leave Haryana
c) Why do you love living in Haryana
d) Where do you live?
Ans. d

56. Frame a “wh” –question for the following sentence : My favourite holiday place in Ooty”?
a) What is your favourite holiday place?
b) what is your native place?
c) why do you like ooty?
d) Where do you live?
Ans. a

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57. Fill in the blanks with suitable comparative adjective. Ram is……than shyam.
a) Tall b) Taller
c) More tall d) Tallest
Ans. b

58. What is the long from this SMS short from “FYI”?
a) for your information
b) for your identification
c) for your internet
d) for your inncence
Ans. a

59. Words that show the actions are called as……….
a) Nouns
b) Verbs
c) Adjective
d) Pronouns
Ans. b

60. Which one is NOT a conjunction?
a) And b) Or c) But d) On
Ans. d

61. How many kinds of tenses?
a) 4 b) 3 c) 2 d) 5
Ans. b

62. Choose the Active sentence-
a) Sitais said to be mad b) They say that Sita is mad
c) They said that Sita is mad d) Sitawas said to be mad
Ans. a

63. The number of monophthiong in English sounds are :-
a) 8 b) 24 c) 12 d) 20
Ans. c

64. Choose the Negative sentence –
a) She is wise b) She was wise c) She not without wisdom d) She is wised
Ans. c

65. Choose the Interrogative –
a) Nobody wants to die b) Nobody can wants to die
c) Who wants to die d) None of these
Ans. c

66. Subscription should be written on the _______ side of the paper.
a) Right hand b) Left hand c) Anywhere d) Middle
Ans. a

67. Receiver’s address should always be written –
a) Right side b) Above the date c) Above the reference number d) Left side
Ans. d

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68. A written description of duties and responsibilities to be carried out in a job is called ______
a) CV
b) Job description
c) Resume
d) Job Application
Ans. b

69. Choose suitable “wh” word for the given sentence “______ animal do you like?”
a) Which
b) Why
c) Where
d) When
Ans. a

70. Choose the correct response for the given question. “How have you been”?
a) Very well, And y ou?
b) Thank you, And you?
c) Same to you
d) On vacation, and you?
Ans. a

71. Choose the correct response of the given question “When did the accident happen”?
a) in the hotel
b) during travelling
c) At 10:30 last night
d) On the table
Ans. c

72. Choose the correct tense of the verb. “I ______ music when I was child.”
A) LEARN
B) am learning
c) will learn
d) learnt
Ans. d

73. Curriculum Vitae (CV) is also known as _____
a) resume
b) job description
c) cover letter
d) application letter
Ans. a

74. Fill in the blank with comparative adjective ____ “your pencil is ______ than mine”.
a) Sharp
b) sharper
c) blunt
d) thick
Ans. b

75. Fill in the blank with correct word “they _____ good friends”
a) is b) am c) are d) was
Ans. c

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76. Fill in the blank with present progressive tense of the verb “The train ____ through the tunnel”
a) passed
b) is passing
c) had passed
d) was passing
Ans. b

77. Fill in the blank with proper pronoun “I made this cake ______”
a) myself
b) yourself
c) himself
d) itself
Ans. a

78. Fill in the blank with proper pronoun. “She made this cake _____”
a) itself
b) myself
c) herself
d) himself
Ans. c

79. Fill in the blank with suitable adjective for the given sentence “The little girl’s _____ eyes revealed her
mischief”
a) chubby
b) weak
c) short sighted
d) twinkling
Ans. d

80. Pronunciation refers to _____
a) dipthong
b) consonant
c) punctuation
d) production of sound
Ans. d

81. The word that expresses a sudden and strong feeling is called ______
a) punctuation
b) interjection
c) cunjuction
d) apostrophe
Ans. b

82. When you greet higher official’s such as Teacher, Instructor or supervisor, you should use ______
a) “Good Morning”
b) “Hello”
c) “Hey”
d) “Hi”
Ans. a

83. Which one is a cardinal number?
a) IV b) 10
th
c) 1
st
d) 1
Ans. d

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84. Which one is a cardinal number?
a) One
b) Fifth
c) Eight
d) Second
Ans. a

85. Which one is an exclamatory sentence?
a) What a beautiful house it is!
b) It is a beautiful house.
c) Is it a beautiful house?
d) Your house is beautiful.
Ans. a

86. Which one is an active voice?
a) Ram has passed the exam.
b) The ball was caught by him
c) The book was being read by her
d) We were driven home by dad.
Ans. a

87. Which one is in passive voice?
a) Mohan is painting a house
b) She was reading a book
c) Her birthday was celebrated by us
d) I have seen that movie
Ans. c

88. Which one is NOT a benefit of the role playing?
a) Builds confidence
b) Develops listening skills
c) Develops creative problem-solving skill
d) Develops boredom
Ans. d

89. Which one is NOT a vowel?
a) a
b) e
c) f
d)i
Ans. c

90. Which one of the following is a good office etiquette?
a) One should dress formally
b) One should not be punctual to work
c) One should have fancy mobile ringtone
d) One should litter one’s workplace
Ans. a

91. Word that is pronounced the same as another word but differs in meaning is called _____
a) homophone b) homograph
c) diphthong d) syllable
Ans. a

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92. “Hello! How are you been?” is a way of _____
a) Describing people
b) Classifying people
c) Greeting
d) Meeting
Ans. c

93. How many consonants are there is English alphabets?
a) 21
b) 18
c) 17
d) 24
Ans. a

94. The number of dipthongs in English sound’s is:-
a) 12
b) 8
c) 44
d) 20
Ans. b

95. The total number of sounds in English language is:
a) 12
b) 8
c) 20
d) 44
Ans. d

96. Which one of the following is not an organ of speech?
a) Leg
b) tongue
c) Vocal chord
d) lips
Ans. a

97. We need an air stream mechanism for the:-
a) Production of speech
b) Digestion process
c) blood circulation process
d) deoxidation process
Ans. a

98. What is essential to acquire a good pronunciation in English language :-
a) a lot of conscious efforts
b) a lot of systematic efforts
c) a lot of regular practice
d) all the above
Ans. d

99. Our respiratory system consists of : -
a) lungs b) air-pipe
c) nostrils d) all of the above
Ans. d

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100. The hard convex surface first behind the upper front teeth is called
a) soft polate
b) teeth ridge
c) hard polate
d) tongue
Ans. c

101. Diphthong is a:-
a) pure vowel sound
b) pure consonant sound
c) vowel glides or minded vowel sounds
d) none of the above
Ans. c

102. The letters a, e, I, o, u in English alphabets are called
a) cluster
b) consonants
c) vowels
d) words
Ans. c

103. The letters of English alphabet, other than vowels are called:-
a) words
b) vowels
c) clusters
d) consonants
Ans. d

104. When one sound is given by two consonants, it is called:-
a) vowel sound
b) consonant sound
c) single sound
d) consonant cluster
Ans. d

105. Which of the following has / i / sound:-
a) car
b) seat
c) fit
d) book
Ans. b

106. Which of the following has “e” sound:
a) bit b) arm
c) about d) aunt
Ans. c

107. The example of consonant cluster is:-
a) sea
b) guard
c) guilty
d) play
Ans. d

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108. The following does not belong to the basic components of speech:-
a) stress
b) rhytm
c) poem
d) intonation
Ans. c

109. The word “Doctor” has:-
a) two syllabus with stress on one
b) two syllabus with stress on both
c) two syllabus with stress on first
d) two syllabus with stress on second
Ans. c

110. The degree of force with which sound or syllable of a word is uttered is called :-
a) intonation
b) stress
c) rhythm
d) pause
Ans. b

111. “The change of pitch of voice” is called :-
a) Stress
b) Rhythm
c) Pause
d) Intonation
Ans. d

112. “The rise and fall of pitch of voice” is called:-
a) Fluency
b) Pause
c) Intonation
d) Stress
Ans. c

113. “The smallest unit of words” is called:-
a) Phoneme
b) Allphone
c) Tuncture
d) Morpheme
Ans. a

114. “The study of articulation, transmission & reception of speech sound,” is called:-
a) Linguistics b) Morphology
c) Phonetics d) Syntax
Ans. c

115. Defective pronunciation in India prevails as:-
a) There is dearth of books on phonetics
b) No firm rules for pronunciation
c) Both A and B
d) None of the above
Ans. c

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116. “Phonetics” is a part of language study it is:-
a) Study of system of sound of laugnage
b) Study of words
c) Study or articulation, transmission & reception of speech sounds
d) None of the above
Ans. c

117. The teacher does not tell or interpret whether the answer is correct or not in the:-
A) Testing activity
b) Teaching activity
c) Language game activity
d) Demonstration activity
Ans. a

118. Flow, correct pause, stress & into nation is only possible through the practice of:-
a) Comprehension
b) Oral Expression
c) Reading
d) Writing
Ans. b

119. English can be learnt only by the:-
a) Practice of applied Grammar
b) Practice of speaking
c) Study of Grammar
d) Study of functional Grammar
Ans. b

120. The advantage of Rhymes is that:-
a) It removes shyness
b) It encourages students to recite together
c) It makes the teaching joyful
d) All the above
Ans. d

121. According to phonetic method, the unit of a word is:-
a) sentence
b) word
c) sound
d) letter
Ans. d

122. Which word has not the sound “F”:-
a) life b) deaf c) tough d) None of the above
Ans. d

123. Which of the following word has the sound similar to that of “chair”?
a) father
b) feet
c) carpenter
d) share
Ans. d

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124. Which letter in the word “know” remains silent:-
a) K and W
b) N
c) Q
d) All the above
Ans. a

125. Which of the following gives the sound “I”
a) key
b) kit
c) fit
d) bit
Ans. a

126. Some letters are missing in the following words:-
A) e ____ ort
B) di ____ erence
C) scru ____ the missing letters are
a) f
b) ff
c) gh
d) none of the above
Ans. b

127. Some letters are missing in the following word
A) lau __ ing
B) rou ___
C) enou___
a) ff
b) f
c) gh
d) none of the above
Ans. c

128. Some letters are missing in the following words:-
i) ___ act
ii) con ___ ess
iii) sa ___ ety
iv) chal ____
v) ____ lush. The missing letters are:-
a) f
b) ff
c) gh
d) none of the above
Ans. a

129. Which sound is different in the following words:-
a) bag
b) fad
c) sale
d) man
Ans. c

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130. Which sound of the following words is different from others:-
a) bag
b) fad
c) sale
d) man
Ans. c

131. Which sound of the following words is different from others:-
a) fan
b) car
c) star
d) hard
Ans. a

132. Which sound of the following words is different from others:-
a) ago
b) hall
c) alike
d) admission
Ans. b

133. Which sound is longer in the following words:-
a) fit
b) sit
c) kit
d) seat
Ans. d

134. Which sound is shorter than the others in the following words:-
a) fool
b) tool
c) book
d) cool
Ans. c

135. Which word of the following gives the different sound:-
a) University
b) Sunny
c) Umbrella
d) Butter
Ans. a

136. Which word of the following gives different sound:-
a) carry b) lady
c) city d) dry
Ans. d

137. Which of the following sound is different:-
a) sure
b) pure
c) chat
d) cure
Ans. c

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138. Which of the following sound is dipthong:-
a) ear
b) back
c) name
d) task
Ans. a

139. Which one in the following words in an example of consonant cluster?
a) batch
b) itch
c) match
d) switch
Ans. d

140. Which are in the following words gives the sound of “O”?
a) honest
b) hour
c) honour
d) arm
Ans. a

141. Which letter is not spoken in the word “alms”:-
a) Q
b) L
c) M
d) S
Ans. b

142. Which word begins with the sound of “K”?
a) city
b) cycle
c) clear
d) centre
Ans. c

143. Reading is useful because it
a) gives information
b) gives enjoyment
c) prepare us for self-education
d) All of the above
Ans. d

144. What opens the gates of knowledge?
a) Listening b) speaking
c) reading d) writing
Ans. c

145. The process of looking at a written or printed symbol & Translating it into appropriate sound is:-
a) Writing
b) listening
c) Speaking
d) Reading
Ans. d

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146. Which organ of the body moves along with the printed or written symbols across the page
a) ears
b) eyes
c) mouth
d) tongue
Ans. b

147. Eye span means:-
a) Shape of the eye
b) Colour of the eye
c) The number of words read in one complete movement
d) The attraction of the features of eye
Ans. c

148. One of the characteristics of Reading is :-
a) that it should be meaningless
b) That it should be helpless
c) That is should be purposeful
d) That it should be effortless
Ans. c

149. Reading is based on: -
a) Coloured ink
b) manufacture of paper
c) writing tool
d) comprehensive
Ans. d

150. Different stages of Reading are:-
a) letter recognition
b) Teaching through know objects
c) Language games
d) All the above
Ans. d

151. The second stage of reading is related to
a) pronunciation
b) stress
c) intonation
d) All the above
Ans. d

152. The unit of teaching in alphabetic method is : -
a) letter b) word
c) phrase d) sentence
Ans. a

153. Combination of letter is called:-
a) Sentence
b) phase
c) word
d) letters
Ans. c

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154. The cause of reading problems are:-
a) Irregularity in English spellings
b) Psychological difficulties
c) Unfamiliarity of sounds
d) All the above
Ans. d

155. Reading is an important skill because of:-
a) Its practical utility
b) doing some job
c) after leaning the school
d) All the above
Ans. d

156. Reading needs:-
a) A speaker
b) A listener
c) A book
d) A teacher
Ans. c

157. Reading is beneficial because:-
a) It gives practice is pronunciation
b) It is a gateway of knowledge
c) It enriches the reader’s vocabulary
d) All the above
Ans. d

158. The skill which develops the comprehension power is:-
a) Listening b) Speaking
c) Reading d) writing
Ans. c

159. The most important aim of reading is:-
a) To learn correct pronunciation of new words
b) To read with good accuracy
c) To develop the power of understanding
d) All mentioned above
Ans. d

160. Reading aloud will help us:-
a) in showing that the are over busy
b) to bore others
c) in removing the feeling of shyness
d) to show that we can make other listen
Ans. c

161. Reading provides us with:-
a) Pleasure
b) healthy recreation
c) enrichment of vocabulary
d) All the above
Ans. d

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162. Breaking the long and difficult words with syllables help us:-
a) in doing something new
b) in easy learning
c) in keeping us busy
d) None of the above
Ans. b

163. The letter which is not pronounced while reading is called
a) dead letter
b) silent letter
c) extra letter
d) none of the above
Ans. b

164. Letters and their sounds in English language are:-
a) similar
b) extra alike
c) not exactly alike
d) we can’t say
Ans. c

165. Scanning a type of reading is of great importance.
a) executives
b) administrations
c) professors
d) all the above
Ans. d

166. Speedy reading gives rise to:-
a) improvement in reading speed
b) fastest speed
c) locating quickly specific information
d) None of the above
Ans. a

167. Silent reading means:-
a) No finger movement b) No eye movement
c) No head movement d) Speechless reading
Ans. d

168. Skimming (a type of reading) means:-
a) Obtaining more important information out of a lot of material
b) Slow reading
c) Reading with less speed
d) Reading loudly
Ans. a

169. Intensive reading is helpful in:-
a) deep study of the language
b) minute study of the language
c) through study of the language
d) All the above
Ans. d

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170. One of the best ways to test grasping power of the students is:-
a) composition
b) comprehension
c) Application
d) Clarification
Ans. b

171. The sentence gives within inverted commas is called:-
a) Reporting verb
b) Reporting data
c) Reporting words
d) Reported speech
Ans. d

172. The words which are similar in sound but different in meaning are generally called as:-
a) Wrong words
b) difficult words
c) confused words
d) spelt words
Ans. c

173. A displayed sheet with announcement, intimation, warning, formal declaration of intention, etc is
called.
a) Report
b) Notice
c) Hoording
d) Signboard
Ans. b

174. Discussion means
a) Talk about a topic in detail
b) write about a topic
c) Oral or written expression of thoughts in detail
d) All the above
Ans. a

175. Writing is a :-
a) receptive skill
b) productive skill
c) both receptive and productive
d) we cannot say
Ans. b

176. Writing should be:
a) illegible b) unattractive c) unclear d) degible
Ans. d

177. Four lines principle is observed in:-
a) Writing Hindi letters
b) Writing Indian languages
c) Writing English alphabet
d) Writing Sanskrit letters
Ans. c

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178. Capital & Small letters are used in:-
a) Hindi
b) Sanskrit
c) Marathi
d) English
Ans. d

179. Writing a story, poem incidental narratives etc. are called:-
a) Reading
b) Creative Reading
c) Creative writing
d) None of the above
Ans. c

180. We work in the field _______ morning till night. Choose correct option for the above blank space.
a) into
b) at
c) from
d) of
Ans. c

181. Kashmir is the _____ place on the earth. Choose the correct option for the blank space.
a) Good
b) Better
c) Best
d) None of the above
Ans. c

182. They saw each other _____ did not talk. Choose correct option for the blank space.
a) and
b) but
c) so
d) as
Ans. b

183. What is the used for measuring temperature?
a) Ameter
b) Thermometer
c) Barometer
d) Galvanometer
Ans. b

184. There is a ______ against every action
a) reaction b) activity
c) act d) None of the above
Ans. c

185. The opposite word for “simple” IS:
A) complete
b) undone
c) very
d) difficult
Ans. d

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186. A creative art where the writer points his own would of words is:-
a) reading
b) listening
c) writing
d) speaking
Ans. c

187. Writing has the following sub-skills:-
a) empressing information
b) developing an idea
c) emphasizing a point
d) All the above
Ans. d

188. The good writing in English depends on:-
a) size of letters
b) neat & clean writing
c) legibility
d) All the above
Ans. d

189. Punctuation marks are very important in written work because:-
a) they show whether the sentence is complete
b) They show when we stop in sentence
c) They show whether the sentence is a question
d) All the above
Ans. d

190. Composition or writing work may be of:-
a) Two types
b) Three types
c) Four types
d) Five types
Ans. a

191. An extension to the writing paragraph is called:-
a) Letter writing
b) Story writing
c) Preces Writing
d) Essay writing
Ans. d

192. The characteristic of stories is not:-
a) emotions b) appealing to heart
c) reality d) imagination
Ans. c

193. The aim of writing skill is to:
a) Pass the period
b) Keep the students buys
c) develop the skill of creativity writing
d) None of the above
Ans. c

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194. The main characteristic of letter writing is:-
a) that it is an art
b) that it starts from the address of the sender
c) that it ends with name or signature of the sender
d) All the above
Ans. d

195. The main function of writing creatively is:-
a) to build weak base of imagination
b) to build weak base of observation
c) to build strong base of imagination & observation
d) None of the above
Ans. c

196. What are the steps of essay writing?
a) selection of topic
b) Introduction of the topic
c) Discussion & description & conclusion
d) All the above
Ans. d

197. Steps of letter writing are:-
a) Address & Date b) Solution
c) Body of the letter d) All the above
Ans. d

198. Choose correct indirect narration of the following sentence:-
Ramesh said, “I am ill”.
a) Ramesh said that I will ill
b) Ramesh said that he is ill
c) Ramesh said that he was ill
d) Ramesh said that I was ill
Ans. c

199. Her birthday is _____ next Monday choose correct option for the about blank space:-
a) in b) at c) on d) for
Ans. c

200. The beauty ____ nature is the hand work of God. Choose the correct option of the blank space:-
a) a b) of c) the d) x
Ans. b

201. She was ____ poor to buy a house. Choose correct option for the blank space.
a) so b) too c) as d) such
Ans. b

202. Life has become very miserable ____ of the high prices. Choose correct option for the blank space in
a) So b) due c) in order d) because
Ans. d

203. Where is _____ book which I had give to you? Choose correct option for the blank space:-
a) and b) that c) so d) as
Ans. b

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204. One of the players ______ injured yesterday. Choose correct option for the blank space:-
a) is b) will c) was d) has
Ans. c

205. People remember the writer of ancient times with:-
a) their work & Knowledge
b) their wisdom & experience
c) Their personalities
d) all the above
Ans. d

206. People have made use of writing & it will be continued:-
a) until the present century
b) until the next century
c) until the end of universe
d) None of the above
Ans. c

207. The learners are required to house knowledge of:-
a) letters & Applications
b) Paragraphs, reports & invitation
c) art of empressing ideas
d) all the above
Ans. d

208. The different in English script and Indian script is that:-
a) in Indian languages there symbol showing vowel sounds.
b) The letters in Indian language denote vowel sounds
c) The letters in Indian languages are not different in form & shape.
d) None of the above
Ans. c

209. Listening is a :-
a) productive skill
b) receptive skill
c) passive skill
d) None of the above
Ans. b

210. Face to face conversation gives birth to:-
a) speaker
b) listener
c) communication
d) silence
Ans. c

211. What is the full form of “LSRW”?
Ans. Listening, Speaking, Reading, Writing

212. The primary segment of language is:-
a) letter b) word
c) sentence d) sound
Ans. d

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213. The language is primarily a:-
a) record
b) history
c) speech
d) event
Ans. c

214. Definetely a speech consists of:-
a) script
b) sounds
c) segments
d) features
Ans. b

215. The sound arranged in a unique accepted from makes:-
a) a sense to group of sounds
b) a meaningless production
c) a hearing tool
d) None of the above
Ans. a

216. Producing units of sounds accepted universally for the purpose of communication in a particular
language is known as:-
a) Reading
b) Listening
c) Speaking
d) Writing
Ans. c

217. Reading the sound and interpreting the message means:-
a) Speaking
b) Reading
c) Writing
d) Listening
Ans. d

218. Listening and Speaking:-
a) Separately come
b) go together
c) do not mix
d) can not say
Ans. b

219. We can not speak in absence of:-
a) Speaker
b) Mediator
c) Listener
d) None of them
Ans. c

220. Listening means:-
a) Receiving sounds b) Productive sounds c) Radiate sounds d) All the above
Ans. a

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221. What organs receiver the frequencies & transmit in the form of wave length to the brain?
a) eyes b) ears c) mind d) mouth
Ans. b

222. The three stages in receiving process are:-
a) Decoding b) Understanding
c) Response d) All the above
Ans. d

223. A person who enables us to develop listening skill technique is called:-
a) teacher
b) student
c) pupil
d) public
Ans. a

224. The sound having the particular frequency distinct from each sound is known as:-
a) Syllable b) Stress
c) Phenome d) intonation
Ans. c

225. The process of encoding and decoding message takes place in:-
a) Mouth b) ears
c) Vocal sacs d) mind
Ans. d

226. There are four stages through which a person can master the languages. They are:-
a) Phonic & morphic
b) Syntactice
c) Semantic
d) All the above
Ans. d

227. Casual listening is observed in:-
a) informal communication
b) formal communication
c) meaningless communication
d) All the above
Ans. d

228. Focussed listening is a kind of:-
a) Extensive listening
b) Intensive listening
c) Shallow Listening
d) Meaningless listening
Ans. b

229. In informal conversation:-
a) we are to respond spontaneously
b) We need not to be particular in our responses.
c) we react accordingly
d) all the above
Ans. d

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230. In formal communication:-
a) the listener is to be more attentive
b) the listeners have to concentrate on what the speaker is saying.
c) time listeners have to catch the words in its particular meaning
d) All the above
Ans. d

231. Language learning is similar to learning of:-
a) Economics
b) History
c) Philosopy
d) Swimming
Ans. d

232. What is the proper order in four basic skills?
a) Writing, Reading, speaking, listening
b) Reading, Writing, Listening, speaking
c) Speaking, Writing, Reading, Listening
d) Listening, Speaking, Reading, Writing
Ans. d

233. Language is best learnt by:-
a) Reading books
b) Regular practices
c) Listening to others
d) Writing articles
Ans. b

234. The number of basic skills in learning of English is:-
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 8
Ans. c

235. Problem of the students in learning English is:-
a) Lack of good books
b) Lack of facilities
c) Lack of audio, visuals Aids
d) All the above
Ans. d

236. The use of mother tongue is learning of English can be justified on:-
a) Primary level
b) Riddle Level
c) Higher level
d) None of the above
Ans. a

237. The syllabus in English should be geared to the:-
a) needs of the students
b) needs of the parents
c) needs of foreign countries
d) none of the above
Ans. a

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238. Talk between two persons is called:-
a) Pronunciation
b) Innovation
c) Dialogue
d) Modification
Ans. c

239. What is first like a small essay
a) letter
b) story
c) paragraph
d) application
Ans. c

240. Reading skills are:-
a) skimming
b) fanning
c) speedy racing
d) all the above
Ans. d

241. Silent reading emphasizes:-
a) Intonation b) word stress
c) meaning d) pronunciation
Ans. c

242. One of the most effective means of learning English is:-
a) Use the language more and more
b) Read the books more
c) Write as much as possible
d) None of the above
Ans. a

243. What is necessary to acquire to pronunciation ability ____?
a) a lot of conscious efforts
b) a lot of systematic efforts
c) a lot of regular practice
d) all the above
Ans. d

244. The class should recite a rhyme:-
a) Before the expert singer
b) after the expert singer
c) in absence of the expert singer
d) None of the above
Ans. b

245. Recitation removes:-
a) Shyness
b) Hesitation
c) Wrong pronunciation
d) All the above
Ans. d

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246. Recitation of Rhymes gives:-
a) motivation
b) taste of poetry
c) ear training
d) all the above
Ans. d

247. Practice of recitation of Rhyme daily corrects:-
a) Pronunciation
b) Stress & Intonation
c) Rhytm
d) All the above
Ans. d

248. Rhymess recitation:-
a) Spoils atmosphere
b) creates healthy atmosphere
c) Leave no effect
d) Pollutes environment
Ans. b

249. Which one is NOT an Article?
a) a
b) an
c) in
d) the
Ans. c

250. The dog took Ramesh’s shoes before _____ ran away.
a) it
b) they
c) because
d) and
Ans. a

251. Rearrange the letters to find a kitchen appliance.
a) toves
b) stove
c) vesto
d) voste
Ans. b

252. Which is the correct meaning for the word ‘pole’?
a) North or South ends or earth’s axis
b) a long metal or piece of wood
c) both options A & B
d) None of these
Ans. c

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253. To convert a ‘singular’ noun to ‘plural’ noun which of the following rules cannot be applied?
a) Noun + ez
b) Noun +s
c) Noun + es
d) Noun + ies
Ans. a

254. The plural of the word furniture is ______
a) furnitures
b) furnituries
c) furniture
d) furniture
Ans. d
Explanation: Furniture is an uncountable noun and is not used in the plural. You say: The house has some
beautiful old furniture. ✗Don't say: The house has some beautiful old furnitures.

255. Rio bought a screw driver for his friend and two _____ for himself.
a) screw driver b) screw drivers
c) screw driveries d) screw driverz
Ans. b

256. Fill the right action word in the sentence below –
The plumber _____ water pipes.
a) repair
b) repairs
c) is repair
d) are repairs
Ans. b

257. Use the correct action word in the sentence below –
I ______ football every evening with my friends
a) play
b) like
c) write
d) love
Ans. a

258. Complete the sentence with the correct action word –
The cup ______ when it fell off the table.
a) broke
b) fell
c) jumped
d) bounced
Ans. a

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259. Which one of the following sentences tells you that an action is completed?
a) I break the chair
b) I was break the chair
c) I broke the chair
d) I am breaking the chair
Ans. c

260. Fill the blanks with the correct describing word.
This is a _____ hammer.
a) cross
b) speak
c) peen
d) cross peen
Ans. d

261. Fill in the blank with the word that describe quality.
I am a ______ person.
a) hard working b) left
c) talk d) jump
Ans. a

262. Fill in the blank with the word that describe quality.
The cycle wheel is ______ in shape.
a) box
b) Chennai
c) round
d) triangle
Ans. c

263. Fill in the blank with the appropriate linking word.
You must sign out of your email account. Next close the browser tab and ____ switch off your computer.
a) finally
b) in the beginning
c) never
d) after a while
Ans. a

264. That was my pen. Where is _____?
a) pen
b) It
c) my
d) pens
Ans. b

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265. Is that Krishna’s helmet?
a) Yes, it is he
b) Yes, it is him
c) Yes, it is his
d) Yes, it is that
Ans. c

266. Replace the underlined word with the correct pronoun from the given options
I know Virat Kholi.
I know _________.
a) he
b) her
c) his
d) him
Ans. d

267. Which punctuation mark should be used in the following sentence?
Is there any site engineer here
a) ? (Question mark) b) , (comma)
c) . (full stop) d) ! (exclamation)
Ans. a

268. Which of the following is a sentence with the correct punctuation?
a) The box is full of nuts, bots, screws and nails.
b) The box is full of nuts bolts, screws and nails
c) The box is full of nuts bolts screws and nails?
d) The box is full of nuts; bolts; screws and nails!
Ans. a

269. State the kind of sentence.
a) Keep the tools in good condition
a) Declarative
b) Interrogative
c) Imperative
d) Exclamatory
Ans. c

270. Rearrange the words to form a question.
Kind of/ what/ is this/ machine?
a) Kind of machine what is this?
b) What kind of machine is this?
c) What kind machine is this of?
d) Machine is what kind of?
Ans. b

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271. Rearrange the jumbled words to form a meaningful sentence.
As supervisor/ in BHEL/ worked/ peter
a) As supervisor in BHEL worked Peter.
b) In BHEL worked Peter as supervisor.
c) Peter worked as supervisor in BHEL.
d) Supervisor as BHEL in Peter.
Ans. c

272. Rearrange the words to form a sentence –
Small pieces/ into/ cut/ the onions
a) Cut the onions into small pieces.
b) small pieces into cut the onions.
c) Cut onions into the small pieces.
d) Small pieces cut the onions into.
Ans. a

273. The sentence, “Please help me finish this” can be used to ______
a) mark a request b) None
c) giving opinion d) sharing information
Ans. a

274. Formal greetings are used when _____
a) meeting someone new or older in age
b) meeting higher officials
c) business meetings
d) All of the above
Ans. d

275. To whom can you say this sentence?
Hey, It’s been long time since we met.
a) Supervisors b) Friend c) Strangers d) The ITI Principal
Ans. b

276. When I introduce myself, it ______
a) helps us to know about ourself
b) helps other to know about friends
c) helps other to know about me
d) helps myself know about others
Ans. c

277. Which of the following expressions can be used to make requests?
a) I hope b) I believe c) Please d) Maybe
Ans. c

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278. The phrase, “Could you please tell me about…” is used to ….
a) Thank someone
b) Introduce someone
c) Ask for information
d) Give information
Ans. c

279. What will the response to this question be, “How was class today?”
a) It was fine, We learned many new things.
b) Oh, I see.
c) Is it so?
d) Thank you
Ans. a

280. What is the correct question to ask to get this response?
“It is 2 km from the railway station”
a) Where is railway station?
b) How far is the ITI from the railway station?
c) When is the train coming?
d) How are you going to the ITI?
Ans. b

281. When someone says ‘Thank you’ we should reply and say ______.
a) Thank you b) You’re welcome
c) Bye-Bye d) How are you?
Ans. b

282. Which of these phrases will you use to give opinion?
a) It is about…
b) Can you…?
c) Tell me about ….
d) I think …
Ans. d

283. Which of these is a form of non-verbal communication?
a) Talking to colleagues.
b) Facial expressions
c) Talking over phone
d) Talking to colleagues
Ans. b

284. Which expressions will you choose to address your boss in an email?
a) Hey Manickam b) Dear Manichkam d) Dear sir d) None
Ans. c

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285. I join metal parts together. I am a ______
a) fitter b) welder c) plumber d) machinist
Ans. b

286. Choose a correct reply to the given question: What do you do?
a) It is at Kumaran Nagar, Chennai.
b) I am a desktop publisher at ABC Software Solutions
c) I go by train
d) None
Ans. b

287. The expression, “To sum up..” is used to ______.
a) end a discussion b) initiate a discussion
c) Ask for an opinion d) Ask a doubt
Ans. a

288. Which expression would you choose to agree with someone?
a) In my experience… b) You’re absolutely right
c) It is considered.. d) Yes, but…
Ans. b

289. Vimla was leaning against the wall during the group discussion.
Which aspect of discussion did she miss?
a) impressive beginning b) correct posture
c) smile d) loud and dominating voice
Ans. b

290. When talking to a caller after putting them on hold, what should you say?
a) Nice that you have no other work
b) I told you that it was going to take long
c) Thank you for holding
d) None of the above
Ans. c

291. How many phases are there in a telephone call?
a) 2 b) 4 c) 6 d) 3
Ans. d

292. You are on a call and are not able to hear well. How will you ask the person to be louder?
a) Can you speak loudly?
b) Could you please speak a little louder?
c) Speak loudly
d) None of the above
Ans. b

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293. You are having a conversation with your colleague and then your phone rings. What would you say?
a) You will ignore the call.
b) You will request your colleague to wait and you answer the important call
c) Answer the phone and put the caller on hold
d) You will talk to the caller and leave your colleague stranded
Ans. b

294. When giving negative information over phone call, how should you speak?
a) Just speak
b) Speak loudly
c) Should not answer the call at all
d) Should be polite
Ans. d

295. Choose the odd word.
a) please
b) sorry
c) paper
d) thanks
Ans. c

296. Fill in the blank with the right word.
The company _______ goods to Vietnam
a) Exports
b) Buys
c) Falls
d) Goes
Ans. a

297. What will be the right statement for …?
There is fire in the factory.
a) Water problem is solved
b) Entry is restricted.
c) You can go inside
d) We won the match
Ans. b

298. Rearrange the following words to from a sentence.
Oldman/ reading/ was/ the/ newspaper
a) Newspaper was reading the oldman
b) newspaper reading the oldman
c) The old man was reading newspaper
d) None of these
Ans. c

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299. Frame a question for this response.
I missed the bus.
a) Why late?
b) Why are you late?
c) What are you doing?
d) Why missed the bus?
Ans. b

300. Change the sentence to past tense.
He is writing.
a) She is writing. b) He writing
c) He was writing d) We are writing
Ans. c

301. Which expression will you use to introduce yourself?
a) My name is ….
b) I am ….
c) Pleased to meet you, I am ….
d) All the above
Ans. d

302. How will you disagree politely?
a) I don’t like what you say..
b) I don’t agree
c) I am afraid I disagree with you in this
d) I am afraid
Ans. c

303. Name the main skill that helps to learn other language skills like reading, writing.
a) Reading
b) Speaking
c) Writing
d) Listening
Ans. d

304. Listen to the teacher making the following announcement –
A team of painters are coming tomorrow to paint the walls. There are plastic sheets in my room on the
desk. I want you to put them over your desks.
Now, answer the question. What does the teacher want her trainees to do?
a) Bring the paint from her room.
b) Take the books from her desk
c) Cover the desks with plastic sheets
d) None of these
Ans. c

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305. What does listening involve?
a) Hearing
b) Understanding & Responding
c) None of these
d) Both A & B
Ans. d

306. Maintaining tools in good condition is _______
a) unnecessary b) essential
c) equal d) formal
Ans. b

307. Where you have been all these _______?
a) While b) Days c) During d) Always
Ans. b

308. Rahul enjoys ______ with his pet dog.
a) playing
b) writing
c) doing
d) washing
Ans. a

309. “Razia enjoys playing in the rain.” The naming word in this sentence is ______
a) Razia
b) enjoys
c) the
d) rain
Ans. a

310. Today’s weather is going to be ________.
a) Hopeful
b) Warm
c) Blue
d) Urgent
Ans. b

311. Pick the sentence with correct punctuation.
a) Where is the generator?
b) Where is the generator!
c) Where is the generator.
d) Where is the generator,
Ans. a

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312. Identify the kind of sentence.
Leave the room immediately.
a) Interrogative
b) Exclamatory
c) Imperative
d) Declarative
Ans. c

313. I am a welder. I work with _____
a) nail polish b) robots c) welding tools d) laptops
Ans. c

314. When you say “I am sorry, pls come tomorrow”, you are _____
a) being rude b) fighting c) ignoring d) being polite
Ans. d

315. The phrase, “May I explain what I mean? Is used to _____.
a) elaborate b) apologise c) agree d) disagree
Ans. a

316. “Hey, Come and join us.” To whom will you say this?
a) teacher b) friend c) parent d) supervisor
Ans. b

317. Choose the correct response to the given question
“Has Mallika called us for the party?”
a) She will go. b) I will certainly
c) Yes, she has d) Monday
Ans. c

318. The statement, “Please help me finish this” can be used to ____
a) Make a request
b) None
c) Giving an opinion
d) Share information
Ans. a

319. We need to read and type in English when we ______
a) read a newspaper
b) book tickets for train or movies
c) work in factory
d) clean machines
Ans. b

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320. _______ can help me learn English.
a) dedication b) fear c) anger d) shyness
Ans. a

321. To learn to speak in English, Which of the following will you need?
a) motivation b) interest c) effort d) all the above
Ans. d

322. Which of the following is a naming word?
a) Walk b) red c) Chennai d) slowly
Ans. c

323. Which of these words can be used to describe a ‘tree’?
a) tall b) mango c) beautiful d) all the above

324. In the sentence given below, choose the action word.
My father delivered the parcel.
a) My b) father c) delivered d) parcel
Ans. c

325. Which one of the following is a describing word?
a) eat b) repair c) hot d) soup
Ans. c

326. When is capital letter used?
a) Beginning of a sentence b) Names of persons
c) Names of places d) All the above
Ans. d

327. The word ‘when’ denotes ______
a) place b) thing c) person d) time
Ans. d

328. Even without speaking, people may understand your feelings through your _____
a) facial expressions b) body language
c) gestures d) All the above
Ans. d

329. A pencil is a
a) thin, long, wooden object used to write
b) thick, flat, wooden thing used to write
c) thin, long, glass thing object to write
d) thick, short, metallic thing used to write
Ans. a

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330. A college is a
a) ground with small building for playing
b) campus containing many buildings and big playgrounds where trainees learn
c) campus with many hospitals treating patients
d) ground with open spaces for birds and animals
Ans. b

331. Screen, popcorn, projector, air conditioning are all words related to
a) cinema theatre b) school
c) bus-stand d) police-station
Ans. a

332. A SIM card is
a) A big, heavy, round object inserted in mobile phones
b) A small, thin, rectangular object inserted in mobile phones
c) A small, round, thick object used in television
d) A small, thin, rectangular object inserted in transistors
Ans. b

333. A needle is a
a) thin, small object with a sharp point b) thick, big object with a blunt point
c) thin, small object with a blunt point d) thin, big object with a sharp point
Ans. a

334. A container truck is a
a) small, industrial vehicle used to carry goods b) large, industrial vehicle used to carry goods
c) large, passenger vehicle used to carry people d) small, industrial vehicle used to carry water
Ans. b

335. A helmet is a
a) hard, round protective gear
b) soft, long gear for motorists
c) hard, rectangular protection wear
d) soft, triangular protective gear for motorists
Ans. a

336. A godown is a
a) small, narrow space for walking
b) large, open space for playing
c) large, empty space for storing goods
d) small, busy place for selling goods
Ans. c

337. An email is a
a) chatting feature on phones without internet
b) virtual message exchanged between people using the internet
c) mail posted in a post office
d) speed post sent through the post office
Ans. b

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338. A computer keyboard is a
a) flat, square-shaped board with black and white keys
b) circular board with numeric keys
c) flat, rectangular board with alphanumeric and special keys
d) spherical object with colourful keys
Ans. c

339. The plural noun for ‘furniture’ is
a) furnitures
b) furnituries
c) furniture
d) furniture
Ans. a

340. I help to insert or remove screws. Who am i?
a) Hammer
b) Screw-driver
c) Ammeter
d) Pipette
Ans. b

341. The plural form of ‘tool’ is
a) tool b) tooles c) tools d) toolls
Ans. c

342. The Plural form of ‘laboratory’ is
a) laboratorys
b) lab
c) laboratories
d) laboratories
Ans. c

343. Which word is an odd one in the given list?
a) Delhi
b) Mumbai
c) Kolkata
d) Experiment
Ans. d

344. Complete the sentence with the appropriate action word. ‘The screw _____ by him.’
a) was fixed
b) are fixed
c) were fixed
d) was fixing
Ans. a

345. The electrical wires ___ and it is dangerous.
a) is hanging b) are hanging
c) hanged d) hang
Ans. b

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346. Plastics _____ to be processed before its industrial use.
a) need b) is needing c) needed d) was needing
Ans. a

347. To convert a singular noun into plural, which of the following rule connot be used?
a) Singular noun +s
b) Singular noun +es
c) Singular noun +ez
d) Singular noun +ies
Ans. c

348. He drives a bright red sports car. It’s very ___.
a) wild
b) shallow
c) fast
d) tall
Ans. c

349. Identify the correct sentence type. Can I accompany you to the job fair?
a) Imperative
b) Declarative
c) Interrogative
d) Exclamatory
Ans. c

350. ‘Organizational, hazardous, sanitary, skilled’ are example of
a) naming words
b) action words
c) describing words
d) pronouns
Ans. c

351. I’m feeling really ____ today.
a) late
b) long
c) happy
d) round
Ans. c

352. The food at this supermarket is always ______.
a) gentle b) hopeful c) empty d) fresh
Ans. d

353. This house is _____ and old.
a) Young
b) electric
c) large
d) fat
Ans. c

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354. Which word is an adjective?
a) dirty b) ran c) away d) boy
Ans. a

355. which word is an adjective?
a) eat b) hot c) mend d) soup
Ans. b

356. Which word is and adjective?
a) beautiful
b) park
c) wave
d) sea
Ans. a

357. Today, the weather’s going to be _____.
a) hopeful b) warm c) blue d) urgent
Ans. b

358. Rearrange the words to form a sentence.
a. We were b. on an excursion c. to Goa d. going
i. adbc
ii. abdc
iii. acbd
iv. bcda
Ans. i

359. The phrase ‘Could you give me some idea of..’ is used for
a) Thanking someone
b) Introducing someone
c) Asking for information
d) Giving information
Ans. c

360. Pick the correctly punctuated sentence.
a) Who is the new instructor b) who is the new instructor
c) Who is the new instructor? d) who is the new instructor?
Ans. c

361. What will you say if someone asks ‘How do you go to the library from here?’
a) Not coming
b) Please take the next right and so straight
c) I think I borrowed the book last week
d) Yes, the library is open.
Ans. b

362. Your friend wants you to accompany him for a job fair but you can’t go. How will you decline politely?
a) I am not coming b) I don’t want to come c) I’m sorry I can’t come d) I will come
Ans. c

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363. Pick the correctly punctuated sentence.
a) The wrench is a useful instrument
b) the wrench is a useful instrument
c) The wrench is a useful instrument.
d) the wrench is a useful, instrument.
Ans. c

364. Pick the correctly punctuated sentence.
a) Where is the generator?
b) where is the generator?
c) Where is the generator.
d) where is the Generator.
Ans. a

365. Pick the correctly punctuated sentence.
a) The Ganges is a holy river b) the Ganges is a holy river
c) The Ganges is a holy river, d) The Ganges is a holy river.
Ans. d

366. My brother _____ to be an astronaut.
a) sees
b) looks
c) wants
d) speaks
Ans. c

367. Find the odd word in the following options.
a) Plumber
b) Welder
c) Fixing
d) Fitter
Ans. c

368. ‘Round, many, blue, rough, brown’ are example of
a) naming words
b) action words
c) describing words
d) pronouns
Ans. c

369. ____ words are used to refer to persons, places, things or ideas.
a) Naming
b) Describing
c) Action
d) Pronouns
Ans. a

370. Pick the naming word that refers to a place.
a) Truth b) Gujarat c) Feel d) They
Ans. b

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371. Which word is an odd one in the given list?
a) Mahatma Gandhi b) Vallabhai Patel c) Kolkata d) Pandit Nehru
Ans. c

372. Complete the sentence with the appropriate action word. ‘The plumber is ___ the tap’.
a) fighting b) fitting
c) flowing d) freeing
Ans. b

373. Her hair is long and _____.
a) curly
b) happy
c) slim
d) late
Ans. a

374. What will be the response to the statement ‘How was class today?’
a) It was fine. We learned many new things
b) Oh, I see
c) Thank you
d) Is it so?
Ans. a

375. Which word is an adjective?
a) after
b) pretty
c) taste
d) bank
Ans. b

376. Which of the following expression can be used to make requests?
a) I hope b) Please repeat c) I believe d) Maybe
Ans. b

377. Which of the following expressions can be used to make an enquiry?
a) I’m sorry
b) Can you tell me..?
c) Is it so?
d) Thank you
Ans. b

378. Identify the correct sentence type. Did you apply for the apprenticeship program?
a) Imperative b) Declarative
c) Interrogative d) Exclamatory
Ans. c

379. Which of the following is used to begin a sentence?
a) Lower case letters b) Full stop
c) Capital letters d) Comma
Ans. c

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Communication Skills

1. Which one is a “Do’s” of discussion etiquettes?
a) Loose your temper
b) Listen to others
c) Talk about irrelevant details
d) Use impolite or rude language
Ans. b

2. Which one is “Don’t” of discussion etiquette?
a) Be open minded b) Use moderate tone
c) Listen to others d) Argue unnecessary
Ans. d

3. A normal person can speaks _____ words per minute.
a) 125-150
b) 150-175
c) 100-125
d) 175-200
Ans. a

4. An example of communication channel is-
a) Feedback b) face-to-face conversion c) context d) noise

5. A commercial business letter is a letter written in…….language.
a) Formal b) informal c) Formal and informal d) None of these
Ans. a

6. We should ______ during communication.
a) Not listen the speaker, carefully b) Interface to the speaker
c) Listen to the speaker, carefully d) All of these
Ans. c

7. Types of skill development includes-
a) Speaking b) Listening
c) Negotiating d) All of these
Ans. d

8. Kinesthetic is the interpretation of body language such as-
a) Facial expressions
b) Gestures
c) Non-verbal behavior related to movement
d) All of these
Ans. d

9. The effective communication is –
a) Clarity b) Information overload
c) Emotional State d) All of these
Ans. a

10. Which communication is important for future reference?
a) Oral b) Written c) Both A & B c) None of these
Ans. b

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11. The Element of communication is-
a) clarity
b) Anxiety
c) Information Overload
d) Feedback
Ans. d

12. Communication is a non-stop________.
a) Paper b) Process c) Programme d) Plan
Ans. b

13. In______ listening the main intension is to seek certain information which will be appreciated.
a) Empathetic b) Appreciative c) Evaluative d) Dialogic
Ans. b

14. _______context refers to the similarity of backgrounds between the sender and the receiver.
a) Physical
b) Social
c) Cultural
d) Chronological
Ans. b

15. For effective communication, there has to be a ______ and a receiver.
a) Transmitter b) Painter c) Sender d) Carpenter
Ans. c

16. Once the message is encoded in a desired format it is transferred through a medium is called_______.
a) Channel b) Medium c) Media d) Way
Ans. a
17. Our dress code is an example of ______communication.
a) Verbal b) Nonverbal c) Written d) Spoken
Ans. b

18. It is important to consider proper ______ where you are giving your presentation.
a) Darkness b) Lightning c) Lighting d) Ventilation
Ans. c

19. Communication is __________
a) Exchange of information b) Piece of information
c) Bank of information d) Reservoir of information
Ans. a

20. Written communication uses __________.
a) Letter b) Body language c) Speech d) Computer
Ans. a

21. Which of the following is not part of effective communication?
a) Message b) channel c) Feedback d) Radio
Ans. d

22. Eye contact is considered to be which of the following communication?
a) Verbal b) Non verbal c) Oral d) Written
Ans. b

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23. According to body language, biting of nails indicates-
a) Stress b) Happy c) Relaxed d) All of these
Ans. a

24. Which of the following is considered to be effective listening skill?
a) Stop talking when speaker is talking
b) Focus on the speaker
c) Encourage Speaker
d) All of these
Ans. d

25. Which one is a “Do’s” of discussion etiquettes?
a) Loose your temper b) Talk about irrelevant details
c) Listen to others d) Use impolite or rude language
Ans. c

26. What does this SMS mean
“R u de ?C u 2 nite”
a) You rude and cute b) Are you rude? I will cut you to down to size
c) Are you there? See you tonight d) Are you dear? There is a queue at night.
Ans. c

27. Prakashis a fresh diploma holder attending an interview. He was asked by the interviewer “Where do
you see yourself five years from now?” Which of the following do you think is the best answer?
a) In five years I believe I would risen to the position of project leader.
b) I don’t know
c) I don’t plan that far ahead
d) I think in five years I will be working in another company.
Ans. a

28. “ Hello Pradeep. This is Sulaiman. My colleague John told me that Raja called me at 11. Is he avaible ?“
In this conversation identify the sender and the receiver of the message?
a) Sender Sulaiman, Receiver pradeep
b) Sender Pradeep, Receiver Sulaiman
c) Sender Raja, Receiver Sulailman
d) Sender John, Receiver Pradeep
Ans. a

29. What is the problem in the following message?“ Come and collect your daughter’s report card on
October 20, 2013 at 11 a.m from the class teacher.”
a) it is too short
b) It is not courteous
c) it is incomplete
d) it has mistakes
Ans. a

30. Identify where would come across the following message : “Kindly consider my application favourably
and give me an opportunity to prove my credential at a personal discussion”.
a) Circular
b) Memo
c) Radio announcement
d) Job application letter
Ans. d

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31. Deepa who is working in a software institute receives a call from student asking for the director who has
gone out. Which of the following would be a suitable response over the telephone?
a) Why are you asking for the director? I can answer any of your queries.
b) I am sorry the director is not available at the moment. May I take a message for him?
c) I don’t know where the director has gone
d) You can’tspeake to the director
Ans. b

32. Which one is the barrier to speaking ?
a) Nervousness b) Stress
c) Lack of time d) Cultural barrier
Ans. a

33. Which sentence expresses your agreement in a group discussion?
a) Let me try to understand your view
b) Personally I don’t think it is like that
c) I accept your view point on this issue
d) Yes, but people don’t actually do such things.
Ans. c

34. What is the appropriate response for the following greeting Ram : Hi, I am Ram,
How are you? I have joined as tool Engineer.
a) Hi , I am fine. Nice meeting you, I am sonu , I work as work as video creator.
b) Oh, bye then !
c) I am working and I am very busy. See you tomorrow.
d) Ok so what?
Ans. a

35. What is the problem with the following message? A meeting is called to discuss the function on the
October 18, 2013.
a) The message threatens the receiver
b) The message is over emotional
c) The message is judgemental
d) The message is ambiguous
Ans. c

36. “Hello Raj. This is Mohan. I received the book on Abdul Kalam by courier yesterday”. In this
conversation who is the receiver of the message?
a) Mohan b) Courier c) Raj d) Abdul Kalam
Ans. c

37. What is the appropriate response for the following telephonic query?
a) Telephone operator : Hello, this is SVS
Electronics. Can I help you ?
a) When did you mail your resume yesterday
b) I like coffee, do you ?
c) Yes, I am Karthik, I would like to speak to your M.D.
d) I finished my homework now
Ans. c

38. Identify the kind of communication used in the following “ Please find the assignment attached”
a) Memo b) SMS c) Telephone conversation d) E-mail
Ans. d

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39. Which one of the following is written communication?
a) Speech
b) Discussion
c) Presentation
d) Report
Ans. d

40. What is the appropriate response of the following greeting Yashwant: Hi, I am Yashwant, How are You?
I have jointed as Chief Medical Officer
a) OK so what ?
b) Oh, bye them!
c) Hi, I am fine, Nice meeting you, I am vinay, I work as Director of Medical Services.
d) I am working and I am very busy. See you tomorrow
Ans. c

41. “Hello Ramsingh. This is Surjitsingh. I receive letter on about Ravishankar’s function by speed post
yesterday”. In this conversation who is the receiver of the message ?
a) Ramsingh b) Surjthsingh c) Ravishankar d) Speed post
Ans. a

42. What is the appropriate response for the following telephone query?
Telephonic operator : Hello this is private Hospital. Can I help you?
a) I finished my regular work now
b) I like sweet, do you?
c) Yes, I am Arun, I would like to speak to your Chief Doctor
d) When did you mail your resume yesterday?
Ans. c

43. What is the appropriate response for the following telephonic query?
Saranya : Can you please send an Electrician for checking my fan in reading room?
a) Where are you working madam?
b) I don’t think we have any one available
c) Sure Madam, we will send on Electrician at the earliest. Can you give me your address?
d) I am working and I am very busy please call us tomorrow?
Ans. c

44. Communication is the act of transmitting and receiving.
a) Money b) Award c) Property d) Information
Ans. d

45. The communication used by Dogs by barking is…….
a) Sound b) Visual c) Body language d) Facial expression
Ans. a

46. What is the percentage of body language during face to face communication?
a) 27% b) 38% c) 55% d) 60 %
Ans. c

47. Choose the correct context of the given expression in group discussion “Excuse me, I would _____”
a) interrupting b) Agreeing
c) Summarising d) Emphasizing point
Ans. a

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48. Communication that involves exchanging information without use of words is called _____
a) verbal communication
b) pictorial communication
c) written communication
d) non verbal communication
Ans. d

49. Expansions of SMS is _____
a) Simple message service
b) Short mail service
c) Simple memo service
d) Short message service
Ans. d

50. Gesture “biting nails” shows _____
a) boredom
b) insecurity
c) confidence
d) defensiveness
Ans. b

51. Gesture “Brisk & Erect walking” Shows
a) boredom
b) defensiveness
c) confidence
d) insecurity
Ans. c

52. Listening to Railway or Flight announcement, teacher’s lecture comes under _____
a) critical listening
b) appreciative listening
c) therapeutic listening
d) comprehensive listening
Ans. d

53. Noise, Physical discomfort of hotness or coldness comes under ______
a) culture barrier b) language barrier
c) perception barrier d) environment barrier
Ans. d

54. Rise and fall of pitch of voice is called _____
a) vowel
b) intonation
c) consonant
d) pronunciation
Ans. b

55. What is drawback of role playing?
a) Builds confidence
b) Develops listening skills
c) Doesn’t provide real situation
d) Develop creative problem solving
Ans. c

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56. Which factor helps to motivate people?
a) Lack of focus b) Lack of confidence
c) Lack of direction d) Lack of nervousness
Ans. d

57. Which one is 3P’s of public speaking?
a) Possess, present, practice
b) prepare, practice, perform
c) Publish, Pleasant, Perfect
d) Perfection, Performance, Painstaking
Ans. b

58. Which one is a “Do’s” for interview ethiquette?
a) Nervousness
b) Informal dress
c) Clam approach
d) Excessive gesture
Ans. c

59. Which one is a barrier of speaking?
a) Poor listening
b) Lack of time
c) Nervousness
d) Reluctant to read
Ans. c

60. Which one is Do’s in interview etiquette?
a) Dress too casually
b) Lie about abilities to get job
c) Be confident
d) Too excessive in gesture
Ans. c

61. Which one is a good communication?
a) Message is clear and direct
b) Message is ambiguous
c) Sender attacks receiver
d) Receiver doesn’t listen to sender
Ans. a

62. Which one is an email etiquette?
a) keep email short
b) send virus infected mail
c) forward false messages
d) Use all caps or small letter in email
Ans. a

63. Which one is considered to be a good communication?
a) message is ambiguous
b) Sender is positive towards receiver
c) Receiver doesn’t listen to sender
d) Sender attacks receiver
Ans. b

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64. Which one is considered to be a poor communication?
a) Message is ambiguous
b) Message is clear and direct
c) Receiver is open to listen
d) Sender is positive towards receiver
Ans. a

65. Which one is NOT a benefit of oral communication?
a) It is quick b) It is for record
c) It is direct d) Feedback is immediate
Ans. b

66. Which one is NOT a part of Triple ‘A’ listening?
a) Anxiety
b) Attitude
b) Attention
d) Adjustment
Ans. a

67. Which one is NOT an element of 3P’s of public speaking?
a) prepare
b) practice
c) posses
d) perform
Ans. c

68. Which one is the latest and effective means of modern communication?
a) Fax b) Postal mail
c) Electronic mail d) Message through TV
Ans. c

69. Renu thinks about expressing her thanks to her friend Rita for helping her before exams. Which of the following
options will best suit the situation?
a) Rita I’m so sorry
b) Rita, thank you for all your help
c) Rita, I’ll see you later
d) Rita, thanks
Ans. b

70. Your friend makes a mistake and you want to point out to him. Which of the following options will best suit the
situation?
a) I need to talk to you about something
b) I’m sorry
c) You are a bad person
d) Can we eat something
Ans. a

71. The teacher said, “Write the topic of the experiment on the top right corner of the page” is
a) A clearly communicated instruction
b) A Friendly request
c) Not clear to understand
d) An apology to a friend
Ans. a

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72. In effective communication, one has to
a) Keep listening always
b) Keep speaking always
c) Listen carefully and speak usefully
d) Listen and speak carelessly
Ans. a

73. When the communicator uses harsh words to point out errors it will
a) Be well received
b) Lead to more problems
c) Solve the issue
d) Help the receiver
Ans. b

74. When you say “I’ve topped the class this year!” your voice will sound
a) Sand and depressed
b) Doubtful and down
c) Excited and confident
d) Arrogant and proud
Ans. c

75. People who read news on television need to maintain proper levels of
a) Voice
b) Posture
c) Eye contact
d) All of the above
Ans. d

76. ‘Hey, I am saran. I am from Ahmedabad. I am really fond of running and travelling!’ is a
a) Formal introduction b) Informal introduction
c) Both of the above d) None of these
Ans. b

77. When you shake hands with an interviewer, it has to be
a) Tight and firm
b) Firm and confident
c) Loose and quick
d) Sweaty and tight
Ans. b

78. When you chat with new friends, you can speak about your
a) Technical skills
b) Hobbies
c) Financial issues
d) Qualifications
Ans. b

79. The top communication skills that can helps in one’s career are
a) Listening and confidence
b) Friendliness and open-mindedness
c) Non-verbal communication
d) All of the above
Ans. d

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80. What does to “hold on” during telephone call mean?
a) To hold the phone well
b) to wait for a short time
c) to put the phone down
d) to switch on a phone
Ans. b

81. Which one of these phrases is not related to a telephone call?
a) make up
b) pick up
c) hold on
d) call back
Ans. a

82. It is necessary to be polite while speaking on the phone.
a) True b) False
Ans. a

83. What would do if someone gives messages during a telephone call?
a) refuse to note down if you don’t want to pass the message
b) request to wait till you get pen and paper to take down
c) ask the caller to talk later
d) none of the above
Ans. b

84. When you are not able to repair an equipment in time
a) You can tell the customer to wait for one week as you have other jobs
b) You can request the customer to give you one more week
c) You can ask the customer to go to another company if he/she wants
d) you can hide yourself when the customer comes
Ans. b

85. You must ask the callers before you put on hold
a) True b) False
Ans. a

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86. Slang words and impolite words are not prevented in formal phone calls.
a) True
b) False
Ans. b

87. Rasheed picked up the phone means
a) he took a phone that was lying down
b) he kept the phone up in the table
c) he answered the phone
d) none of the above
Ans. c

88 A well-written letter of application and resume help in creating a good first impression.
a) True b) False
Ans. a

89. Resume is a brief description of one’s qualifications, skills and experience.
a) True b) False
Ans. a

90. Leave letters written to the instructor and principal are informal letters, as you meet them in your institute
almost every day.
a) True b) False
Ans. b

91. NCVT means
a) Natinal centre for vocational training
b) National Council for vocational training
c) National cricket for vocational training
d) National centre for vocational training
Ans. b

92. Resume introduce applicants to employers.
a) True
b) False
Ans. a

93. We can write anything in resumes. We do not have to prove everything
a) True
b) False
Ans. b

94. Non-verbal communication includes spatial distance, bodily movements, appearance, eye contact and facial
expressions.
a) True
b) False
Ans. a

95. Appropriate body language and neat appearance help achieve success in interviews as the give confidence.
a) True
b) False
Ans. a

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96. Looking into the speaker’s eyes while listening and listener’s eyes while speaking shows one as a confident
person.
a) True b) False
Ans. a

97. How should one greet people?
a) with a sad face b) with a pleasant smile
c) with an angry face d) with fear
Ans. b

98. Personal hygiene includes
a) shiny teeth, clean hair & nails
b) stained teeth, clean hair & nails
c) stained teeth, dirty hair & clean nails
d) stained teeth, dirty hair & nails
Ans. a

99. Playing with phone or other objects while listening to someone is good behaviour.
a) True b) False
Ans. b

100. Lack of awareness of the difference between good and bad touch leads to unwanted experiences.
a) True b) False
Ans. a

101. Which one of the following is an example of bad touch
a) pat from the teacher
b) dad giving bath to you as a small child
c) brother pulling your cheeks
d) stranger touching you when you are alone
Ans. d

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102. Bad touch is when someone I don’t know touches me or hits me.
a) True b) False
Ans. a

103. When someone you do not know touches you, it is good to
a) shout ‘NO’ loudly
b) go away from the person/place
c) tell an elder of someone trusted
d) all of the above
Ans. d

104. I feel bad, hurt, sad and scared, when I experience a bad touch.
a) True b) False
Ans. a

105. I feel good, happy, loved and protected, when I experience a good touch
a) True b) False
Ans. a

106. Most interviews have the question “Tell me about yourself” Why?
a) The interviewer expects a short and quick introduction of the candidate.
b) The interviewer expects to know about the family of the candidate.
c) The interviewer wishes to know the name of the candidate.
d) The interviewer wants to know where the candidate studies.
Ans. a

107. When one starts looking for the job the first step is to
a) Identify the right job for you
b) Apply for all the jobs
c) Check for pay scales of the job
d) Go for interviews
Ans. a

108. If an interview is scheduled at 10 am in the morning, it is better to reach the venue at
a) 10 a.m. b) 10.30 a.m. c) 9.30 a.m. d) 7 a.m.
Ans. c

109. The folder for interview preparation should contain
a) Resume
b) identity cards
c) mark sheets
d) All of the above
Ans. d

100. If you are not selected at the end of an interview it is good to
a) reply thanking the employer for this opportunity
b) discourage other candidates
c) leave the place immediately
d) ask the reason for not being selected
Ans. a

101. When you asked about your interests other than academics, your answer should be
a) genuine b) imaginary
c) irrelevant d) funny
Ans. a

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102. The Curriculum Vitae should be written containing
a) facts b) opinions
c) false statements d) none of the above
Ans. a

103. Pick the don’t when participating in the group discussion.
a) maintain eye contact while speaking
b) speak clearly and sensibly
c) allow others to speak
d) listen to others carelessly
Ans. d

104. Pick the best way to respond to the question ‘Shall we start the discussion?’
a) To conclude
b) But, don’t you think
c) Yes, let’s start
d) To sum up
Ans. c

105. When you speak to a person, you need to
a) Look at the person in a friendly manner
b) Stare at the person
c) Look away from the person
d) Look at the floor
Ans. a

106. When a person disagrees with our opinion, we should
a) Argue strongly b) Fight with the person
c) Listen to his/her view d) keep quiet
Ans. c

107. Pick the apt phrase you should use when somebody asks you, ‘Can you tell me more about this?
a) You are most welcome. b) Thanks a lot
c) Of course d) Really?
Ans. c

108. When members get diverted and speak different ideas not related to a given topic, what would you do?
a) Tell them that they do not know the rules of a discussion
b) You keep talking only about the topic
c) Alert them and bring them back on track
d) Leave the discussion
Ans. c

109. What can be done to avoid repeating the ideas that others have already told?
a) We should express our idea even if it is the same
b) We should listen carefully to avoid repetition
c) We should apologise for repetition
d) We can listen randomly
Ans. b

110. How do you ask for clarification?
a) That’s true b) Can you please clarify...?
c) Oh, I see. d) Thank you for your help
Ans. b

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111. You apply for an apprenticeship to your dream company but you receive a rejection mail. How will you handle
the situation?
a) You get depressed
b) You feel worthless
c) You thank them and move on
d) You send them an angry mail
Ans. c

112. When you fail an exam you had prepared well you
a) Feel you are unlucky
b) Analyse what went wrong
c) Lock yourself up in a room
d) You complain to your friends
Ans. b

113. A famous company has made an open call for hiring freshers. What will you do?
a) Think you’ll not make it anyway
b) Prepare a good resume and apply
c) fear rejection
d) Tell everyone that you are applying
Ans. b

114. When someone asks how much you value yourself, your answer will be
a) I don’t know
b) I am not valuable
c) I value myself a lot
d) None of the above
Ans. c

115. When others say hurtful things about us we should
a) value their words and believe it
b) Ignore such ideas and believe in ourselves
c) Talk hurtful things about them
d) Behave according to their words
Ans. b

116. If you are unable to continue your studies in school or college
a) You can learn from experience
b) You become illiterate
c) You cannot achieve anything
d) You have to depend on others forever
Ans. a

117. How do successful people handle failure?
a) They learn from their mistakes
b) They get demotivated
c) They blame others
d) They give up their ambitions
Ans. a

118. Identify the short term goal from the following
a) Maintaining good health b) Leading a happy life
c) Being helpful d) Learning to drive a car
Ans. d

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119. Identify a long term goal form the following
a) Mastering typing skills
b) Working for a reputed company
c) Using a computer
d) Learning a foreign language
Ans. b

120. Once we enter to a workplace, our communication has to be
a) Personal
b) careless
c) Professional
d) Useless
Ans. c

121. The people with whom you will have to communicate at the workplace include.
a) mostly friends
b) supervisors and co-workers
c) family members
d) classmates
Ans. b

122. Which of the following should be avoided while communicating at the workplace?
a) Eye contact
b) Crossing arms
c) Smile
d) Looking at your phone
Ans. d

123. What is the basic need for people at workplace to communicate?
a) people have different understanding about their work
b) for a smooth operation of the work in hand
c) to help and encourage each other
d) all of the above
Ans. d

124. What kind of emotional barriers can be overcome when people communicat?
A) fear
b) mistrust
c) jealousy
d) Both a and b
ans. d

125. Men and women have different ways to communicating at the workplace. Understanding these differences
relates to
a) cultural sensitivity
b) gender sensitivity
c) religious sensitivity
d) political sensitivity
Ans. b

126. Which of the options below need to followed strictly at the workplace?
a) requests of fellow workers b) policies and safety manuals
c) choice of food d) none of the above
Ans. b

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127. When you check your watch frequently while speaking to a supervisor, he or she will get
a) excited b) upset
c) irritated d) surprised
Ans. c

128. Professional networking are extremely beneficial because
a) they make a large group of friends
b) it is fun to know many people
c) they can help us find good opportunities
d) they can solve all our problems
Ans. c

129. Effective and easy ways to create a professional network are
a) Join online networking websites like linkedin, etc.
b) attend job fairs organized by both government and private companies
c) keep in touch with your teachers and fellow students
d) all of the above
Ans. d

130. It is useful to get recommendations and endorsements from
a) family members b) friends
c) school teachers d) former colleagues and friends
Ans. c

131. One effective way to make our social presence felt is
a) create a page about us on social media
b) keep sending messages to people about our qualifications
c) keep sharing images and videos
d) maintain secrecy about ourselves
Ans. a

132. Keeping our resume and contact card ready during networking events can help us find
a) good friends b) job opportunities
c) unwanted companions d) old friends
Ans. b

133. Why should we keep personal information private in social media?
a) our families will know about it otherwise
b) potential employers will do a backgrounds check
c) our friends will share it to others
d) social medial will steal our information
Ans. d

134. Professional networking can be done through
a) online only b) face-to-face communication
c) both online and face-to-face d) none of the above
Ans. c

135. Linkedin is a website that can be used to
a) meet new members of our profession
b) share photos and videos
c) watch movies
d) wish people on their birthdays
Ans. a

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136. Job fairs are great places for professional networking because
a) you can find like-minded people here
b) you can meet prospective employers there
d) you can learn about opportunities available in your field
d) all of the above
Ans. d

137. How often will you contact people in your professional network?
a) whenever you need something
b) communicate only when they contact you
c) keep calling them everyday
d) maintain a regular and meaningful communication
Ans. d

138. Communication is important for everyone in which of the following situations?
a) While studying in a college b) While attending interviews
c) While talking to friends d) All of the above
Ans. d

139. ‘Excuse me sir, may I come in?’ is a
a) Friendly way of apologizing b) Friendly way of thanking
c) Formal way of asking permission d) Formal way of apologizing
Ans. c

140. Misunderstanding in Communication can lead to
a) Good relationships b) Effective results
c) Problems in understanding d) Successful projects
Ans. c

141. A good communicator will always use
a) Short and simple language b) Long sentences
c) Rude words d) Complex language
Ans. a

142. When one has to express some difficult situation it is important to
a) Communicate everything clearly b) Do not say anything
c) Say just a few aspects of the problem d) Use complicated words
Ans. a

143. When we communicate with one another which of the following helps in making more meaning?
a) Words b) Body language
c) The language we use d) None of the above
Ans. b

144. An angry person’s body language will be
a) Calm and composed b) Nervous and aggressive
c) Friendly and smiling d) Relaxed and soothing
Ans. b

145. When you speak to someone who uses language you don’t know, you guess the meaning using
a) Facial expressions and gestures
b) Sounds of the language
c) Grammar of the language
d) Voice of the person
Ans. a

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146. When you give a speech it is always better to
a) Stand fixed
b) Walk fast from place to place
c) Stand slouching and bent
d) Stand straight and walk a little on the stage casually
Ans. d

147. One way of improving your communication skills is
a) Practice alone
b) Reject any feedback given
c) Practising with friends and getting feedback
d) keep observing others
Ans. c

148. Introducing ourselves effectively helps in creating a good impression among
a) Future friends b) Future employers
c) Teachers d) All of these
Ans. a

149. When you are in a formal situation, your facial expression needs to be
a) Smile but not laugh b) Laugh but not smile
c) Keep langhing d) Don’t smile
Ans. a

150. Details of place of study, branch and specialization should be communicated elaboratedly during
a) An interview b) Friendly chat
c) Group discussion d) Debate
Ans. a

151. While we communicate, it is important to pay attention to
a) Our verbal expression
b) Our non-verbal expression
c) Both verbal and non-verbal expression
d) Neither verbal nor non-verbal expression
Ans. c

152. Non-verbal expression include which of the following aspects?
a) Good eye contact
b) Standing or sitting position
c) Smile
d) All of these
Ans. d

153. It is important to always choose words to suit the person you are talking to because
a) It shows you are not interested in communicating with them
b) You need to show off your word knowledge
c) The other person needs to understand your message
d) Communication is always difficult
Ans. c

154. While the other person is talking, a good communicator will always
a) Listen carefully b) Plan the response
c) Ask too many questions d) Be impatient
Ans. a

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155. Why should you match your body language to the content of your talk?
a) Because communication is verbal
b) Because communication is visual
c) Because communication is both verbal and visual
d) None of the above
Ans. c

156. One way of showing interest when you have a conversation is
a) Summarizing their ideas at the end
b) Interfere as they speak
c) Fall asleep as they talk
d) Speaking your point of view when not asked
Ans. a

157. Recording oneself speak in a smart phone can be useful for
a) Looking as it whenever you are free
b) Assessing strengths as weakness in one’s communication
c) Showing to friends
d) Posting it on facebook
Ans. b

158. Meenu is thanking her friend Rita, for helping her before exams. What should Meenu say?
a) Rita I’m so sorry
b) Rita, I’ll see you later
c) Rita, thank you for all your help
d) Rita, thanks
Ans. c

159. Ankit made a mistake and Riya wants to point it out to him. Riya should say _____.
a) I’m sorry
b) You are a bad person
c) I need to talk to you about something
d) Can we eat something?
Ans. c

160. If someone is open minded and willing to change their view based on the valid opinion of others, they
are _
a) Good Communicators
b) Rigid communicators
c) Poor communicators
d) Difficult Communicators
Ans. a

161. Which of these is used introduce applicants to employers?
a) Leave Application b) Marriage Card
c) Resume d) Student ID
Ans. c

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162. Nodding the head is an important visual sign to show that you are listening.
a) True
b) False
Ans. a

163. Unawareness of the difference between good and bad touch leads to unpleasant experiences.
a) True
b) False
Ans. a

164. Why do most interviews have the question “Tell me about yourself”?
a) The interviewer expects to know about the family of the candidate.
b) The interviewer expects a short and quick introduction of the candidate
c) The interviewer wishes to know the name of the candidate.
d) The interviewer wants to know where the candidate studied
Ans. b

165. If the interviewer is testing your subject knowledge in the interview, you should ______.
a) Answer precisely and completely
b) Avoid the Question
c) Answer very shortly
d) give descriptive answers
Ans. a

166. As part of grooming, which of the following are essential for attending interviews?
a) casual clothes
b) strong perfume
c) more jewellery
d) Formal clothes
Ans. d

167. What is the ideal way to communicate at the workplace?
a) Showing respect and active listening
b) Displaying positive body language
c) Be willing to ask questions and a willingness to give feedback
d) All of these
Ans. d

168. Men and women need to be treated equally in the workplace. It is good to avoid ______.
a) commenting about women employees
b) harassing women employees
c) treating women employees badly
d) All of these
Ans. d

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169. We should be careful about what we share on social media because _____.
a) Our families will know about it otherwise
b) Potential employers may do a background check
c) our friends will share it to others
d) All of these
Ans. b

170. What is communication?
a) Encoding > Decoding
b) Send > Received
c) Receiver > Sender
d) Decoding > Encoding
Ans. a

171. How to recognize effective communication?
a) Expressions
b) Tone of Voice
c) Body language
d) All of the above
Ans. d

172. When a participant is quiet during a group discussion?
a) I will encourage them to participate
b) Use the chance to speak
c) Forget their presence
d) Speak on their behalf
Ans. a

173. When you are participating in the group discussion ______
a) listen to others carelessly
b) speak clearly and sensibly
c) maintain eye contact while speaking
d) allow others to speak
Ans. b

NIMI New Question Bank [160 MCQ in Hindi] PDF]

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IT Literacy

1. Which one is a brain of computer?
a) Keyboard b) CPU
c) Monitor d) Hard disk
Ans. b

2. A light sensitive device that converts drawing, printed text or other images into digital form is-
a) Keyboard b) Plotter c) Scanner d) OMR
Ans. c

3. Low level language is also called _____
a) source code
b) middle ware
c) machine language
d) assembly language
Ans. c

4. Full form of ATM is-
a) Any time money b) automatic teller machine
c) automatic money d) assist time money

5. Using on line banking, you can-
a) use pass book b) Transfer money c) use debit bills d) use credit bills

6. Key –board is a ---- device.
a) Output b) Input
c) both A and B d) None of these
Ans. b

7. E-mail servers accept, forward, deliver and …….. messages:
a) Store b) Delete
c) Change d) None of these
Ans. a

8. What is a website ?
a) Start a computer b) house where the inventor of internet lives
c) where spiders lives d) destination of the internet to find information
Ans. d

9. Which of the following points are to be born in mind, while reading emails?
(a.) Check spellings, use full sentence structure and use proper grammar.
(b.) Have a nice greeting: Hi, Hello etc.
(c.) Have a proper sign off Thank you, sincerely.
(d.) All the above

10. While shopping on the internet, you should.
(a.) Visit sites that look good and have good product
(b.) Visit sites that have a good reputation as trusted brand or established brands.
(c.) Visit as many sites as you can and download details.
(d.) All the above.

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11. A strong password has:-
(a.) More than 8 characters (b.) Contains numbers and symbols
c) Contains upper and lower case alphabets (d.)All the above

12. Operating systems have a special language called-
(a.) System code (b.) Reboot code
c) Binary code (d.) Linux code

13. What is internet?
a) Pizza stand b) world wide web
c) fisherman.net d) computer that are all linked together in a network

14. To find ms word in your computer.
a) Click on the computer b) click on the task view
c) click the start button d) click on the file explorer

15. A DVD stores only _______ where as a CD can store music, videos, and pictures.
a) Videos b) images c) audio d) files
Ans. a

16. Secondary storage device is .
a) Ram, Rom
b) hard disk
c) USB
d) none

17. What is the full form of ROM ?
a) Read only memory
b) revise only memory
c) read on memory
d) repeat only memory

18. Primary storage devices are
a) DVD b) RAM,ROM
c) CD d) USB

19. Home screen is called
a) Operating system b) desktop c) motherboard d) computer

20. Starting a computer is called
a) Booting b) operating c) scanning d) printing

21. Heart of the computer system is
a) Central processing unit b) window c) desktop d) keyboard

22. What is the full form of RAM ?
a) Random access memory b) random optical memory
c) received optical memory d) revise only memory

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23. To save an ms word file , press
a) CTRL+N B) CTRL+S C) CTRL+A D) CTRL+B

24. _______are used in meeting and presentation.
a) Led b) T.V.
c) LCD d) projector

25. Which of the following are email services?
a) Google.com b) cartoon network c) hotstar.com d) hotcrossmail.com

26. You can protect your computer from viruses and spyware by.
a) Looking your computer
b) setting up a username and password
c) installing antivirus and any spyware software.
d) avoiding the use of external hard disk

27. Which of the following input device is used in playing computer games?
a) scanner b) Light pen c) Joy stick d) Digital camera
Ans. c

28. Which of the following is not an input device?
a) Touch pad b) mouse c) printer d) joystick

29. A picture that represents a file is called an-
a) Library b) start menu c) icon d) double

30. What is the extension of files created in MS word
a) .dot b) .doc c) .dom d) .txt

31. Which of the following is not a network edge?
a) PC b) smartphone’s c) servers d) switch

32. Which of the following is used to capture and store scenery when you go to visit a hill station?
a) CPU b) Photo scanner c) Handheld scanner d) Digital camera
Ans. d

33. A ________ is used to CAD and CAM applications.
a) Printer b) Scanner
c) Barcode Reader d) Plotter
Ans. b

34. Two popular pointing device are ______.
a) MICR and OCR
b) Light Pen and Joy Stick
c) Mouse and Joy stick
d) Mouse and Digital Camera
Ans. c

35. 8 bits = ………..byte (s).
a) 3 b) 4 c) 1 d) 2
Ans. c

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36. External memory or ____ is a form of permanent storage.
a) Secondary memory b) Primary memory
c) Internal memory d) Random Access memory
Ans. a

37. GUI stands for_______.
a) Group User Interface b) Graphical Utility Interface
c) Graphical User Interface d) Guided User Interface
Ans. c

38. To move a file/ folder from one location to another, use _____ option.
a) Copy and Paste b) Cut and Paste c) Move and Paste d) Delete and Paste
Ans. b

39. _______ is a list of available commands.
a) Windows explorer b) Desktop c) Menu d) Icons
Ans. c

40. Different type of indentations are ______.
a) Left and Right b) First Line and Right
c) Left and First Line d) Left, First Line and Right
Ans. d

41. Before final printout is taken, you can see the _______ of the worksheet to see how it would appear in
the printout.
a) Print sample b) Page setup c) Print preview d) None of these
Ans. c

42. Broadband refers to ______.
a) Speed of data transfer b) Amount of data transfer
c) Both (a) & (b) d) None of these
Ans. a

43. BCC option is used to send a copy of e-mail to ______.
a) A blind person
b) Several people without letting them know sender’s address
c) Several people without letting the other recipients know
d) All of these
Ans. c

44. Which of the following two are the parts of CPU?
a) Control Unit b) Printer and Main Memory c) Control Unit & ALU d) ALU and Input device
Ans. c

45. Binary code are also known as –
a) Assembly language b) High level language
c) Prodedural language d) Machine language
Ans. d

46. MICR is mostly used-
a) Bank b) Railway c) To check examination copy d) All of these
Ans. a

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47. Date command is used to display-
a) Year b) Month c) Date d) All of these
Ans. d

48. What is the full form of PPP?
a) Point-to-point protocol b) Point-by-point protocol c) Point-in-point protocol d) None of these
Ans. a

49. What is the full form of HTML?
a) Hyper text markup language b) Hyper text main languge
c) Higher text markup language d) None of these
Ans. a

50. Which of the following speed is very fast?
a) LAN b) MAN c) WAN d) None of these
Ans. a

51. What is the full form of FTP?
a) File Transfer Protocol b) Frequent transfer protocol
c) file typical protocol d) first time protocol
Ans. a

52. In order to tell Excel that we are entering a formula in a cell, we must begin with an operator such as –
a) $ b) = c) @ d) +
Ans. b

53. Microsoft Word is an example of-
a) An operating system b) Processing device
c) Application software d) System software
Ans. c

54. LAN stands for—
a) Local Area Net b) Long Area Network c) Local Area Network d) Long Area Net
Ans. c

55. Which of the following should be used when you want to add a slide to an existing presentation?
a) File, add a new slide b) Insert, New slide c) File open d) File, new
Ans. b

56. The____ program compress large files into a smaller file.
a) WinZip b) Winshrink c) WinStyle d) None of these
Ans. a

57. Ctrl + C is used to –
a) Copy the selected text b) Cut the selected text
c) Paste the selected text d) Print the selected text
Ans. a

58. Which of the following is not the correct method of editing the cell content?
a) Press the Alt key b) Press F2 key
c) Click the formula bar d) Double click the cell
Ans. a

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59. Choose an appropriate recommendation for the following problem.
Problem : The computer is very slow and takes time to complete any work.
a) Get a new computer b) We should buy a new computer
c) New computer would be wonderful d) Old computer is still good
Ans. b

60. Input device of a computer is ………..
a) Monitor b) Printer c) Key board d) CD/DVD
Ans. c

61. In computers OS stands for-
a) Operating software b) Opening service c) Opening statement d) Operating system
Ans. d

62. The shortcut command to print a word document is-
a) Print screen b) Ctrl + P
c) Shift + P d) Alt + P
Ans. b

63 .Taskbar was first introduced by?
a) Window xp b) window 97 c) window 95 d) window 7

64. What command is used to make changes to existing file.
a) Save b) save as c) copy d) paste
Ans. a

65 . In order to save additional text to an existing file we use
a) Save as b) print c) save d) copy

66 . What is the full form of URI
a) Union rectification intermediatory b) united resouce identifier
c) Both a and b d) uniform resource identifier

67. The IT Act in india was enacted in which year?
a) 1996 b) 1998 c) 1999 d) 2000

68. WAN stands for……..
a) Winning And Networking b) Windows Access Network
c) Wide Access Network d) Wide Area Network
Ans. d

69. Which of the following is an anti-virus?
a) Norton b) Mozilla c) Internet Explorer d) None of these
Ans. a

70. Which of the following is a social media site?
a) www. Google.com b) www. Wikipedia.com
c) www. Facebook.com d) www. Skyscanner.com
Ans. c

71. The vertical lines in an excel sheet are known as-
a) Rows b) Columns c) Matrix d) Pillars
Ans. b

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72. The _____are used to present using overhead projectors.
a) Acetate film sheet b) Paper sheet c) Polythene sheet d) Butter paper
Ans. a

73. The _______is used to send messages through electronic media.
a) Snail Mail b) E-Mail c) Post Mail d) Air Mail
Ans. b

74. Which one of the following is a soft copy output device?
a) Monitor b) Printer c) Plotter d) Punch card
Ans. a

75. Which one of the command is used to close all window operating system?
a) Close b) Exit c) Reset d) Shutdown
Ans. d

76. WWW stands for………
a) world wide web b) world wild web c) word wide web d) world web wide
Ans. a

77. Which one of the following software is used for documents?
a) MS word b) MS Excel c) Media Player d) Paint & Brush
Ans. a

78. The Data is stored in a Hard disk as
a) Analog voltage b) Analog variable c) Zeros and ones d) DOS
Ans. c

79. The advantage of USB connector is ……
a) Web integration b) Multiple display support
c) Power Management d) Add devices without restarting
Ans. d

80. Spread sheet are save with extension………
a) .xls b) .doc c) .pdf d) .mp3
Ans. a

81.Where all the deleted files will be stored?
a) Personal folder b) Official Folder c) Recycle Bin d) Compact Disk (CD)
Ans. c

82. _____ is used for selecting and clicking on the item
a) keyboard
b) floppy
c) mouse
d) printer
Ans. c

83. A computer is used in
a) medical b) education
c) business d) All of the above
Ans. d

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84. Which of these are a part of computer menu?
a) Start programs
b) Open commonly used folders
c) Search for files, folders, and programs
d) All the above
Ans. d

85. Which of the following is not a taskbar element?
a) Start button
b) Printer
c) Quick launch bar
d) Notification Area
Ans. b

86. What is full form of GUI
a) Graphical User interface
b) General User interface
c) Geographical User interface
d) none of the above
Ans. a

87. An operating system (OS) is an interface between ____ and ____.
a) Computer and internet
b) Hardware and user
c) Printer and CPU
d) None
Ans. b

88. A file on a computer can be
a) Added
b) Moved
c) Copied
d) all the above
Ans. d

89. A pendrive is a _____ memory device
a) internal
b) external
c) Both A & B
d) None
Ans. b

90. _____ is inserted in the USB port
a) Pen drive
b) CD rom
c) DVD
d) Mike
An.s a

91. What does UI stand for
a) User interface b) United interface
c) Union interface d) None of the above
Ans. a

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92. A Pen drive is a very well known _____ device?
a) internal memory
b) External memory
c) Printing
d) Software
Ans. b

93. Windows is an
a) Operating system
b) Hardware
c) Internet Booster
d) None of the above
Ans. a

94. In windows we can
a) add a file
b) remove a file
c) move a file
d) All the above
Ans. d

95. ______ is the opening point or gateway to all the programs in windows?
a) Control Panel
b) Startup Menu
c) Setup
d) Modem
Ans. b

96. What is the full form of OS
a) Operational Stoppage
b) Operating System
c) Optical System
d) Optional system
Ans. b

97. UI helps in interaction between _____ and _____
a) Use and internet
b) User and computer
c) User and graphics
d) User and Institute
Ans. b

98. Taskbar was first introduced by?
a) Windows xp
b) Windows 97
c) windows 95
d) Windows 7
Ans. c

99. Which of the following is not a taskbar element?
a) Start button b) Notification Area
c) Quick Launch bar d) Internet
Ans. d

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100. A graphical symbol that denotes a program or a command or a data is called _____?
a) Icon
b) File
c) Disk
d) None
Ans. a

101. IN MS Paint, which extension is not supported _____
a) .jpeg
b) .doc
c) .gif
d) .png
Ans. b

102. In which orientation, the text is printed length wise?
a) Landscape
b) margin
c) Portrait
d) Width
Ans. c

103. In which orientation, the text is printed width wise?
a) Width
b) Margin
c) Portrait
d) Landscape
Ans. d

104. Program that infects other programs by modifying them is called _______
a) search engine
b) virus
c) antivirus
d) cyber crime
Ans. b

105. Spread sheets are saved with extension ______
a) .xls
b) .doc
c) .pdf
d) .mp3
Ans. a

106. Spreadsheets are saved with extension _____
a) .pdf
b) .doc
c) .xls
d) .mp3
Ans. c

107. The expansion of LAN is ______
a) Local Area Name b) Local Area Network
c) Logical Area Network d) Legal Area Network
Ans. b

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108. The expansion of RAM is ____
a) Read Octed Machine
b) Random Access Memory
c) Read Access memory
d) Random Access machine
Ans. b

109. The Expansion of ROM is
a) Read Octed machine
b) Read only memory
c) Random Only Memory
d) Rewrite Octet machine
Ans. b

110. The expansion of WAN is ____
a) Wide area name
b) Web Assigned Name
c) Wide area network
d) Web Aided Network
Ans. c

111. What is the shortcut key for “cut’ command?
a) Ctrl + C
b) Ctrl + V
c) Ctrl + A
d) Ctrl + X
Ans. d

112. What is a shortcut key for “select all” command?
a) Ctrl + C
b) Ctrl + V
c) Ctrl + A
d) Ctrl + X
Ans. c

113. What is shortcut key for “Paste” command?
a) Ctrl + C
b) Ctrl + V
c) Ctrl + A
d) Ctrl + X
Ans. b

114. What is the cell address of 4
th
row and 4
th
column?
a) 4D
b) E4
c) D4
d) B4
Ans. c

115. What is the default name of newly created folder in windows?
a) folder b) new
c) new folder d) Bank
Ans. c

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116. Which device is used to connect telephone line a PC?
a) Modem
b) Monitor
c) Printer
d) Hard disk
Ans. a

117. Which one is a “Don’t” of information security?
a) Use hard to guess passwords
b) Disclose password to anyone
c) Take backup data of your PC periodically
d) Encrypt laptop hard drive and mobile devices
Ans. b

118. Which one is a cyber crime?
a) sending email
b) online purchasing
c) online gambling
c) Chatting with friends
Ans. c

119. Which one is a file management tool that comes with windows?
a) Control panel
b) Windows explorer
c) Desktop
d) Notepad
Ans. b

120. Which one is a search engine?
a) flickr
b) Hotmail
c) Facebook
d) Google
Ans. d

121. Which one is a search engine?
a) flickr
b) Orkut
c) Hotmail
d) yahoo
Ans. d

122. Which one is a social networking site?
a) Outlook express
b) Facebook
c) Lotus notes
d) Mozilla
Ans. b

123. Which one is a web browser?
a) Facebook b) Hotmail
c) Internet explorer d) Outlook express
Ans. c

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124. Which one is an input device?
a) Speaker
b) Joystick
c) Monitor
d) Printer
Ans. b

125. Which one is NOT a storage device?
a) Printer
b) Video tape
c) USB flash drive
d) memory card
Ans. a

126. Which one is the disadvantage of social networking sites?
a) Instant communication
b) make addictive
c) Access to information
d) Online marketing for business
Ans. b

127. Which one of the following options shows the synonyms for a word, we type in MS word?
a) Thesaurus
b) Spell check
c) Hyperlink
d) Style
Ans. a

128. You withdraw Rs_500/- from an ATM, The ATM machine gives out Rs_5000/- Which of the following
would be ethically correct?
a) Make a complaint
b) Take the money
c) Drop the money near ATM
d) Give the money to the poor
Ans. a

129. Microsoft word can be opened through
a) Start option
b) Microsoft office
c) Desktop
d) All the above
Ans. d

130.We can align text in word in following from.
a) center
b) left
c) right
d) all the above
Ans. d

131. File button gives you options of
a) print b) print preview c) Both A and B d) None of these
Ans. c

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132. We can insert which of the following in a word file.
a) picture
b) clipart
c) tables
d) all the above
Ans. d

133. What is the shortcut command for printing a word document.
a) control p
b) contrl C
c) Control F
d) Control G
Ans. a

134. A word processing is a
a) text adding software
b) text editing
c) none of these
d) both of these
Ans. d

135. In order to permanently erase and paste text we use _____ command
a) copy
b) cut
c) move
d) none
Ans. b

136. What is the shortcut for saving command in Word?
a) Alt + S
b) Shift + S
c) Ctrl + S
d) Alt + C
Ans. c

137. _____ function of word that helps us in correcting grammatical errors.
a) Thesaurus
b) Allignment
c) Insert
d) Font
Ans. a

138. We can transform text into
a) bold
b) italics
c) Underlined
d) All the above
Ans. d

139. We can insert which of the following in word
a) charts b) various geometric shapes
c) both A and B d) None of the above
Ans. c

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140. In order to take text from one word file to another we can use?
a) copy and paste b) cut and paste
c) copy and delete d) Both A and B
Ans. d

141. Microsoft word is used for?
a) mathematical calculation
b) text addition and manipulation
c) emailing
d) graphical animation
Ans. b

142. The following mathematical operations in excel
a) Addition
b) Multiplications
c) Both of these
d) None of these
Ans. c

143. What is the format of adding dates to the excel
a) dd/mm/yyyy
b) mm/dd/yyyy
c) yyyy/mm/dd
d) none of these
Ans. a

144. In excel data is presented in
a) tabular form
b) loose line form
c) none
d) Both
Ans. a

145. Excel sheets are used for
a) data management
b) data storage
c) stock manager
d) all the above
Ans. d

146. Microsoft excel is used for?
a) Mathematical calculation
b) Text addition and manipulation
c) Emailing
d) Graphical Animation
Ans. a

147. What is the way of entering function names in excel?
a) simply entering the name of the function
b) using function wizard
c) Both A and B
d) Neither of the above
Ans. c

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148. ^ (caret) is used as a function for
a) addition
b) multiplication
c) Raising a Number by power
d) subtraction
Ans. c

149. The internet is a global system of interconnected computer _____
a) networks
b) ropes
c) wires
d) screens
Ans. a

150. DSL stands for
a) Digital System line
b) Digital subscriber line
c) Domestic sewer line
d) None of the above
Ans. b

151. A Modem allows digital data to be transmitted to and from computer over _____.
a) Computer network
b) Radio Waves
c) Phone lines
c) Digital Lines
Ans. c

152. What is the full form of LAN
a) Local Area network
b) Local Ancilliary network
c) Long Area network
d) None of the above
Ans. a

153. Which of the following website provide email service.
a) hotmail
b) rediff
c) yahoo
d) all the above
Ans. d

154. ndtvprofit.com provides
a) shopping
b) stock market update
c) movies
d) none
Ans. b

155. WAN stands for
a) Worst area network b) Wide Area network
c) Width Area Network d) None
Ans. b

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156. Internet can connect
a) 2 computer at a time
b) 10 computers at a time
c) 1000 computers at a time
d) Computer across the globe
Ans. d

157. Written rules for communication are termed as?
a) Interpol
b) Protocol
c) Penal code
d) None of the above
Ans. b

158. Internet is a ______ system of interconnected computer networks.
a) Local
b) National
c) Global
d) Institutional
Ans. c

159. What is the full form of ISP?
a) Internet service provider
b) interconnected service protocol
c) international service provider
d) internal solution provider
Ans. a

160. Internet finds applications in
a) Education
b) Entertainment
c) Shopping
d) All the above
Ans. d

161. ______ allows digital data to be transmitted to and from computer over phone lines.
a) printer b) modem
c) mouse d) keyboard
Ans. b

162. What is the full form of URI
a) Union Rectification Intermediatory
b) United Resouce identifier
c) Both A and B
d) Uniform Resource Identifier
Ans. d

163. What is the full form of DSL?
a) Digital subscriber line
b) Double subscription line
c) Dune system line
d) Digital System line
Ans. a

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164. Which of these is a characteristic of e-governance website.
a) G2C
b) G2G
c) G2E
d) All of the above
Ans. d

165. What are the type of websites
a) Static
b) Dynamic
c) None of the above
d) Both A and B
ans. d

166. What does www stand for?
a) World wide western
b) world wide web
c) western web wallet
d) None of these
Ans. b

167. _____ highly configurable text-based web browser.
a) Mozilla
b) Netscape
c) Lynx
d) Chrome
Ans. c

168. What is the shortcut of saving a webpage?
a) Alt + S
b) Ctrl + S
c) Ctrl + c
d) Alt + P
Ans. b

169. What is the shortcut for printing a webpage?
a) ctrl + P
b) ctrl + s
c) Alt + P
d) Shift + P
Ans. a

170. The IT Act in India was enacted in which year?
a) 1996
b) 1998
c) 1999
d) 2000
Ans. d

171. Anti viruses can be?
a) Online applications b) Software
c) Both A and B d) None of these
Ans. c

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172. Cyber crime can be related to?
a) Social media
b) Emails
c) Online payment portals
d) All the above
Ans. d

173. What is the full form of G2B?
a) Government to business
b) Governor to bar council
c) Government to Brand
d) None of the above
Ans. a

174. ______ helps in creating a comfortable, transparent, and cheap interaction between government and its
respective citizens.
a) Public private partnership
b) Government Office
c) E-Governance
d) E-Payment
Ans. c

175. A static webpage is the one?
a) That can be changed
b) That cannot be modified
c) That involves regular updates
d) None of these
Ans. b

176. ______ is used for translating basic HTML code.
a) Internet b) Server
c) Browser d) Website
Ans. c

177. The _____ is an element of an operating system located at the bottom of the screen.
a) search bar b) task bar
c) time and date d) notification bar
Ans. b

178. Task bar allows you to see the programs that are
a) closed b) currently open
c) corrupted d) desktop
Ans. b

179. Arrange the following in a sequence for connecting the phone to the computer.
a) Locate the phone folder on the computer and transfer the files
b) Turn both your phone and computer on.
c) Connect USB wire to your phone and the computer
i. abc
ii. acb
iii. bca
iv. cba
Ans. iii

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180. Mac OS comes preloaded on all new
a) Macintosh computers
b) Windows computers
c) Android
d) Windows 8
Ans. a

181. Modern operating system do not allow multitasking.
a) True
b) False
Ans. b

182. Modern operating systems allow many processes to get active at the same time.
a) True
b) False
Ans. a

183. The operating system controls the behind the scene activities of the computer.
a) True
b) False
Ans. a

184. when you login to windows 8, the first screen you see is new ‘Start screen’ also known as
a) apps
b) icons
c) metro
d) desktop
Ans. d

185. Paint can enable ‘painting’ by ______ and using different types of artistic brushes or pens that can give for
example a watercolour or oil effect.
a) dragging the mouse
b) pressing ctrl button
c) shift + ctrl button
d) clicking the left click
Ans. a

186. To place the disc in the tray, make sure the shiny side faces ____
a) UP
b) Down
Ans. b

187. Once you connect the _____ to the computer, you can open the files inside USB.
a) card
b) folder
c) USB
d) internet
Ans. c

188. What is the full form of RAM
a) Random Access Memory
b) Recording Access Memory
c) Remove Access Memory
d) Redeemed Access Memory
Ans. a

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189. Press Ctrl + S on the keypad after finishing your typing. You have to press both the buttons together.
a) True b) False
Ans. a

190. By default, Office will save the copy in the same location as the original.
a) True b) False
Ans. b

191. The _____ in your document indicates where you can enter text on the page.
a) blinking vertical line
b) arrow on the window
c) spacebar
d) Press enter
Ans. a

192. To add text, place the ____ where you want to add text.
a) cursor
b) space
c) text
d) line
Ans. a

193. You must not enter a name for the file if you are saving a file for the first time.
a) True
b) False
Ans. b

194. When a new blank document opens, the insertion point or cursor will appear in the _____ corner of the page.
a) top-left
b) top-right
c) bottom-left
d) bottom right
Ans. a

195. To save a file on the desktop, you need to click on the file and select save as then click on
a) downloads
b) documents
c) desktop
d) 3d objects
Ans. c

196. Arrange the following in a sequence of printing a resume on MS word.
a. Press Ctrl + P
b. Select the number of pages you want to print and press the Print Tab.
c. Open the document you want to print
a) a, b, c
b) a, c, b
c) c, a, b
d) b, a, c
Ans. c

197. There is one standard resume format only. No other format can be used.
a) True b) False
Ans. b

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198. Everything you put in your resume should be truthful, because the employer can ask you questions on
all the things mentioned in your resume.
a) True b) False
Ans. a

199. A computer system consist of hardware and software components.
a) True b) False
Ans. a

200. Hardware is the operating system and programmes installed in the computer.
a) True b) False
Ans. b

201. The ____ performs all calculations and takes all decisions.
a) CPU
b) monitor
c) UPS
d) keyboard
Ans. a

202. ______ lets you type an uppercase letter or characters when used in combination with another.
a) shift
b) Alt
c) backspace
d) windows
Ans. a

203. ______ allows a space to be indicated when pressed.
a) backspace
b) delete
c) space bar
d) shift
Ans. c

204. _____ are often used in meetings and presentations so that everyone in the room can view the
presentation.
a) LED b) LCD c) projector
Ans. c

205. Which of the following functions can be performed with help of spreadsheets?
a) doing calculations b) searching for information
c) create documents d) create videos
Ans. a

206. What are spreadsheets?
a) A sheet that we can spread
b) an electronic programme that is used to compute data
c) a type of butter
d) a sheet used for printing documents
Ans. b

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207. If you press _____, the Excel sheets gets ready for printing.
a) Tab b ) Ctrl + P
c) P d) Alt + enter + P
Ans. b

208. With which of the following all formula in Excel start?
a) / b) * c) $ d) =
Ans. d

209. What is the name of the addition formula on Excel?
a) add b) sum c) plus d) together
Ans. b

210. There are only two functions in Excel-addition and average?
a) True b) False
Ans. b

211. What is the internet?
a) pizza stand
b) fisherman’s net
c) world wide web
ans. c

212. What does website address mean?
a) air well
b) a name to access a website on internet
c) a holiday destination
d) address of liberary
Ans. b

213. Which of the following is a true statement about the internet and the library?
a) They both provide knowledge
b) They both have strict rules about returning books.
c) They both close after hours.
d) They both are very expensive
Ans. a

214. Key Words:
a) words with keys and links
b) a computer program
c) describe what you are searching for online
d) key chain
Ans. c

215. Search engine:
a) a software system used to search the internet
b) an engine picture on the net
c) automatically searches the internet
d) diesel engine
Ans. a

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216. Where do you type the address when you are looking for a website?
a) address bar
b) anywhere on the computer
c) on Gmail
d) in Linkedin
Ans. a

217. There is no fake news on the internet.
a) True b) False
Ans. b

218. There are no way to protect ourselves from online predators.
a) True
b) False
Ans. b

219. An email cannot be sent to more than one person at a time.
a) True
b) False
Ans. b

220. Which of the following are points to be borne in mind while sending emails?
a) Check spellings, use full sentence structure and use proper grammer
b) Have a nice greeting: Hi, Hello etc.
c) Have a proper sign off: Thank you, Sincerely
d) All of the above
Ans. d

221. Unwanted programmes can be harmful to the data stored in your computer or mobile device.
a) True
b) False
Ans. a

222. Special applications called anti-virus software are used to detect hackers.
a) True
b) False
Ans. b

223. You do not always need usernames and passwords to visit on most websites.
a) True
b) False
Ans. a

224. A strong password has:
a) more than 8 characters (the longer, the better)
b) contains numbers and symbols
c) contains upper and lower case alphabets
d) all of the above
Ans. d

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225. Using your date of birth and Name is a strong password.
a) True b) False
Ans. b

226. People cannot send you emails to try and access your private information such as bank account or
credit card details.
a) True b) False
Ans. b

227. When a computer is locked, it immediately hides the content of the screen.
a) True b) False
Ans. a

228. To unlock a locked computer, you need to
a) create an account
b) enter any username
c) enter you email username and password
d) enter the correct username and password
Ans. d

229. You can protect your computer from viruses and spyware by
a) locking your computer
b) setting up a username and password
c) installing antivirus and antispyware software
d) avoiding the user of external hard disk
ans. c

230. What are spyware?
a) a small programmes that get installed on the computer and transmit personal data to hackers.
b) a small programmes that get installed to help you
c) a small programmes that delete unwanted documents
d) a small programmes that protect computers from virus
Ans. a

231. You cannot block inappropriate sites in your computer and devices.
a) True b) False
Ans. b

232. Which is the administrative ministry responsible for implementation of the Apprenticeship Act?
a) Ministry of Commerce and industry
b) Ministry of Communications and Information Technology
c) Ministry of heavy and public enterprises
d) Ministry of Skill Development and Enterpreneurship
Ans. d

233. Minimum age eligibility and requirements for apprentices is
a) 18 b) 17
c) 14 d) 21
Ans. c

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234. Aadhar linked Bank Account is not mandatory to register for apprentices
a) True
b) False
ans. b

235. (*) Field marked are not mandatory fields to be filled by apprentices in the portal.
a) True
b) False
Ans. b

236. Which of the following is the final step in registering in apprenticeship portal?
a) upload the passport photograph and scanned copy of valid birth certificate
b) click the home button
c) tick the checkbox ()- Declaration which mentions that the information is correct
d) click submit
Ans. d

237. _____ is more stable than windows. It can run for 10 years without a single need to reboot.
a) Mac OS X
b) Safari
c) Linux
d) Google chorme
Ans. c

238. _____ is an operating system created by Apple.
a) Safari
b) Mac OS
c) Mac OS X
d) Mozilla firebox
Ans. b

239. Microsoft edge deputed windows 10 replacing _____ as the default web browser.
a) chrome
b) safari
c) internet explorer
d) mozillla firefox
Ans. c

240. The simplest way to find the things we need is to ____ and _____ them well.
a) organize, store
b) collect, store
c) save, organise
d) organise, file
Ans. c

241. ______ determines the position of the text within a section of a document relative to the top and
bottom margins, and is often used to create a cover page.
a) alignment b) vertical alignment
c) horizontal alignment d) margins
Ans. d

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242. ______ helps us select things on the screen to open, close, move, delete, etc.
a) CPU
b) mouse
c) monitor
d) software
Ans. b

243. ______ provides higher contrast and better viewing angles than LCD monitor.
a) CRT b) LED c) projector d) laptops
Ans. b

244. Which among the following is not an output device?
a) Monitor
b) Speaker
c) Projector
d) Mouse
Ans. d

245. Arrange the following in a sequence for connecting a phone to the computer.
a. Locate the phone folder on the computer and transfer the files.
b. Turn both your phone and computer on
c. Connect USB wire to your phone and the computer.
a) a, b, c
b) c, a, b
c) a, c, b
d) b, c, a
Ans. d

246. The _______ serves as an interface between the computer and the user.
a) Monitor
b) Operating system
c) Output device
d) Hardware
Ans. b

247. _______ is a storage device which is used in mobile phones, digital cameras and MP3 players.
a) Memory Card
b) Hard disk
c) ROM
d) Optical Disc
Ans. a

248. _______ is the default extension of MS word files.
a) .dc b) .dec c) .docx d) .msdoc
Ans. c

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249. Which shortcut is used to open an existing of MS word files.
a) Ctrl + N b) Alt + O c) Alt + Existing d) Ctrl + O
Ans. d

250. Arranging words or creating different styles of word on MS Word is called as _____.
a) Coloring b) Modifying c) Editing d) Formatting
Ans. d

251. In MS word to select the whole file which shortcut combination is used?
a) Ctrl + A
b) Ctrl + @
c) Ctrl + L
d) Ctrl + D
Ans. a

252. Which among of the following is not a command of formatting toolbar?
a) Bold
b) Italic
c) Font Colour
d) Cut
Ans. d

253. _______ tab is used to insert charts, graphs, images and page number into a word file.
a) Standard tab
b) Formatting tab
c) Insert tab
d) Review pane
Ans. c

254. ______ lets the user to type uppercase letters or characters when used in combination with another.
a) Shift
b) Backspace
c) Delete
d) Tab
Ans. a

255. _______ indicates where one can enter text on the page.
a) Arrow
b) Cursor
c) Hyphen
d) Hyperlink
Ans. b

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256. _______is an user-friendly software used to create leave letters, letters of application for jobs,
resumes.
a) MS Excel b) Notepad
c) WordPad d) MS Word
Ans. d

257. Which shortcut key is used to underline the main headings of your resume?
a) Ctrl + U
b) Ctrl + B
c) Ctrl + L
d) Ctrl + X
Ans. a

258. Which function key allows you to rename a file?
a) F1
b) F2
c) F3
d) F4
Ans. b

259. Find the missing word in the sequence,
a. Click on Home Tab
b. Select ______ group
c. Select Left Alignment
a) Font
b) Clipboard
c) Paragraph
d) Styles
Ans. c

260. Which among the following is not a component of MS Excel worksheet?
a) Column
b) Row
c) Formula Bar
d) Paint Bar
Ans. d

261. ______ contains one or more worksheets.
a) Workbook
b) Workfile
c) Address bar
d) Document
Ans. a

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262. Cell Address is a combination of _____ and ____ of the cell.
a) Row name and Column Number
b) Row and Column width
c) Column Number and Row Height
d) Column Name and Row Number
Ans. d

263. Which shortcut combination prints the excel sheet?
a) Ctrl + Shift + Print Scr
b) Ctrl + P
c) Alt + P
d) Tab + P
Ans. b

264. _____ option allows the user to check how the worksheet looks when printed.
a) Outlook b) Demo c) Preview d) Print sheet
Ans. c

265. MS Excel workbooks by default are saved with _____ extension.
a) .xlsx
b) .xl
c) .excel
d) .msel
Ans. a

266. To cut and paste content of a cell to another cell which shortcut combination is used?
a) Ctrl + C & Ctrl P
b) Ctrl + X & Ctrl + V
c) Alt + C & Alt + V
d) Ctrl + C & Ctrl + P
Ans. b

267. _____ is a worldwide system of computer networks.
a) Communication
b) Broadband
c) Internet
d) Social Media
Ans. c

268. A wireless technology that connects a laptop to the internet is called _____.
a) Bluetooth b) WiFi
c) Source Network d) Desktop
Ans. b

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269. Which among the following is not an internet browser?
a) Google Chrome b) Mozilla Firefox c) Internet Explorer d) Data Channel
Ans. d

270. _______ will scan through thousands of websites and webpages on the internet that collects and
displays the most relevant information.
a) Search Engine b) Engine
c) Search tab d) Software
Ans. a

271. ________ are words that help us find what we are looking for on the Internet.
a) Alphabets
b) Keywords
c) Browser
d) Names
Ans. b

272. Which among the following should be followed while setting up a new password?
a) Password should be your name
b) Password should be your phone number
c) Password must have only 5-6 letters
d) Password should be a combination of alphabets, numbers and symbols
Ans. d

273. In Windows, you can lock your computer by pressing ______ combination keys.
a) Lock + Prt Scr
b) Delete + Shift
c) Ctrl + Shift + Del
d) Space bar + Alt + F4
Ans. c

274. ______ deletes spyware programmes installed on your computer and can prevent them from getting
installed.
a) Antispyware
b) Virus
c) Software
d) Passwords
Ans. a

275. Which action should be avoided during online transactions?
a) Using strong password b) Clearing Browsing history
c) Sharing Personal information d) Using only secured sites
Ans. c

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276. A website is secure if it has https as its prefix and a locked _____ symbol.
a) Speaker
b) Padlock
c) Equal
d) Star
Ans. b

277. _______ is an electronic message transmitted over internet.
a) Message
b) Chatbox
c) E-Mail
d) Webpage
Ans. c

278. ______ is the mailing service run by Microsoft.
a) G-Mail
b) Yahoo
c) Hotmail
d) Outlook
Ans. d

279. In an E-Mail _____ shows the topic of the message.
a) Attachments
b) Subject
c) BCC
d) CC
Ans. b

280. Which among the following allows the recipient to see all the copied email contacts?
a) BCC
b) FCC
c) CC
d) From
Ans. c

281. ______ is a type of file, such as a photo or document that you can send along with your email.
a) Virus b) Attachment
c) Copy d) Recipient desk
Ans. b

282. While sending an Email to attach a photo or document, which symbol need to be clicked?
a) Equal to b) Smiley
c) Stapler d) Paper Clip
Ans. d

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283. The _____ folder holds emails that people have sent to you.
a) Outbox
b) Inbox
c) Message
d) Trash
Ans. b

284. The ______ folder holds emails that may not be useful.
a) Outbox
b) Trash
c) Spam
d) Sent
Ans. c

285. Which among the following is an example of a strong password?
a) mycomputer
b) Iloveindia
c) abcd1234
d) @35do#secure
Ans. d

286. ______ is a secret code that allows only you to access your accounts.
a) Password
b) Mobile phone
c) Email
d) Alarm
Ans. a

287. Never send a reply to _____ email.
a) Inbox
b) Trusted Emails
c) Spam
d) Long
Ans. c

288. Learning using a mobile is called _______.
a) Digital Learning b) Offline learning
c) Self Learning d) Adult Learning
Ans. a

289. ______ are generally small, individual software that can be download from playstore or appstore.
a) Internet b) Spreadsheet
c) Mobile Applications d) TV Shows
Ans. c

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290. Which among the following is not an Online payment application?
a) Google Pay b) BHIM UPI c) Banking Applications d) Instagram
Ans. d

291. _______ is a widely used app to find routes from one place to another.
a) Redbus b) Google Map
c) Trek d) Makemytrip
Ans. b

292. In an Android phones, apps can be downloaded through the ____.
a) Play store
b) BHIM UPI
c) Webpage
d) Google Pay
Ans. a

293. Banking transactions are only possible between _______.
a) E Mail accounts
b) Passcode verifiers
c) Verified phone numbers
d) Social Media accounts
Ans. c

294. _______ allows the user to input letters, numbers and other symbols into a computer.
a) Mouse
b) Keyboard
c) Desktop
d) Digital Camera
Ans. b

295. Which among the following cannot be done through BHIM UPI?
a) Requesting money from other verified user
b) Scan and Pay using QR Codes
c) Sending money to other verified user
d) Chat with all your friends
Ans. d

296. The largest government agency that helps small entrepreneurs is the ______.
a) Ministry of defence
b) Entrepreneurship Unit
c) MSME (Ministry of Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises)
d) Financial Agencies
Ans. c

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297. _______ is the official website to apply for the apprenticeship training.
a) www.itiportal.in
b) www.bharatskills.in
c) www.apprenticeshipindia.gov.in
d) www.youtube.com/c/heetson
Ans. c

298. Which of the following document is not required as a soft copy while applying for apprenticeship?
a) Technical education certificates
b) Aadhar Card
c) Bank Passbook
d) Blood group certificate
Ans. d

299. _______ tab is used by ITI students to register for apprenticeship using the official website.
a) Third party aggregator
b) Candidate registration
c) ITI registration
d) Establishment
Ans. b

300. Which among the following is not provided in bharat skill portal?
a) Question bank
b) Course videos
c) Study Materials
d) ITI Exam Results
Ans. d

301. _______ is a group activity to learn about job opportunities.
a) Apprentice
b) Job Search hackathon
c) On job training
d) Self Employment
Ans. b

302. _______ is an image that can be scanned instantly that translates the information into human
readable form.
a) QR Code b) Photos c) Code reader d) Encrypter
Ans. a

303. In a computer, _____ performs calculations and takes all the decisions.
a) CPU b) Monitor
c) Mouse d) Hard Disk
Ans. a

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304. Which key of the keyboard allows you to move to the beginning of the next line?
a) Enter b) Caps Lock c) Numeric Keys d) Space
Ans. a

305. Microsoft Edge was introduced with Windows 10 and replaced _____ as the default web browser.
a) Google b) Internet Explorer c) Safari d) Mozilla Firefox
Ans. b

306. _______ is the operating system of Apple.
a) Linux b) Windows c) Mac OS d) Safari
Ans. c

307. ______ is also a form of data storage that cannot be easily altered or reprogrammed.
a) RAM b) ROM c) Memory Card d) Hardware
Ans. b

308. Which among the following is not a tertiary storage devices?
a) Hard disk b) USB Drive c) RAM d) Memory Card
Ans. c

309. In MS word, when you open a new blank document the cursor appears on the ______ corner of the
page.
a) Outside the page b) Middle of the page
c) Top left d) Bottom Right
Ans. c

310. _______ is an electronic document in the form of grid and is used for calculations.
a) MS Word
b) Spreadsheet
c) WordPad
d) Calculator
Ans. b

311. Which among the following is a right cell address?
a) F@
b) a34
c) G16
d) 2B
Ans. c

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Entrepreneurship Skills

1. Goals are classified as _____
a) big and small goal
b) long term and short-term goal
c) important and not important goal
d) intrinsic and extrinsic goal
Ans. b

2. What should come next after “selecting the solution” in problem solving process?
a) Look for alternate
b) Root cause analysis
c) Identify the problem
d) implement the solution
Ans. d

3. The study of right and wrong in human endeavours is called _____
a) motivation
b) self-awareness
c) ethics
d) goal
Ans. c

4. Motivation is categories into _____
a) intrinsic and extrinsic
b) good and bad
c) inner and outer
d) high and low
Ans. a

5. Intrinsic motivation is _____
a) short lived
b) long lasting
c) for money or reward
d) to gain social acceptance
Ans. b

6. Dedication to a particular work is called _____
a) confidence
b) commitment
c) intelligence
d) integrity
Ans. b

7. Goals are categorized as _____
a) Good and bad
b) inner and outer
c) intristic and extrinsic
d) short-term and long-term
Ans. d

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8. For “SMART” Goal, S stands for ___
a) Social
b) Scientific
c) Specific
d) Strength
Ans. c
SMART (Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Realistic, Time bound/Timely)

9. Which one action is the low level thinking?
a) Comprehension
b) Analysis
c) Evaluating
d) Application
Ans. d

10. The essential characteristic of an entrepreneur -
a) Self-confidence
b) weakness
c) morality
d) independent

11. The largest government agency that help the small entrepreneur
(a.) Ministry of skill development and entrepreneurship
(b.) Ministry of Micro, small, medium enterprise.
(c.) Ministry of communication and information technology.
(d.) Ministry of Finance.

12. How is government encouraging in the direction of self-employment?
a) By technical training b) By financial assistance c) By motivation d) All of these
Ans. d

13. One which is related with SWOT is:-
a) Strength b) Word c) Both (a) & (b) d) None of these
Ans. a

14. The key of success is________.
a) Commitment b) Discipline
c) Hard work d) All of these
Ans. d

15. Which of these is the achievable personal long term goal?
a) I want to become a GOD
b) I want to own a world properly
c) I want to become a successful employer in next six months
d) None of the above
Ans. c

16. Which pair related to success can be the ideal one?
a) Motivation- Spiritual power b) Dedication – Aim achieving
c) Safety – Management d) All of these
Ans. d

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17. Which one of the following is not among the advantages of being self employed ? The self-employed
person is :-
a) Leader of his business b) Independent
c) Able to control his environment d) Not guaranteed of income
Ans. d

18. Which of the following is usually not a characteristic of small scale industry?
a) Most of the small scale industries employ less than 10 workers
b) A large number of units are one-person firms
c) The workers employed in such units are usually organized
d) The growth of small scale industrial activity has been faster than that of large scale
Ans. d

19. Members in Partnerships are_______.
a) One b) Two or more than two c) One Hundred d) Five Hundred
Ans. b

20. What is a need for an entrepreneur?
a) Technical skill b) Human relations related skill c) Thinking skill d) All of these
Ans. d

21. Important thing is selection of an industry is_______.
a) Demand of product b) Capital c) Nearest Transport Facility d) All of these
Ans. d

22. For small business owners, one of the most important objective is________.
a) Profitability b) Growth c) Market presence d) Adaptability
Ans. a

23. _____ is defined as a form of business that is an association of two or more people acting as co-owners
of a business.
a) Partnership b) Proprietorship
c) INC d) Corporation
Ans. a

24. What should organization seek to do with stakeholders who have interest and low power?
a) Invest minimal effort b) Keep informed c) Keep satisfied d) Invest maximum effort
Ans. d

25. Which one is NOT part of 4 P’s of marketing mix?
a) Policy
b) Price
c) Product
d) Place
Ans. a

26. In which institute, new entrepreneurs are assisted in many area like, identification, selection, process for
manufacturing products?
a) SIDO
b) NSIC
c) MSME – Dis
c) SIDBI
Ans. c

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27. Micro credit scheme is NOT for ......
a) tiny/ cottage industry
b) agricultural and allied services
c) transport sector activity
d) research & development activity
Ans. d

28. Which one is NOT a type of feasibility?
a) Market feasibility
b) Technical feasibility
c) Educational feasibility
d) Financial feasibility
Ans. c

29. Fixed capital is also known as .........
a) long term capital
b) short term capital
c) revolving capital
d) working capital
Ans. a

30. Paid form of ideas, goods and services are called ........
a) Publicity
b) Good will
c) public relation
d) advertisement
Ans. d

31. Sama takes orders going door to door and does tailoring work for women’s daily work wear. Sama is a:
a) Wage employee
b) entrepreneur
Ans. b

32. Entrepreneurs who guide and support their employees to grow the business and be a role model for others are:
a) A leader
b) A risk taker
c) Creative
d) Ambitious
Ans. a

33. An entrepreneur who knows the targets that they are working towards.
a) hardworking
b) Creative
c) Ambitious
d) Goal focussed
Ans. d

34. The business idea should:
a) Satisfy only my needs
b) Solve someone’s problem
c) Save the world
d) none of the above
Ans. b

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35. When I am selecting my final idea, I should map them to my:
a) SWOT and values
b) Thoughts and feelings
c) Needs and wants
d) Personality
Ans. a

36. Accounting means
a) Opening accounts
b) keeping track of money
c) Recalling something
d) Spending money
Ans. b

37. Purchases are
a) Amount spent on paying for labour
b) Amount collected by selling
c) Amount spent on purchasing material
d) Money remaining
Ans. c

38. Inventory Value is
a) Total sales
b) Money remaining
c) Monetary value of unsold products
d) Amount spent on paying rent
Ans. c

39. What are missing elements of a good story?
(_____, initial days, Characters and _____)
a) introduction, challenge
b) Family, Challenge
c) Introduction, Ending
d) Friends, Money made
Ans. c

40. A person who is associated with the starting of business is called _____
a) merchant
b) entrepreneur
c) businessman
d) sales executive
Ans. b

41. As compare to small scale business, large scale business require……
a) less no. of person
b) less no. of capital
c) more no. of person
d) small machines and tools
Ans. c

42. Entrepreneurship is also termed as……
a) investor b) employer
c) self employment d) employment seeker
Ans. c

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43. For Medium manufacturing enterprises, the investment in plant and machinery is between….
a) 10 Lakhs to 2 Crores b) 25 Lakhs to 5 Crores
c) 2 Crores to 5 Crores d) 5 Crores to 10 crores
Ans. d

44. Money invested in purchasing of raw materials, payment of wages and salaries, rental, electricity etc comes
under…..
a) working capital b) fixed capital
c) long term capital d) capital income
Ans. a

45. MSME stands for……..
a) Micro, scale and medium enterprises
b) Macro, Small and medium Enterprises
c) Micro, Small and Medium enterprises
d) Minor, small and medium enterprises
Ans. c

46. The enterprises engaged in the production of goods is known as ……..
a) manufacturing enterprise
b) service enterprises
c) micro enterprises
d) macro enterprises
Ans. a

47. The expansion of GDP is ……
a) Gross Domestic product b) Godown demand product
c) Grand Demand product d) Giant Domestic Product
Ans. a

48. The expansion of SIDO is …..
a) Small industries development organization
b) Small income development organization
c) Small investment development organization
d) Standard industry development organization
Ans. a

49. What approach is used to gain access to foreign market and quickly promote an organizations interest?
a) Licensing b) Collaboration
c) Joint Venture d) Technology Transfer
Ans. c

50. Which one is correct channel through which marketers can reach customers?
a) Manufacturer > Retailer > Wholesaler > customer
b) Manufacturer > customer > Retailer
c) Manufacturer > Retailer > customer
d) Manufacturer > Retailer > Customer
Ans. c

51. Which one of the following is the assisting element for the right attitude towards entrepreneurship in
life?
a) Development oriented view b) Confidence
c) Both (a) & (b) d) None of these
Ans. c

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52. The recipe for success includes
a) Self-Awareness & Self-Belief b) Independence c) Grit d) All of these
Ans. d

53. As per “The State of Employment Report in India” of 2010, women are paid ______ men for same
work.
a) Equal to
b) More than
c) Less than
d) None of these
Ans. c

54. An ______ is a self-employed person who is always trying to make his/her business better by taking
risks and trying new ideas.
a) Wage-employed
b) un-employed
c) Entrepreneur
d) None of these
Ans. c

55. What does a person need to succeed in Entrepreneurship?
a) Money
b) Power
c) Politics
d) Mindset
Ans. d

56. A ________ person is someone who works for a person/organization and gets paid for that work
a) Self Employed
b) Wage employed
c) Entrepreneur
d) None of these
Ans. b

57. _______ is the act of setting up and running a business, taking on risks in the hope of profit.
a) Entrepreneurship b) Wage employment
c) Both A & B d) None of these
Ans. a

58. Which of these is a quality of an entrepreneur?
a) Hardworking b) Creative
c) Risk taker d) All of these
Ans. d

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59. An entrepreneur should not take any risks
a) True
b) False
Ans. b

60. Best way to identify customers needs is _______
a) Through 3
rd
person
b) By advertising on newspaper
c) By observation and message
d) By talking to them and survey
Ans. d

61. Which are the important elements to remember while doing a customer survey?
a) Talk and Talk More
b) Write and read
c) Listen and listen
d) Listen, observe & talk
Ans. d

62. What is the full form of GST?
a) Good and sales tax
b) Goods and Service tax
c) Great service tax
d) Great sales tax
Ans. b

63. Goods and Service Taxes (GST) Bill was implemented in _______.
a) 2017
b) 2019
c) 2020
d) 2018
Ans. a

64. A ______ is the process of gathering data from people about certain topics by interacting with them
a) Survey b) Case Study
c) Both A and B d) None of these
Ans. a

65. Startup India supports entrepreneurship among ________ and _______ communities
a) Women and SC/ST communities
b) Minority and SC/ST Communities
c) Senior Citizen and SC/ST Communities
d) Senior Citizen and Women Communities
Ans. a

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66. How much bank loan “The Startup India” schemes offers for setting up new enterprises outside of the
farming sector?
a) 50 lakh – 1 crore b) 1 lakh – 10 lakh
c) 1 lakh – 50 lakh d) 10 lakh – 1 crore
Ans. d

67. MSMEs – encourages ___________
a) Entrepreneurship, employment and livelihood opportunities
b) Population in the country
c) School education
d) None of these
Ans. a

68. Which is the important scale to improve business ideas?
a) Customer
b) Competitor & Technology
c) Funds & Govt Schemes
d) All of these
Ans. d

69. Which is the Good method to interact with customer for survey?
a) Go prepared with the questions that you want to ask
b) Speak Politely & deeply
c) Speak to at least 20 people to get reliable data
d) All of these
Ans. d

70. Feedback means
a) Suggestion for improvement
b) Things people like about the idea
c) Things people do not like about the idea
d) All of these
Ans. d

71. The 4Ps of a good sales pitch are: promise, picture, pitch and _______?
a) Product b) Proof c) Price d) Public
Ans. b

72. Showing the customer that your product actually works and does what it says, is called ______ in a
sales pitch.
a) Picture b) Power
c) Product d) Proof
Ans. d

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73. Your final selling statement – one that will ensure the sale is called a ______.
a) Product
b) Pitch
c) Picture
d) Proof
Ans. b

74. The amount collected by selling a product or service is called sales.
a) True
b) False
Ans. a

75. The methods of tracking our money that will help manage our finances is called _______.
a) Accountancy
b) Money Management
c) Income
d) Saving of Money
Ans. b

76. Managing Money helps us determine our profits and losses.
a) True
b) False
Ans. a

77. _____ can be accounted for as business expenses.
a) Rent
b) Equipment
c) Labour charges
d) All of these
Ans. d

78. Money Management can help us understand and keep track of
a) Money available b) Expenditure incurred
c) income generated d) All of these
Ans. d

79. Which of the following is not a part of Money Management?
a) Manufacturing
b) Loss
c) Cash available
d) Profit
Ans. a

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80. Sheetal has a clothing retail business. She spends a total of Rs.3000 for 20 tops. She sells 20 tops for
Rs.4500. Sheetal has made a ______?
a) Loss
b) Profit
Ans. b

81. What is the full form of COGS is _____
a) Cost of Goods Sold
b) Care of Good Sale
c) Care of Good Sale
d) Cost of Good Sale
Ans. a

82. The formula of COGS is ______
a) Total Sales – COGS
b) Money remaining + Sales
c) Total purchases – inventory at the end of the month
d) Opening balance –expenses
Ans. c

83. The techniques which one applies to promote goods or services and increase sales is called _______
a) Marketing Techniques
b) Money Management
c) Product Pitching
d) Customer Service
Ans. a

84. It is useful to get recommendations and endorsements from ______.
a) family members
b) friends
c) former colleagues and supervisors
d) school teachers
Ans. c

85. Sponsoring local events like cricket matches or Diwali celebrations is a marketing method.
a) True b) False
Ans. a

86. Shilpa is going door to door selling handicrafts. This is an example of ______ marketing.
a) Offline
b) Online
c) Mass
d) None
Ans. a

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87. Reenu sells her product in creative packaging that customers like. This is a marketing method.
a) True
b) False
Ans. a

88. Which of these is not a marketing method?
a) Word of mouth
b) Instagram account for business
c) Paying rent
d) 20% discount on products
Ans. c

89. Anita started a TikTok account for her crafts business. She used ______ marketing strategy.
a) Online Marketing
b) Poster
c) Tagline
d) Networking
Ans. a

90. Which of these is not online marketing?
a) Facebook Post
b) Business Website
c) Instagram story
d) 30% discount on your first store visit
Ans. d

91. While carrying out business, doing the morally right thing is considered as ________.
a) Consumer law
b) Business ethics
c) decision making
d) business strategy
Ans. b

92. Discipline, Honesty, Accountability and _______ are the core values while talking to customers.
a) Respect b) Kindness
c) Power d) Money
Ans. a

93. Being responsible for your actions towards customers is known as ______
a) Accountability
b) Discipline
c) Marketing
d) Respect
Ans. a

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94. Business ethics are for customers only.
a) True b) False
Ans. b

95. An entrepreneur should ensure that the product and services should not harm the customer.
a) True b) False
Ans. a

96. Which of these are ethics for business?
a) Respecting Consumer Rights
b) Treating everyone fairly, from customers to co-workers to employees
c) Saying no to bribes
d) All of these
Ans. d

97. Whose right is this? The right to be protected against the marketing of goods and services that are
harmful to life and property
a) Consumer
b) Business
c) Child
d) Citizen
Ans. a

98. When you tell a business story, the following steps should be followed:
a. ________
b. your struggles
c. how you solved problems
d. closing
a) Customer
b) family
c) introduction
d) friends
Ans. c

99. A _______ describes what a company desires to achieve in the long-run.
a) Ethical practice b) Marketing strategy c) Business strategy d) Vision statement
Ans. d

100. The most critical part of your business success story is your ______
a) Introduction
b) Challenges
c) Supporters
d) All of these
Ans. d

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101. Which of the following are methods of marketing?
a) Words of Mouth
b) Schemes & Discount
c) Social Media Page Promotion
d) All of these
Ans. d

102. India is a _______ country.
a) Underdeveloped
b) Developed
c) Developing
d) None of these
Ans. c

103. Expansion of BRICS is
a) Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa
b) Brazil, Russia, Indonesia, China and South Africa
c) Belgium, Russia, Indonesia, China and South Africa
d) Brazil, Russia, India, China and Switzerland

104. What is the full form of FMCG?
a) First Moving Customer Goods
b) First Moving consumer Goods
c) Fast Making Customer Goods
d) Fast Moving Consumer Goods
Ans. d

105. The full form of ‘NIC’ is _______
a) Net, Interest, Cost
b) National Institute of Corruption
c) Need, Interest, Concern
d) News, Interest, Communication
Ans. c

106. What is the full form of ‘UVP’? [ITI Feb 2021]
a) Utilise value Product
b) Unique Value Proposition
c) Under Value Price
d) Unique Value Price
Ans. b

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Productivity/ Maintaining Efficiency at workplace

1. If a machine has been producing 10 pieces per working day. With the use of improved cutting tools its output in
the same time is increased to 15 pieces. The productivity of that machine is increased by .......
a) 10%
b) 15%
c) 50%
d) 25%
Ans. c

2. Productivity is defined as a ratio of ........
a) profit to input
b) input to output
c) output to input
d) profit to output
Ans. c

3. Which one of the following is NOT an objective of incentive?
a) Improved quality
b) High cost of production
c) High output
d) Reduced waste
Ans. b

4. Which one is NOT a productive benefit for “Working Environment” Category?
a) Safer condition
b) Improved air quality
c) Improved lighting
d) Increased noise
Ans. d

5. What is a disadvantage of automation?
a) Increased through put
b) Increased output consistency
c) Reduced labour cost
d) Security threats
Ans. d

6. Financial incentives are also known as ......
a) wage incentives b) moral incentives
c) travel incentive d) non cash recognition
Ans. a

7. GDP is defined as “GDP = C + G + 1 + NX” in this NX = ...........
a) imports – exports b) exports – imports
c) import – export d) export
Ans. b

8. What is an advantage of automation?
a) Reduced Operation Time
b) High Initial Cost
c) Unpredictable Development Cost
d) Security threats
Ans. a

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9. Which one of the following is NOT a category of pure risk?
a) Property risk
b) Technology risk
c) Liability risk
d) Personnel risk
Ans. b

10. During using ATM, Authentication is provided by customer by entering ........
a) cash
b) IFSC
c) PIN
d) KYC
Ans. c

11. A secure area to store cash is ______
a) cash machine
b) cash vault
c) cash processing zone
d) cash handling zone
Ans. b

12. Which one of these documents is NOT acceptable for fulfilment of KYC norms?
a) Voter ID card
b) Ration card
c) Residential certificate
d) Income certificate
Ans. d

13. “KAIZEN” means _______
a) self-descipline
b) preventive maintenance
c) sorting out
d) continuous improvement
Ans. d

14. Production work ______ due to strike or lockout.
a) Cost increase b) Panic increases c) Fatigue increases d) Stops
Ans. d
13. How can a product pose its own quality by the features?
a) By fineness b) Uniformity c) Both (a) & (b) d) None of these
Ans. c

14. An external factors of SWOT-
a) Strength
b) weakness
c) opportunities
d) greatness

15. What can be the ultimate production of a process?
a) Product
b) Tool
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None of these
Ans. c

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16. Suggestions under “Kaizen” may be implemented_________.
a) Within a week
b) With the approval of CEO
c) Immediately
d) At the time of expansion
Ans. b

17. The long term benefits by using 5 S system is/are_______.
a) Efficiency
b) Safety
c) Increase in profit
d) All of these
Ans. d

18. Best price or Zero Cost is _______.
a) Quality Leadership b) Poor quality product c) Discounted Cost d) None of these
Ans. a

19. Quality means________.
a) Zero error b) As per requirement
c) Meeting the standards established for the product d) Both (b) & (c)
Ans. d

20. Recycling _________the cost of product.
a) Decreases b) Increases c) No effect d) none of the above
Ans. a

21. 80% problem are found in 20% work, this concept was given by______.
a) Deming b) Crosbey c) Juran d) Pareto
Ans. d

22. Continuous reform process uses____ cycle.
a) PDCA b) SGA c) QC d) None
Ans. a

23. The aim of Kaizen is to remove the ________.
a) Useless items
b) Productivity
c) Personification
d) Negligence
Ans. a

24. SWOT is an acronym for__________.
a) Strategy, Working, Opinion, Tactical
b) Strength, Weakness, Opportunities, Threats
c) Strategy, Work, Openness, Toughness
d) Strategy, Weakness, Opinion, Tactics
Ans. b

25. Which formula correctly describes productivity?
a) (Output-Input)/Output b) (Input-Output)/Input
c) Input/Output d) Output/Input
Ans. d

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26. The percentage of small industry sector is _______ of whole industrial production of the country.
a) 25 % b) 50% c) 70% d) 80%
Ans. b

27. The reason for failure of an industrialist are_______.
a) Tough competition b) More expenditure
c) High rate of product d) All of these
Ans. d

28. What is gross domestic product(GDP)?
a) Income earned through foreign exchange
b) The number of dollars earned in industry
c) Goods received from the nation’s local residents
d) Income earned within a country’s boundaries
Ans. d

29. If GDP for palau a small country near southeast of the Philippines is $ 130 million in 2002 and its
population is 20,000, GDP per capita is________.
a) 6500 b) 130 c) 0.0065 d) 650
Ans. a

30. Total Quality Management (TQM) focuses on________.
a) Employee b) Customer
c) Both (a) & (b) d) None of these
Ans. c

31. During using ATM, Authentication is provided by customer by entering ……
a) Cash
b) IFSC
c) PIN
d) KYC
Ans. c

32. Low Productivity will lead to…….
a) Job security
b) Political stability
c) Decrease in GDP per capita
d) Increase in GDP per capita
Ans. c

33. The process used by a business to verify the identity of their client is …….
a) GDP
b) KYC
c) ATM
d) TFP
Ans. b

34. What is the unemployment rate if there are 125 million people in the labor force, 100 million people
employed and 25 million are not?
a) 25% b) 20%
c) 17% d) 15%
Ans. b

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35. Which market determines the real wages and employment?
a) Capital market
b) Laobur market
c) Money market
d) Goods market
Ans. b

36. Which one is used to measure the economic performance of a whole country or region?
a) KYC
b) GDP
c) TFP
d) ATM
Ans. b

37. Which of the following is not a category of pure risk?
a) property risk
b) technology risk
c) liability risk
d) personnel risk
Ans. b

38. Which one of the following is NOT an objective of incentive?
a) Improved quality
b) High cost of production
c) High output
d) Reduced waste
Ans. b

39. Which one of these documents is NOT acceptable for fulfillment of KYC norms?
a) Voter ID card
b) Ration Card
c) Residential certificate
d) Income certificate
Ans. d

40. Which stage is a period of rapid revenue growth?
a) Growth stage
b) Maturity stage
c) Decline stage
d) Introduction stage
Ans. a

41. Which one is related to work happiness in an organization?
a) Work satisfaction b) Wasting energy on a piece of work
c) Be self-centered no output d) Ignorance of the people
Ans. a

42. A worker helps bring the best output by using the available resources. Such a worker is called ______
a) Ineffective b) Productive
c) Bad d) Selfish
Ans. b

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43. Who gets the benefit of increased productivity?
a) Government b) Consumer/worker
c) Business d) All of these
Ans. d

44. One can be efficient at the workplace, if he/she
a) is punctual
b) Follows rules
c) Follows safety procedures
d) All of these
Ans. d

45. Safety includes ______
a) Proper housekeeping
b) Proper storage and handling of tools and equipment
c) Use of appropriate PPE
d) All of these
Ans. d

46. Growth of an organization, is growth of ______
a) An economy
b) A political party
c) A labour union
d) None of these
Ans. a

47. The economic growth of a country is ______
a) Increase in the population
b) Increase in the production of goods and services
c) Increase in size of families
d) None of these
Ans. b

48. Work becomes more efficient with ______
a) Population growth
b) Expansion of trade unions
c) Teamwork and collaboration
d) Becoming a developed country
Ans. c

49. Expansion of GDP ________
a) Gross Domestic Product b) Good Domestic Product
c) Great Domestic Product d) None of these
Ans. a

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50. The process of transforming ourselves for a better physical, social, intellectual state is called ______
a) Union member
b) Good Working
c) Personal growth
d) None of these
Ans. c

51. The effort taken to learn new skills and technologies, helps to _____
a) Grow in our profession
b) Become a union leader
c) Be close to political leaders
d) None of these
Ans. a

52. Team work helps to ______
a) Learn from peers
b) Collaborate with other employees
c) Be efficient at work
d) All of these
Ans. d

53. Pomodoro is the Italian word for _______
a) Tomato b) Potato
c) Brinjal d) Onion
Ans. a

54. How many stages are there in Personal Growth ______
a) Two b) Three c) Four d) Five
Ans. d

55. As organizations grow, they need to _______
a) Become satisfied with the existing technologies
b) Stay updated with changing technologies
c) Use manually operated technologies
d) None of these
Ans. b

56. As technology changes, organizations need to ______
a) Buy high-end machinery
b) Train employees periodically
c) Conduct safety training for employees
d) All of these
Ans. d

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57. Identify which is not a good practice of people management
a) involving employees in the development of business
b) giving memo for every mistake
c) Communication with employees
d) offering employee leave
Ans. b

58. Filling out a form by answering questions is a part of _______
a) Accounting b) Costling
c) Exam d) A questionnaire survey
Ans. d

59. The challenges faced by migrant workers are ______ any other workers
a) much more than
b) same as
c) not as important as
d) all of these
Ans. a

60. One of the key reason identified as affecting migrant labourers most is
a) Lack of Literacy
b) Bad habits
c) Laziness
d) Forming groups
Ans. a

61. It is the responsibility of the _____ to provide water, power and other basic facilities to the workforce
a) Government
b) Employees
c) Management
d) None of these
Ans. c

62. When workers are migrating, companies should conduct
a) a formal induction programme
b) a safety training programme
c) a cultural programme
d) an informal meeting
Ans. a

63. ________ is helpful for collecting employee feedback and understanding them.
a) Employer surveys b) Employee surveys
c) Product surveys d) Process surveys
Ans. b

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64. Lack of productivity is a serious threat to any society. It is caused by waste of ______
a) Time b) Resources c) Investments d) All of these
Ans. d

65. When a company is not productive, it has a ________ effect on its employees and society.
a) Negative b) Positive c) Neutral d) Moderate
Ans. a

66. Irresponsible employees of any company create ______
a) Loss to the company b) Affect the environment
c) Waste resources d) All of these
Ans. d

67. Low productivity leads to _______
a) low employment b) low investment
c) low saving d) All of these
Ans. d

68. Maintaining and improving productivity is a ______ process.
a) Quick b) Temporary
c) Continuous d) One time
Ans. c

69. Efficient productivity improvement techniques ensure ______
a) Individual’s growth b) Organisation’s growth
c) Both A and B d) None
Ans. c

70. What are the characteristics of workers who focus on productivity improvement?
a) Teamwork b) Vision
c) Goals d) All of these
Ans. d

71. Productivity is the _______ of production systems.
a) Measurement
b) Efficiency
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
Ans. c

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(OSHEE) Occupational Safety, Health & Environmental Education

1. Vibration and radiation come under ______
a) chemical hazards b) physical hazards
c) electrical hazards d) psychological hazards
Ans. b

2. In fire fighting method ‘Starvation’ is ______
a) limitation of oxygen b) pouring water
c) elimination of fuel d) reduction of temperature
Ans. c

3. What should NEVER be placed on a burn?
a) Oil
b) Water
c) Damped cloth
d) Dry sterile dressing
Ans. a

4. Which one is a man induced hazards?
a) Landslide
b) Cyclone
c) Volcano
d) Earth quake
Ans. a

5. In water cycle, the transformation of water vapour to liquid water droplets is called ______
a) evaporation
b) condensation
c) transpiration
d) precipitation
Ans. b

6. Which factor is NOT concerned with occupational health and safety?
a) Safety
b) Health
c) Welfare
d) Salary
Ans. d

7. Risk management involves ______
a) identifying and monitoring risk
b) hiring an employee with the job of managing risk
c) eliminating all workplace hazards
d) identify risk, assessing risk and eliminate/control risk
Ans. d

8. Which one of the following is not an ergonomic hazard?
a) Awkward position
b) Poor house keeping
c) Emotional disturbances
d) Wrong layout of machinery
Ans. c

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9. The organisms which directly or indirectly depend upon green plant for the source of food are called ______
a) abiotic
b) producer
c) consumer
d) decomposer
Ans. c

10. Pre-chlorination is a process mainly used in?
a) Sewage treatment
b) Boiler water treatment
c) Drinking water treatment
d) Industrial water treatment
Ans. c

11. The minimum water to be used for washing, cleaning of toilet, domestic comes under
a) Industrial water conservation
b) Agriculture water conservation
c) Urban water conservation
d) Thermal electrical water conservation
Ans. c

12. Environmental barriers are same as ______noise.
a) Physiological b) Psychological c) Physical d) Cultural
Ans. c

13. Hand protection is done in industries through__________.
a) Helmet
b) Goggles
c) Gloves
d) Mask
Ans. c

14. Which of the following countries has lowest rates of mining?
a) India b) japan c) Germany d) china

15. Accident is a –
a) Misbehave b) expected event c) unexpected event d) All of these

16. For hand protection, you should use-
a) long-sleeve shirts b) shield c) body harness d) gloves

17. Which of the following is termed as biological?
a) Lithospher b) Non-living c) Living d) None of these

18. Animal dung is – waste
a) Biodegradable b) Non-biodegradable c) Hazardoud d) Toxic

19. Occupational Hazards are a result/cause of :-
a) Unhealthy conditions of work b) Increasing risk of diseases
c) Risk of accident in the factories d) All of these
Ans. d

20. Which is not a component of commitement?
a) Solemn promise b) sacrifice c) ethics d) pact to perservere

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21 . Shyness is a-
a) Mental illness b) behavior tendency c) reflex d) defect

22. Common workplace hazard group identified:-
a) Mechanical Health Hazards
b) Chemical Health Hazards
c) Psycho- social Health Hazards
d) All of these
Ans. d

23. Following is NOT a good working habit:-
a) Reaching earlier from the time of duty b) Observing discipline at work place
c) Interfering in other worker’s work d) Observing safety preautions
Ans. c

24. ______should be the first concern of workers.
a) importance of safety b) High wages c) Minimum time of duty hours d) None of these
Ans. a

25. _______is the main cause of accident.
a) Electric short circuit b) Faulty tools c) Un-fenced dangerous machine d) All of these
Ans. d

26. HIV is caused by:-
a) Bacteria b) Virus c) Fungi d) None of these
Ans. b

27. HIV is transmitted :-
a) Unprotected sex with infected partners b) Kissing
c) Touching d) Sharing food
Ans. a

28. Personification of strength and violence are considered as _____ gender.
a) Masculine b) Feminine c) Common d) Neuter
Ans. a

29. Which are the sudden risks?
a) Fire b) Accident during working on Machine c) Injury d) All of these
Ans. d

30. What does HACCP stand for?
a) Hazard Analysis Control Critical Points
b) Hazard Application Control Critical Points
c) Hazard Critical Analysis Points Control
d) Hazard Analysis Critical Control Points
Ans. d

31. Which one is the most uncommon injury in the hospitality industry?
a) Sprains and strains
b) Being hit by falling object
c) Falls
d) Sun- related injuries
Ans. c

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32. Alternative sources of water include which of the following?
a) Domestic recycling
b) Rainwater harvesting
c) Aquifer storage and recovery
d) all of these
Ans. b

33. The exhaustion suffered by an individual due to continuous exposure to stress-causing situating is
normally known as_______.
a) Entrapment
b) Tiredness
c) Irritability
d) Burn-out
Ans. d

34. Workplace related injuries, illnesses and deaths impose costs upon_____.
a) Employers b) workers c) The community d) All of these
Ans. d

35. In the ongoing ‘climate change debates’ which of these groups is least likely to be identified as having
an interest in overemphasizing the need for global action on climate change?
a) The media b) Fossil fuel corporations
c) Academic climate change researches d) Countries, such as the Maldives, at risk of rising sea levels
Ans. b

36. Which of the following is/are inorganic gas (es)?
a) Carbon monoxide b) Hydrogen sulphide c) Chlorine d) All of these
Ans. d

37. The major pollutant from automobile exhaust is_______.
a) NO b) CO c) SO2 d) Soot
Ans. b

38. One of energies that is known as renewable energy is _________.
a) Coal
b) Oil
c) Tides
d) Natural gas
Ans. c

39. Source of geothermal energy is_______.
a) Sun
b) Tides
c) Earth
d) Air
Ans. c

40. ABC of first aid stands for ______
a) Airway, Bleeding and Circulation
b) Airway, Breathing and circulation
c) Airway, Bleeding and compression
d) Airway, Breathing and compression
Ans. b

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41. At what decibels, sound becomes hazardous noise pollution?
a) Above 30
b) Above 80
c) Above 100
d) Above 120
Ans. b

42. Earthquake is measured with an instrument called _____
a) telegraph
b) seismograph
c) oscillograph
d) bar graph
Ans. b

43. On the job injuries and illness, cost money time & Effort. What is the most practical way to manage
these loses?
a) make sure safety is part of labor contracts
b) Aggressive claims handling
c) Good insurance coverage
d) Effective safety and loss control program
Ans. d

44. Ozone layer is made up of ____
a) one oxygen atom
b) Two oxygen atoms
c) three oxygen atoms
d) four oxygen atoms
Ans. c

45. The reprocessing of discarded materials into new useful precuts is called _____
a) reuse of waste material
b) recycling of material
c) Management of solid waste
d) Reduction in use of raw material
Ans. b

46. The three R’s to save environment are …….
a) Reserve, Reduce, Recycle
b) Reuse, Reserve, Reduce
c) Reserve, Reuse, Reduce
d) Reduce, Recycle, Reuse
Ans. d

47. Which one is a non-renewable energy resource?
a) solar
b) coal
c) methane
d) Hydroelectric
Ans. b

48. Which one is an unsafe condition for work?
a) Oily floor b) Good light c) Proper tools d) Adequate ventilation
Ans. a

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49. Which one is the main greenhouse gas responsible for global warming?
a) Hydrogen b) Oxygen
c) Nitrogen d) Carbon dioxide
Ans. d

50. Which one of the following is NOT an ergonomic hazard?
a) Awkward position
b) Poor housekeeping
c) Emotional disturbances
d) Wrong layout of machinery
Ans. c

51. Which one of the following is not part of 3 R’s?
a) Reduce
b) Recycle
c) Regenerate
d) Reuse
Ans. c

52. Which factor is NOT concerned with occupational health and safety?
a) safety
b) health
c) welfare
d) salary
Ans. d

53. Which one of the following is an air pollutant?
a) Oxygen
b) Nitrogen
c) Carbon dioxide
d) Carbon monoxide
Ans. d

54. Protection from accident, danger, risk, hazard or damage is called as
a) Occupational safety
b) Occupational Problems
c) Anticipation
d) Work preservation
Ans. a

55. Safety of employees is important because –
a) increase the quality of products
b) improves productivity
c) reduces absenteeism
d) All of these
Ans. d

56. Loud Noise is ______ type of occupational hazard
a) Physical b) Biological c) Chemical d) Ergonomic
Ans. a

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57. Workplace safety includes protection of the workers against ______
a) weather
b) chemicals
c) dust
d) All of these
Ans. d

58. When a fire emergency occurs, people have to be ______ the workplace.
a) locked in
b) removed from
c) moved into
d) none of these
Ans. b

59. PPE stands for _______
a) Personal Protective Equipment
b) Personal Productive Equipment
c) Professional Protective Equipment
d) Professional Productive Equipment
Ans. a

60. PPE includes ______
a) safety helmets
b) gloves
c) safety glasses
d) all of these
Ans. d

61._____ are is used for eye protection.
a) Goggles b) Gloves
c) Helmet d) Ear plug
Ans. a

62. Ear plugs protect ears from _____
a) Loud Noise b) music
c) chemicals d) None of these
Ans. a

63. An accident or injury that can happen in the workplace is called
a) Occupational work
b) Occupational Hazard
c) Occupational precaution
d) None of these
Ans. b

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64. Hygiene related hazards are caused by the _______
a) contamination of hands
b) falls
c) hot or sharp surfaces
d) None of these
Ans. a

65. ______ is an example of flammable or explosive substances
a) Gas cylinders
b) Chemicals
c) flammable gas
d) All of these
Ans. d

66. Septic tanks, mines, manholes, storage towers, vessels, tunnels, etc. are called as ______
a) Open spaces
b) confined spaces
c) safe spaces
d) none of these
Ans. b

67. The help given to a sick or injured person until medical help is available is known as ______
a) Loan
b) First Aid
c) Attention
d) None of these
Ans. b

68. Hazards are caused by _______?
a) People b) Equipment c) Environment d) All of these
Ans. d

69. ______ cause injury to workers when an object, piece of equipment or material comes in contact with
the worker.
a) Physical Hazards b) Chemical Hazards
c) Biological Hazards d) Psychological Hazards
Ans. a

70. Fire, uneven surfaces, working at heights, unprotected electrical equipment can cause ______ hazards?
a) Physical Hazards
b) Chemical Hazards
c) Biological Hazards
d) Psychological Hazards
Ans. a

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71. Hazards due to the toxic properties of chemicals are classified as ______
a) Physical Hazards
b) Chemical Hazards
c) Biological Hazards
d) Psychological Hazards
Ans. b

72. Chemical hazards can be caused by _______
a) inflammable substances
c) corrosive substances
c) oxidizing substance
d) All of these
Ans. d

73. Bacteria and viruses, fungi, insect or animal bites, poisonous plants, animal waste, human waste, can
cause _____?
a) Physical Hazards
b) Chemical Hazards
c) Biological Hazard
d) Psychological Hazards
Ans. c

74. Biological hazards can arise due to organism or substances produced by other harmful organisms
a) True
b) False
Ans. a

75. Extreme pressure at workplace, conflict at workplace, harassment, can cause ______?
a) Physical Hazards
b) Chemical Hazards
c) Biological Hazard
d) Psychological Hazards
Ans. d

76. _____ reduces risk of injury, improves performance and increases productivity.
a) Economics b) Psychology c) Economics d) Ethics
Ans. a

77. Ergonomic work environment is created by:
a) keeping frequently used objects within easy reach
b) maintaining erect position of back and neck with shoulders relaxed
c) providing mobility and change of posture
d) All of these
Ans. d

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78. Maintaining a comfortable environment with good lighting, right temperature, less noise and vibration
is an example of ______?
a) Economics
b) Ethics
c) Ergonomics
d) None of these
Ans. c

79. _____ refers to any chronic aliment that happens as a result of work or occupational activity.
a) Occupational diseases
b) Occupational safety
c) Occupational hazard
d) None of these
Ans. a

80. Over exposure to pollution, chemicals, smoke can cause _____
A) Lung cancer
b) Hearing loss
c) Anthrax
d) None of these
Ans. a

81. Loud Noise in the work atmosphere can cause?
a) Lung cancer
b) Hearing loss
c) Jaundice
d) None of these
Ans. b

82. ______ are used to protect both the user and the machines
a) Machine Guards b) Machinery c) PPE d) None of these
Ans. a

83. Machine Guard helps in ______
a) Protecting the machine and the operator
b) Allowing smooth functioning and maintenance of the machine
c) Preventing the Accidents
d) All of these
Ans. d

84. In order to cut off power automatically, which of the following guards is used?a
a) Lock guard b) Interlock guard
c) Lockless guard d) Fencing
Ans. b

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85. The responsible usage of environment benefits ______
a) Only the present population
b) Only the future generations
c) Both the present and the future generations
d) None of these
Ans. c

86. Ozone depletion is the disturbance caused in the ______ layers of the atmosphere.
a) inner
b) middle
c) outer
d) core
Ans. c

87. In order to preserve our environment, we need to minimize the use of ____
a) plastics
b) air
c) sunlight
d) none of these
Ans. a

88. Excessive use of pesticides and fertilizers leads to _______
a) air pollution
b) soil pollution
c) thermal pollution
d) none of these
Ans. b

89. When we follow 3Rs method in our day to day personal and professional life, we can control the use of
a) Natural resources
b) Human resources
c) Manmade resources
d) Financial resources
Ans. a

90. Substances which can be decomposed or destroyed are called _____
a) Non biodegradable b) biodegradable
c) Biological Hazards d) Chemical
Ans. b

91. The 3R method which is used to preserve environment includes _____
a) Reduce b) Recycle
c) Reuse d) All of these
Ans. d

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Essential Skills for Success

1. Self awareness is not important while planning one’s career.
a) True
b) False
Ans. b

2. I need to build my career based on the demands of the market and not focus on my own identity, likes and
dislikes.
a) true
b) False
Ans. b

3. Education is a part of one’s background.
a) True
b) False
Ans. a

4. Background refers to a person’s experiences, training and education.
a) True
b) False
Ans. a

5. It is important for me to reflect on the different roles that I play in my life.
a) True
b) False
Ans. a

6. Each person has the same set of beliefs and values.
a) True
b) false
Ans. b

7. Knowing about our personal strengths and weakness will help in performing well in the interview.
a) True
b) False
Ans. a

8. Personal strengths make you grow well in life and career.
a) True
b) False
Ans. a

9. If we observe ourselves well, we can identify our weakness.
a) True
b) False
Ans. a

10. Addiction to alcohol, drugs or cigarettes is a strength.
a) True b) False
ans. b

11. Short term goals can help achieve your long-term goal.
a) True b) False
Ans. a

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12. A goal is a realistic and practical dream that you set for yourself.
a) True b) False
Ans. a

13. Many people find it hard to identify their strengths and weakness.
a) True b) False
Ans. a

14. Each person has strengths and weakness. Knowing them will help in setting personal goals.
a) True b) False
Ans. a

15. Money management helps us build savings.
a) True b) False
Ans. a

16. Income is money that flows out from us as spending.
a) True b) False
Ans. b

17. Fixed expenditure is
a) Income that is same every month
b) Spending that changes every month
Ans. b

18. A monthly money management plan helps to
a) Spend well so that there is enough money for all needs.
b) Spend more money to buy luxury goods
Ans. a

19. Money management is necessary for
a) Personal life
b) Professional life
c) Both Personal and professional life
Ans. c

20. Which of these websites can help us apply for passport?
a) Skill india
b) NSDC
c) ministry of health and family welfare
d) Passport Seva
Ans. d

21. Which of these documents are not compulsorily required for domestic travel?
a) Aadhaar Card b) Passport
c) Visa d) Phone bill
Ans. d

22. Which of these documents are not compulsorily required for international travel?
a) Passport
b) Visa
c) Aadhaar Card
d) Electricity Bill
Ans. d

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23. When spending money, last priority should be given to
a) Wants b) Needs c) Desires d) All of these
Ans. c

24. Which of these should be taken in account while moving to a new city for work?
a) we should think about our food preferences.
b) We should think about the difference between our salary and expected expenses.
c) We should think about the language differences.
d) We should think about how much we will miss the comfort of our home.
Ans. b

25. What type of Question is asked to measure the candidates level of confidence and his ability in an
interview.
a) Why do you think you should get this job?
b) What is your greatest achievement?
c) Where do you see yourself five years from now?
d) How would others describe you?
Ans. c

26. After receiving interview call, what is the next step?
a) Send application letter b) Prepare the resume
c) Appear at interview c) Send resume
Ans. c

27. When you should plan to arrive for your interview—
a) 2 hours early
b) 1 hours early
c) 30 minute early
d) Right on time
Ans. c

28. The experience of feeling competent to cope with the basic challenges in life and of being worthy of
happiness is—
a) Arrogance b) Self-esteem
c) Wishful thinking d) Self efficacy
Ans. b

29. Which are among the following should not included in your job resume?
a) Your name b) Your eating habits c) Your address d) Your qualification
Ans. b

30. The application letter is –
a) A description of your core strengths and suitability for the job
b) A statement of your job objective
c) A summary of your qualifications and experiences
d) A foreword
Ans. a

31. Which of the following is an achievable personal goal?
a) I want to become pilot ( said by a child)
b) I want to become a superstar ( said by a youngster)
c) I want to complete this project in two months ( said by a student)
d) I want to buy a big house. ( said by an Unemployed person)
Ans. c

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32. Which of the following is a long term goal?
a) study for the exams
b) Become a manager in a big company
c) Complete a given homework
d) complete the diploma course successfully
Ans. b

33. A resume should be………..
a) Short and precise b) Fancy and colorful
c) Having long and detailed information d) Having acronym and abbreviation
Ans. a

34. Which of the following is correct grooming standard for gentlemen while attending interview?
a) Clean Shave b) Shorts c) Slippers d) Long hair
Ans. a

35. Identify the one that does not constitute background among the given options.
a) Experiences b) Training c) Interests d) Education
Ans. c

36. What is stress?
a) Feeling of joy
b) Feeling of surprise
c) feeling of delight
d) feeling of frustration/disappointment
Ans. d

37. Which of the following is not a stress buster?
a) Spending long hours thinking about the problem
b) Going to bed on time
c) Listening to music
d) Gardening.
Ans. a

38. What is mindfulness?
a) It is the technique of not minding anything
b) It is about sharpening your brain
c) It is the ability to be fully present in a moment
d) It is the word used to describe people who are full of thoughts
Ans. c

39. Which of these should be considered while making a decision?
a) your mood
b) The choices of your friends
c) The rules of your community
d) Your personal priorities
Ans. d

40. What is pomodoro technique used for?
A) dicing tomatoes
b) managing time and staying focused on one task for longer
c) strengthening our resolve to built a habit
d) to express respect for elders
Ans. b

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41. An example of desires is
a) Books and pen
b) An expensive bike
c) Mobile recharge
d) Uniform
Ans. b

42. An example of needs is
a) food and clothing
b) Mobile
c) Expensive car
Ans. a

43. Which among these are not good plane manners?
a) We should recline our seat immediately and sleep.
b) We should be polite to fellow passengers and staff.
c) We should follow the instructions of the cabin manager
d) We should speak in a low voice
Ans. a

44. Having a clear idea of our personality including strengths, weaknesses, thoughts, beliefs, motivation,
value etc is called ______
a) Belief
b) Self Awareness
c) Myth
d) Threat
Ans. b

45. Which of the following does not constitute your identity?
a) Opinions
b) Values
c) Likes
d) Marks scored in an exam
Ans. d

46. Background refers to a person’s ______
a) experiences
b) training
c) education
d) All of these
Ans. d

47. ______ are the abilities and qualities you have as a person that helps you grow well in life and career.
a) Personal Strengths
b) Personal Weaknesses
c) Opportunities
d) Threats
Ans. a

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48. ______ are the qualities that are considered negative, and need to be worked on.
a) Personal Strengths b) Personal Weaknesses
c) Opportunities d) Threats
Ans. b

49. Which of the following is an example of personal weakness?
a) Confidence b) Being lazy
c) Hard working d) Active
Ans. b

50. What is stress?
a) Feeling of joy
b) Feeling of surprise
c) Feeling of delight
d) Feeling of frustration/disappointment
Ans. d

51. Which of these is a sign of good stress?
a) It prevents you from pursuing your goals.
b) It makes you doubt yourself
c) Does not lead to long-term tension, loss of sleep
d) Makes you physically ill or cause pain
Ans. c

52. Which of these can be a cause of stress?
a) Pressure to perform in exams
b) Conflict among friends
c) Long commute from home to work
d) All of these
Ans. d

53. Which of these is a sign of bad stress?
a) Prevent you from pursuing you goals.
b) Makes you feel physically ill or in pain
c) Makes you doubt your ability to perform at a given task
d) All of these
Ans. d

54. Which of the following is true about stress?
a) Stress can be managed
b) Stress cannot be controlled
c) Stress can not be decreased
d) All of these
Ans. a

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55. Which of these is an essential step in the problem solving process?
a) To follow your instinct b) To think deeply about the problem
c) To gather and analyze data d) To report the problem to a higher-up
Ans. c

56. Which of the following statements is true?
a) Only experts can solve any problem
b) The more problems you solve, the better you will get at problem solving!
c) We need to pursue a course to even solve a simple problem
d) It is not important to solve any problem
Ans. b

57. If someone is impulsive, it means that they act on instinct, without well about their decisions. Impulsive
decisions may lead to ______
a) No negotiation and disappointment
b) wise negotiation
c) Win
d) None of these
Ans. a

58. Decisions based on your personal priorities lead to _____
a) no negotiation
b) wise negotiation
c) disappointment
d) None of these
Ans. b

59. ________ is the process of organizing and planning how to divide your time between specific activities.
a) Time management
b) Stress management
c) Money management
d) None of these
Ans. a

60. Which of the following statement is true about time management?
a) It will help to get more done in less time, even when there is time constraint
b) Good time management enables you to work smarter
c) You will be able to meet deadlines and deliver quality products or services
d) All of these
Ans. d

61. How many days to take to form a habit?
a) 10 b) 14 c) 21 d) 7
Ans. c

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62. _______ refers to the processes of budgeting, saving, investing and spending our resources well.
a) Money management b) Stress Management
c) Time Management d) None of these
Ans. a

63. The 3 stages of Money Management are Saving, Investing and ______
a) Expenditure b) Spending
c) Income d) All of these
Ans. a

64. This intention to move out of one’s place to another for better jobs is called ______.
a) Mitigation
b) Litigation
c) Migration
d) Irrigation
Ans. c

65. What is a comfort zone?
a) It is a place where we go to sleep
b) It is a place where children live
c) Our familiar Lifestyle and behavior is our comfort zone
d) A place designed in airport for resting
Ans. c

66. Which of these statements is true?
a) All jobs are available in all cities
b) Some cities have more opportunities than others for certain job roles
c) Salary in metro cities is always higher than small towns
d) Only a few cities have job opportunities
Ans. b

67. Which of these expenses are incurred when we move to a new city?
a) Buying new clothes
b) Buying books
c) Buying shoes
d) Rent of an accommodation
Ans. d

68. Which among these are not good manners while travelling by public transport?
a) Push back our seat without checking with the person on the back seat
b) Be polite to fellow passengers and staff
c) Follow the instructions of the cabin manager
d) Speak in a low voice
Ans. a

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Labour welfare legislation/Labour Laws

1. Which one of the following remuneration is NOT included with the wages as per the “payment of wages of act”?
a) Dearness allowance
b) Medical allowance
c) City compensation allowance
d) Any bonus amount
Ans. d

2. Which scheme of ‘Act’ provide health insurance requirements for workers?
a) Factories Act
b) Plantation Labour Act
c) Employee’s Compensation Act
d) Employee’s State Insurance Act
Ans. c

3. In which case, withdrawal of EPF is not possible before attaining age of 55?
a) Transfer from one department to another
b) Retirement on account of total disablement
c) At the time of termination of service
d) Migration to other countries for permanent settlement.
Ans. a

4. ESI Act does NOT apply to employees, who are .....
a) warehouse employees
b) members in armed force
c) residential hotel employees
d) printing establishment employees
Ans. b

5. When was workmen compensation act was implemented?
a) 1924
b) 1948
c) 1968
d) 1973
Ans. a

6. How many days annual leaves is entitled for a worker as per factories Act for 240 days of work
a) 12 b) 15
c) 10 d) 20
Ans. a

7. Which is the Act vulnerable to labour exploitation with no bargaining power
a) Apprentice Act
b) Employee insurance Act
c) WAGE ACT 1936
d) Minimum wages bill
Ans. c

8. As per factories Act, 1948 canteen should be provided in the factory if, workers are more than ……
a) 100
b) 250
c) 500
d) 1000
Ans. b

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9. Under factories Act, the restriction on working time of women is…….
a) before 5 AM and beyond 7 PM
b) before 6 AM and beyond 7 PM
c) before 6 AM and beyond 8 PM
d) before 7 AM and beyond 8 PM
Ans. b

10. Under factories Act, the workers weekly hours should not exceed more than …..
a) 60 Hours
b) 50 Hours
c) 48 Hours
d) 40 Hours
Ans. c

11. What is the expansion of ILO?
a) International Labour Organization
b) Indian Labour Organization
c) Indian labour Occupation
d) International Labour Occupation
Ans. a

12. What is the minimum percentage of employee’s contribution from the basic salary, as per EPF Act, 1962?
a) 8.50%
b) 9%
c) 12%
d) 12.50
Ans. c

13. Which amount does include in “wages” amount as per payment wages Act?
a) Dearness allowance
b) Any travelling allowances
c) Any remuneration payable in respect of overtime
d) Any remuneration payable under any award
Ans. a

14. Which scheme of Act provides health insurance requirements for workers?
a) Factories Act
b) Plantation Labor Act
c) Employee’s compensation Act
d) Employee’s state Insurance Act
Ans. d

15. Wages represents _______rates of pay.
a) Hourly b) Daily c) Weekly d) Monthly
Ans. a

16. Children below the age of should not be employed.
a) 14 b) 15 c) 16 d) 18

17. The factory Act imposes the following obligations upon the employer in regard to his workers. (Sec 7A)
a) Health b) Safety
c) Welfare d) All of these
Ans. d

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18. Small Industrial Development Bank of India (SIDBI) was set up on:-
a) April 2, 2010 b) April 20, 2001 c) April 2, 1990 d) January 1, 1991
Ans. c

19. Supportive organization of RBI is –
a) IDBI b) ICICI c) IFCI d) all of these

20 . Which organization is established for Agriculture and Rural development?
a) IFCI b) EXIM c) IRBI d) NABARD

21. Worksmen Compensation Act was implemented in________
a) july 1923 b) December 1923
c) July 1924 d) December 1924
Ans. c

22. Say about the pair exactly showing the meaning of the words of the ecosystem?
a) Eco Relation between organisms and surroundings
b) System an organized scheme
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None of the above
Ans. c

23. Sort out the aims of occupational safety and health.
a) Up-gradation in physical, mental and social status of the workers
b) Defence from the hazards of adverse effects
c) Healthy working conditions
d) All of the above
Ans. d

24. An act binds for which of the following :-
a) Formation of ideal conditions b) Interrelation
c) Both (a) & (b) d) None of these
Ans. c

25. Which one of the following deduction related provision is in payment of
Wages Act 1936?
a) Voluntary deduction b) Absence deduction
c) Income tax deduction d) All of these
Ans. d

26. Arrangement of ______must be available in industry in which women workers employed.
a) Creche b) Maternity homes c) Canteen d) Rest rooms
Ans. a

27. Full form of D.I.C. is ______.
a) Direct Investment Centre b) Delhi Industrial Corporation
c) District Industry Centre d) Dual Investment Corporation
Ans. c

28. When was Indian Financial Corporation of India (IFCI) established?
a) 1948 b) 1946 c) 1951 d) 1956
Ans. a

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29. How many banks were nationalized on 15
th
April, 1980?
a) 4 b) 6 c) 8 d) 10
Ans. b

30. Which of the following was established as an ancillary organization of Indian Reserve Bank?
a) IDBI b) ICICI c) IFCI d) All of these
Ans. d

31. First cotton mill was set up in ______.
a) Kolkata b) Rajasthan c) Gujarat d) Andhra Pradesh
Ans. a

32. If an employee woks on any day on which he was employed for a period less than the requisite number
of hours constituting a normal working day, he shall be entitled to receive wages.
a) For a full normal working day
b) for the hours he had worked
c) For a half working day
d) None of these
Ans. d

33. The Central Government has amended the ceiling for contributions under the Employees’ Provident
Fund and Miscellaneous Provision Act, 1952 (EPF Act) and the Employees’ Provident Fund and
Miscellaneous Provision Scheme, 1952 (EPF Scheme) from _____ to ______, with effect from 1 september
2014.
a) Rs. 7500/- to Rs 15000/-
b) Rs. 6500/- to Rs. 13000/-
c) Rs. 6500/- to Rs. 15000/-
d) Rs. 5000/- to Rs. 12000/-
Ans. c

34. The following is paid only at the time of employees exit after serving more than five years.
a) Perquisites b) Claims c) Gratuity d) Allowances
Ans. c

35. SIDO stands for______.
a) State Industries Development Organization
b) Small Industries Development Organization
c) Scale Industries Development Organization
d) Smart Industries Development Organization
Ans. b

36. According to the shop/establishment act 1953, communication of closure of the establishment has to be
done within ______ days from the closing of the establishment.
a) 15 b) 20 c) 25 d) 30
Ans. a

37. To safeguard the workforce, many labour and industrial laws have been established by ______
a) Employer
b) Employee
c) Government
d) Customer
Ans. c

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38. Factories act ensures to regulate the working conditions of workers in the factory. Which may be an
objective of Factories Act?
a) To protect the health condition of workers in factories
b) To provide higher education
c) To force workers do overtime
d) None of these
Ans. a

39. Why are labour laws established by Government?
a) To exploit the workers
b) To recruit workers fastly
c) To safeguard the workforce from exploitation
d) To ensure that workers come to workplace on time
Ans. c

40. Which of the following is not a part of employee rights?
a) Promotions
b) Safety
c) Bonus
d) Entertainment
Ans. d

41. The stipends of apprenticeships are based on _______
a) Gender
b) Caste
c) Educational Qualifications
d) Religion
Ans. c

42. Who all are covered under Employees State Insurance Act?
a) Casual employees
b) Temporary employees
c) Contract employees
d) All of these
Ans. d

43. Stipends are provided _______ based on the educational qualifications and the nature of the industry.
a) Yearly b) Weekly c) Monthly d) Daily
Ans. c

44. ________ is defined as remuneration by way of salary, allowance or payment for the work done.
a) Pay b) Wage c) Honorarium d) Money
Ans. b

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45. The employers contribution towards EPF is ensured through the ______
a) Employees Provident Fund Act b) Employer Permanent Fund Act
c) Employees Provisional Fund Act d) Employer Provisional Fund Act
Ans. a

46. One problem regarding wages in the Indian social system is the ______ in India.
a) Gender Pay Gap b) Profit c) Domestic Violence d) Tax
Ans. a

47. Expansion of POSH is _______
a) Prevention of Social Harassment b) Prevention of Sexual Harassment
c) Provision of Sexual Harrassment d) Provision of Social Harrassment
Ans. d

48. According to the POSH Act, ‘sexual harassment’ includes ________
a) Unwelcome sexually tinted behavior
b) Vulgar and unnecessary comments
c) Unwelcome touching
d) All of these
Ans. d

49. The workmen’s compensation Act provides for payment of compensation to _________.
a) Workmen and their dependents
b) Workmen only
c) Dependents only
d) None of these
Ans. a

50. The first step in establishing social justice is to protect _______
a) The Rich b) Employer
c) Customer d) Those who can’t protect themselves
Ans. d

51. In attaining international uniformity _______ has played an important part.
a) International Labourer Organization
b) Indian Labour Organization
c) International Labour Organization
d) International Labour Organization
Ans. c

52. Labour laws helps the employees to improve their social status by boosting the ________
a) Working hours b) Morale
c) Profits d) Losses
Ans. b

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Quality Tools/Management

1. ISO has defined quality (Q) in terms of performance (P) and expectation (E) as........
a) Q = P x E
b) Q = P/E
c) Q = E/P
d) Q = P-E/P
Ans. b

2. Function of “Pareto Diagram” quality tool is to ......
a) narrow the problem area
b) make data collection easy
c) assess factors for problem
d) indicate shape of distribution
Ans. a

3. The expansion of QMS is .......
a) Quality Management Standard
b) Quality Measurement Standard
c) Quality Measurement System
d) Quality Management System
Ans. d

4. Another name of quality circle is .......
a) large group
b) standard group
c) productivity circle
d) entrepreneur circle
Ans. c

5. Head quarter of ISO is at.......
a) Sydney (Australia)
b) Geneva (Switzerland)
c) California (USA)
d) London (UK)
Ans. b

6. Total number of popular quality tools is......
a) 9 b) 8 c) 7 d) 6
Ans. c

7. What is the last step in ISO 9001 registration?
a) Correctness & Prevention action
b) Management review meeting
c) Internal audit
d) Certification & Audit
Ans. d

8. Quality guru “Dr. J.M. juran” defined quality as ......
a) quality is fitness for use
b) quality is value for money
c) quality should be aimed at customer need
d) quality as the conformance to requirement
Ans. a

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9. Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic of quality?
a) Quality of design
b) Quality of non-conformance
c) Quality of assurance
d) Quality of control
Ans. b

10. In house keeping 5s concept which ‘S’ stands for clearliness?
a) SEIRI
b) SEITON
c) SEISO
d) SHITSUKE
Ans. c

11. Which S of 5s concept stands for arranging “A place for everything and everything in its place”.
a) SEIRI
b) SEITON
c) SEISO
d) SHITSUKE
Ans. b

12. In ISO-9001 documentation, which is the first level of document?
a) Quality procedures
b) Quality manual
c) Work instruction
d) Records
Ans. b

13. Though there are many definitions on ‘Quality’ the concept of quality as per modern (latest) requirement is
a) To produce as per standared specification
b) To produce a component with a durability
c) To achieve customer satisfaction
d) To produce a component at cheaper cost
Ans. c

14. What is important element in ISO-9001 quality system that totally leads to overall quality improvement?
a) Quality audit and MRM for effecting implementation of QMS
b) Improving the design of a product
c) Improving the skill of a worker
d) improving the machineries
Ans. a

15. Fishbone chart is also called as …….
a) cause and effect diagram
b) scatter diagram
c) control chart
d) histogram
Ans. a

16. In PDCA cycle, ‘P’ stands for ……..
a) Process
b) Plan
c) Problem
d) Procedure
Ans. b

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17. the PDCA means……
a) Plan, Develop, Control, Act
b) Plan, Do, Check, Act
c) Plan, Develop, Check, Act
d) Plan, Do, control, Act
Ans. b

18. What does “SERI” Stand for?
a) Sorting out
b) Self-descipline
c) Standardization
d) Systematic arrangement
Ans. a

19. What is the function of “Histogram” in Quality tools?
a) Narrow down the problem area
b) Effect of discrete causes
c) Indicates shape of distribution
d) Assess factors for problem
Ans. c

20. What is the last step in ISO 9001 registration?
a) Corrective and preventive action
b) Internal audit
c) Management review meeting
d) Certification and audit
Ans. d

21. What is the name used for word “waste”?
a) MUDA
b) MURA
c) MURI
d) MUSA
Ans. a

22. Which one is NOT a basic tool used in quality circle?
a) Histogram
b) Pareto chart
c) Check sheet
d) Torque wrench
Ans. d

23. Which one is NOT the certified ISO standard?
a) ISO 9010
b) ISO 9001
c) ISO 9002
d) ISO 9003
Ans. a

24. Which one of the following is not the characteristics of quality?
a) Quality control
b) Quality of design
c) Quality of assurance
d) Quality of non-conformance
Ans. d

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25. Quality is all about producing products without _______
a) Price
b) Design
c) Defects
d) Standard
Ans. c

26. Quality circle are usually _______ and led by a supervisor/senior.
a) Large
b) Small
c) Different
d) Similar
Ans. b

27. Quality Circles help employees work in team towards _____
a) A common goal
b) Different goals
c) Solving different problems
d) increased profit
Ans. a

28. Quality Management system helps an organization to satisfy the need of its _____
a) Customers
b) Employees
c) Employers
d) Managers
Ans. a

29. _______ is a tool used for problem solving and decision making. It has 4 stages.
a) Plan-Do-Check-Act
b) Plan-direct-check-Act
c) Plan-Define-Check-Act
d) Plan-Deny-Check-Act
Ans. a

30. The common goal of quality management system is understanding customer’s ______
a) Emotions b) Health c) Income d) Needs
Ans. d

31. A Quality Management system is a _______ approach.
a) well defined b) Difficult
c) Complicated d) None
Ans. a

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32. Total Quality Management helps to improve the quality of all the processes within an organization. It
also leads to customer satisfaction. What are main feature of TQM?
a) Focus on user
b) Participation of workers
c) Continuous improvements
d) All of them
Ans. d

33. The basic principle of Kaizen is _______
a) Change is for good b) Change for the people
c) Sell for the better d) Buy for the better
Ans. a

34. What is the correct steps and order of 5S?
a) Share, Small, Shine, Sustain, Standard
b) Sort, Set in order, Shine, Standarize and Sustain
c) Shine, Sort, Small, Share and Standard
d) Share, Shine, Standard, Sort and Sweep
Ans. b

35. What is the 5D model used for?
a) To solve a problem
b) To understand about the problem
c) To find out possible solution
d) All of them
Ans. d

36. Kaizen is used to created ________
a) Continuous development
b) Problem solving
c) Solution
d) None
Ans. a

37. Kaizen brings ________ improvements in overall processes to help organizations succeed.
a) Small and serious
b) Small and rare
c) Continuous and small
d) Large and continuous
Ans. c

38. Standardization ________ variations in the way we work.
a) Reduces b) Increases c) Helps d) Promotes
Ans. a

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39. ISO stands for ______
a) International Order for Standardizations
b) International Organizers for standardizations
c) International Organizational Organisation for stablizaiton
d) International Organisation for Standardization
Ans. d

40. BIS stands for Bureau of Indian Standards. Is BIS a national body or international body?
a) National Standard body of India
b) Standard body of India
c) International body of India
d) International standard Body of India
Ans. a

41. Standardization means that the size, design, quality, shape, etc., of a product would meet requirement
and tastes of _______
a) Customers
b) Employers
c) Employees
d) None
Ans. a

42. ISO and BIS are _________ certificates.
a) Standardization
b) Indian
c) Global
d) Good
Ans. a

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Preparation to the world of work

1. A career could include many jobs.
a) True
b) False
Ans. a

2. Prioritize your work tasks based on how urgent and important they are.
a) True
b) False
Ans. a

3. You do not need to try to improve your skills once you start working.
a) True
b) False
Ans. b

4. It is important to separate your personal and professional life.
a) True
b) False
Ans. a

5. Career in the connection between multiple jobs.
a) True
b) False
Ans. a

6. What are the benefits of planning your career path?
a) You can make decisions faster
b) You can transition to the next logical job more easily
c) You will have a broader skill base that will make you attractive to more employers
d) All of the above
Ans. d

7. It is important to take time out each year to re-evaluate how you are doing in terms of meeting your career goal.
a) True
b) False
Ans. a

8. Market scan is a process by which we can understand the trends and changes in the world of work.
a) True
b) False
Ans. a

9. Discussion with professionals is a method of collecting information about a career.
a) True
b) False
Ans. a

10. All information available on the internet regarding careers is reliable.
a) True
b) False
Ans. b

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11. It is not important to know the world of work before making a career decision.
a) True
b) False
Ans. b

12. A person cannot have the same interest and ability.
a) True
b) False
Ans. b

13. We can develop our abilities in a particular area, if we have interest in it.
a) True
b) False
Ans. a

14. Interest is something that makes us happy.
a) True
b) False
Ans. a

15. I need to keep my interest and ability in mind, while choosing a career for myself.
a) True
b) False
Ans. a

16. My interest will remain the same throughout my life.
a) True
b) False
Ans. b

17. Many a times the activities that we are good at may not give us joy.
a) True
b) False
Ans. a

18. SMART goals are vague and difficult to understand.
a) True
b) False
Ans. b

19. If we have SMART goals, it will help us achieve important things in life.
a) True
b) False
Ans. a

20. SWOT helps in identifying one’s strengths and weaknesses.
a) True
b) False
Ans. a

21. A well-written factual resume helps to create a good impression about a candidate to the employer.
a) True
b) False
Ans. a

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22. Landmarks can be mentioned in the address section of the resume.
a) True
b) False
Ans. a

23. Writing vague skills like hard work, friendly nature, honesty etc., is to be avoided.
a) True
b) False
Ans. a

24. While providing information about internship in resumes, it is important to give details on the name of the
institute, project details, reporting head’s designation and duration.
a) True
b) False
Ans. a

25. Search engines help to browse the internet when you search for jobs online.
a) True
b) False
Ans. a

26. One can find jobs advertised online in job portals like naukri.com
a) True
b) False
Ans. a

27. Job roles describe the specified types of tasks one has to perform in the workplace.
a) True
b) False
Ans. a

28. Job role differs from trade to trade. For example, piping designer has to be efficient to help transport fluid in
different industries. Electrical technicians should be able to structure cables, carry out inspections, repair and
maintenance in electrical lines.
a) True
b) False
Ans. a

29. Interview can be face-to-face as well as in groups.
a) True
b) False
Ans. a

30. Interview is a way for the employer and candidate to get to know each other.
a) True b) False
Ans. a

31. A candidate must listen well to the interviewer before answering the questions.
a) True b) False
Ans. a

32. You can wear any kind of clothing you want for an interview:
a) True b) False
Ans. b

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33. Which one is a “don’t” in interview etiquette?
a) Be confident
b) Dress appropriately
c) Proper eye contact
d) Lie about your abilities to get job
Ans. d

34. What all does the world of work include?
a) Finding a job
b) Moving up in the job
c) Learning to be better at a job
d) All of the above
Ans. d

35. A career is not based on which of the following:
a) strengths
b) goals and aspirations
c) home address
d) qualifications
Ans. c

36. We need to learn about the world of work so that:
a) We can stay up-to-date about the different skills
b) we can stay up-to-date about technologies
c) We know the different opportunities that we have
d) All of the above
Ans. d

37. To know which career pathway is best suited for you, try to align your:
a) personal interests
b) abilities
c) skills
d) All of the above
Ans. d

38. Which of these are not an entry level job after ITI for interior designers?
a) specialist
b) interns
c) junior interior designer
d) Design assistant
Ans. a

39. Which are some of the preferred skills for an interior designer?
a) Creativity b) Detail oriented
c) Artistic ability d) All of the above
Ans. d

40. Which are not some of the technical skills required for a fashion designer?
a) Tally b) CorelDraw
c) 3D Max d) Freehand sketching
Ans. a

41. Which industry is not among the largest employers of draftspersons?
a) Manufacturing b) Transport c) Construction d) Architecture and Engineering
Ans. b

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42. Which of the following is not one of the up skilling required for stenographers?
a) Tally
b) Accounts
c) Modern office management
d) Freehand drawing
Ans. d

43. What are the different sources of information to understand a career?
a) Newspapers b) Career guidance agencies
c) Discussion with professionals d) All of the above
Ans. d

44. Which of the following websites are not popular for finding jobs?
a) Linkedin b) Sheroes
c) Naukri d) Instagram
Ans. d

45. What are some kinds of information that you can collect about a career?
a) Educational qualifications required
b) Growth prospects
c) Compensation that can be expected as a fresher
d) All of the above
Ans. d

46. Why is it important to align your interests and abilities to the work that you do?
a) It helps to be really happy and successful.
b) It helps to enjoy career more
c) It helps to feel more satisfied
d) All of these
Ans. d

47. Resume is
a) an impressive information rich document of one’s skills, abilities, qualifications and experience.
b) a document that includes all imaginary information about an individual
c) a document used to provide any information one likes to employers
d) none of the above
Ans. a

48. Information like date of birth, permanent address form a part of one’s ______ in the resume.
a) Career objectives b) Personal details c) Achievements d) Qualifications
Ans. b

49. Key skills and strengths in a resume include
a) Achievements
b) Qualifications
c) Communication, positive thinking and technical skills
d) all of the above
Ans. d

50. Naukri.com, timesjobs.com are example of
a) online job portals
b) marketing sites
c) online newspapers
d) none of the above
Ans. a

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51. What is the meaning of career journey?
a) It has a clear starting point and ending point
b) It includes multiple jobs
c) It is well defined and has a fixed title and salay
d) It is usually short term
Ans. b

52. Career is a lifelong process
a) True
b) False
Ans. a

53. Which of this is a part of your career development?
a) Your abilities
b) Your interests
c) Your determination
d) All of these
Ans. d

54. What is the meaning of an entry level job?
a) It helps to enter the office
b) Junior interior designer
c) It is a starting or junior level job
d) Security Guard
Ans. c

55. What is career card/career pathway poster?
a) It is a consolidation of information of a particular career in one place
b) It consists of my skills and qualifications
c) It has informations about a particular employer
d) None of these
Ans. a

56. Career pathways can help you in finding your way among the thousands of different occupations
a) True
b) False
Ans. a

57. Which of the following websites are not popular for finding jobs?
a) Linkedin.com
b) Sheroes.com
c) Naukri.com
d) Twitter.com
Ans. d

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58. Career pathways help us in
a) identifying career choices b) exploring careers for similar skills & interests
c) making a career plan d) All of these
Ans. d

59. Choose a statement that is not true of SMART goals
a) It makes life a lot easier
b) It’s difficult to understand
c) It helps us in building our dream career
d) It helps us to stay on track to achieve the most important things in life
Ans. b

60. A factually written resume is your first way of introduction to the employer
a) True b) False
Ans. a

61. Choose common job search engine/sites from below
a) naukri.com b) timesjobs.com c) linkedin d) All of these
Ans. d

62. Choose the sign of fake job postings
a) Job postings with employer’s contact number
b) Job postings with unclear job description
c) Job postings with updated website
d) All of these
Ans. b

63. For the interview process a candidate needs to prepare himself/herself in three stages. Choose these
three stages from below options
a) Try-focus-succeed b) Before-during-after c) Meet-talk-listen d) None of these
Ans. b

64. When an interviewer asks you to tell more about yourself you can share
a) Details about your family
b) Details about your education and qualification
c) Your interest and hobbies
d) All of these
Ans. d
65. If you have an interview tomorrow, what are the necessary documents you should carry
a) Multiple copies of resume
b) ID proofs
c) Original & photocopies of the educational qualification & experience certificates
d) All of these
Ans. d

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Customer Interaction/Service

1. Two of the simplest principles of customer service are:
a) Minimize Defects; Maximize Strengths.
b) Sell First; Service Next
c) Prepare your customer profile; Match the service to fit the profile
d) Find out what the customer needs; Do whatever is necessary to satisfy those needs.
Ans. d

2. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of excellent customer service?
a) Work is less fulfilling
b) Businesses with truly exceptional customer service can achieve a unique competitive edge
c) Customer service providers feel positive about their roles in creating positive exchanges with
customers.
d) Companies earn a more positive reputation
Ans. a

3. How can excellent customer service help retain current customers?
a) Productive solutions are developed in response to customer challenges.
b) Customer challenges are recognized
c) Customer service philosophies focus on satisfying customers
d) All of these
Ans. d

4. Customers who complain want…
a) Something for nothing
b) To be heard and have their experience validated
c) To vent for the sport of it
d) To be made majority shareholders in the company
Ans. b

5. A characteristic of excellent customer service is
a) Minimize customer interaction and contact
b) Open body language and professional communication
c) Telling the customer all about yourself
d) seeing the customer as a commodity
Ans. b

6. Which of the following is a benefit of excellent customer service?
a) Work environments deteriorate because of the added pressure
b) Customers are not treated as co-producers
c) Emphasis is on gaining new customers, not retaining old ones.
d) Profit goals are more likely to be reached
Ans. d

7. It is important to have excellent product knowledge because it lets
a) staff show off knowledge and impress the customer
b) the customer’s needs be matched with appropriate products
c) sell the higher profit margin products regardless of the benefit to the customer
d) the manager test the staff on product knowledge
Ans. b

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8. Which statement about customer is NOT correct?
a) Excellent customer service result in lower expenses and lower profit
b) Excellent customer service results in more co-producing customers.
c) Excellent customer service results in more successful attainment of profit goals.
d) Excellent customer service results in more productive solutions
Ans. a

9. What is the main reason that more business are not actually providing excellent customer
service?
a) The don’t care about serving customers
b) The don’t know how to get started.
c) The don’t like people
d) The see no value in it
Ans. b

10. Customer care is:
a) A managed care medical program for customers
b) A nifty alternative phrase that looks good in company brochures
c) A new program where customer care for themselves
d) A philosophy where in the customer is wrapped in service even before a problem arises
Ans. d

11. Which statement about customer service is correct?
a) Excellent customer service results in a more positive business reputation.
b) Excellent customer service results in more promises and therefore more lawsuits.
c) Excellent customer service results in fewer loyal customers.
d) Excellent customer service results in lower wages.
Ans. a

12. Why is customer service mandatory?
a) Customer service is mandatory as required by federal law.
b) Customer service is mandatory because without it a company will lose customers.
c) Customer service is mandatory because state law requires it
d) Customer service is mandatory because CEOs like to spend money on it.
Ans. b

13. Which of the following is a wrong notion regarding customer service?
a) Knowing the issues involved in a business is important to develop the skills for effective
customer service.
b) Once a business has “landed” a customer, it can start taking the customer for granted.
c) Treat a non-paying customer the same way you treat a paying customer.
d) The cost of finding a new customer is considerably greater than the cost of keeping one you
already have.
Ans. b

14. Which choice is one of the top ten rewards of providing excellent customer service?
a) Customer service providers can win a vacation from the company for providing excellent
serviceb) There’s less work for managers
c) Companies can hire younger people
d) Work is more personally fulfilling
Ans. d

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15. When the companies have better trained employees for the customer services, this
differentiation is classified as
a) Image differentiation b) Working differentiation
c) Employee differentiation d) Process differentiation
Ans. c

16. The study of how groups, individuals and firms buy goods and services to satisfy their needs is
called
a) Membership behavior
b) market behavior
c) database behavior
d) consumer behavior
Ans. d

17. When customers are given with the perspective that allows that company to put its best
service forward are classified as
a) Framing
b) outsourcing
c) off shoring
d) selling
Ans. a

18. The planning of marketing tactics, merchandising and customer service is the part of
a) strategic marketing plan
b) market opportunities
c) tactical marketing plan
d) firm’s financial plan
Ans. c

19. A customer walks into the office and asks for the deadline to file a permit application. You do
not know the answer. It would be best for you to do which of the following?
a) Tell the person what you think the answer might be.
b) Refer the person to your supervisor.
c) Say that you are not allowed to give out that information to the public.
d) Inform the person that you don’t know but will find out.
Ans. d

20. A person approaches you and tells you of many complaints he has about your department.
You should first:
a) Assume that his is just blowing off steam and ignore his complaints.
b) check into the legitimacy of the complaints
c) Ask for advice from your supervisor on the best way to handle the person
d) Regard the complaints as accurate and take immediate steps to correct them
Ans. b

21. Assume that you are taking a telephone message for a co-worker who is not in the office at the
time. Of the following, the LEAST important item to write on the message is the:
a) Length of the call
b) Name of the caller
c) Time of the call
d) Telephone number of the caller
Ans. a

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22. A customer has come into your office and submitted an application. When you give her some
more forms to complete, she complains about all the bureaucratic red tape that is slowing down
approval of her application. In which of the following ways should you respond to the customer?
a) Simply be patient with her.
b) Tell her the reasons why your office needs the information.
c) Suggest that she can contact her state legislators if she wants to change the law.
d) Say the you cannot process her application until all the forms have been complete.
Ans. b

23. You overhear your boss giving a client the name of a person to contact for some information.
You know this person is no longer the one to reach for this information. The client is still in the
office. What, if anything, should you do?
a) Do not get involved in the situation.
b) Quickly take your boss aside and provide the correct name.
c) Wait until the client leaves, and then provide your boss with the correct name.
d) Give the individual the correct name, and explain that your boss was not aware of a different
person being responsible to provide the information.
Ans. d

24. You're helping a computer illiterate friend setup his Internet connection over the phone. He is
just not getting what you are trying to explain. How much time do you spend explaining it to him?
a) I'd work with him for as long as it takes.
b) 10 minutes or so; I'd go through it once as quickly as possible and then hang up.
c) About half an hour; I'd make sure he understands at least the basics.
d) None at all; I'd get frustrated the first time he says "I don't understand."
Ans. a

25. Your friend/co-worker starts to get on your nerves. What would be your most likely response?
a) I would hold it in as long as possible and then finally snap, telling him/her to get out of my face.
b) I would avoid that person until s/he got the point that I need a break.
c) I would explain that I am feeling overwhelmed with work/school/life and need a break from
social obligations to be by myself for a while.
d) I would explain what is bothering me, and ask for some time to myself.
Ans. d

26. When conversing with clients who have a less extensive vocabulary (e.g. lower education
level):
a) I become very impatient and it's probably obvious.
b) I become impatient and it may show.
c) I may become impatient but I try not to let on.
d) I adjust my speech to their level.
Ans. d

27. Customers who complain:
A. Had unhappy childhoods
B. Are genetically predisposed to be sourpusses
C. Have trouble in their primary relationships
D. Are doing you a service in identifying what isn’t working in your business or organization
Ans. d

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28. The best reward for your customer service representatives is:
A. Earplugs and punching bags
B. Valium or other mind-numbing drugs
C. Recognition and appreciation on your part
D. Anger management seminars
Ans. c

29. For a company to be considered service-oriented:
A. It must mention customer service in its mission statement.
B. At least 18.3% of its employees must work in the customer service department
C. Its managers must at one time have been CSRs
D. Customer service must be addressed by all departments
Ans. d

30. Customer Service Culture is
A. A new form of yogurt where the lid removes itself for you
B. Behavior being analyzed in a Petrie dish for contagions
C. A mythical civilization in which everyone smiles and welcomes you when they meet
D. An environment where customer service permeates the thinking of the entire company
Ans. d

31. Which of the following is best understood as a period of time during which a customer interacts
directly with a service?
a) Service escape
b) Service encounters
c) service complete
d) service incomplete
Ans. b

32. When there is little or no personal contact between customer and service provider, this is
classified as:
a) High-contact service
b) Low-contact service
c) Small-contact service
d) Big-contact service
Ans. b

33. Objective of greeting a customer is
a) To give the customer positive attention and engage in conversation
b) To make the customer feel welcome and important
c) To make the customer feel welcome by making eye contact, by smiling and greeting
d) All of these
Ans. d

34. What are some of the important points to remember while greeting the customer?
a) Acknowledge customer’s presence
b) Make eye contact
c) Smile
d) All of these
Ans. d

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35. You have greeted the customer. Choose which of the following statements you should use to complete
the greeting.
a) What do you want?
a) How may I help you?
c) Why have you come?
d) Can you come later
Ans. b

36. How should we greet a customer?
a) Ignore them
b) Wait for them to speak
c) Make them feel welcome
d) None of these
Ans. c

37. Probing questions helps you
a) To identify customer’s specific needs
b) To learn customer’s pain point
c) To introduce yourself well to the customer
d) Building trust so you can receive honest feedback
Ans. a

38. Which of the following is not true?
a) Ask each customer the same set of questions
b) Ask the questions with a genuine focus on understanding your customer in order to meet their needs
c) Only ask relevant questions
d) Establish trust by focusing on customer needs and not on your product
Ans. a

39. It is best to ask ________ questions when asking questions.
a) Open & close ended
b) Rude
c) Personal
d) Sensitive
Ans. a

40. Based on the information that you get through probing, you will be in a better position to make _____
a) Proper product suggestions
b) Effective problem solving
c) Build friendship
d) No progress
Ans. a

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41. An open-ended question is one that cannot be answered with a simple yes or not and often has no
single right answer
a) True b) False
Ans. a

42. Open ended questions start with which of the following words?
a) What b) How c) Why d) All of these
Ans. d

43. Which of the following should be avoided during probing?
a) Interrupting the customer
b) Listening carefully
c) Repeating
d) Summarizing
Ans. a

44. It is also important to pay attention to customer’s ______ when probing
a) Friends
b) Dreams
c) Personal needs
d) Body language
Ans. d

45. ______ is the last and final step that will ensure that the customer pays for the product or service.
a) Closing a sale/service
b) Greeting
c) Probing
d) All of these
Ans. a

46. Can I bill this item madam? Shall I bill this service sir? This is an example for
a) Indirect close
b) Direct Close
c) Close ended Question
d) None of these
Ans. b

47. If the customer is not buying your product or service, to keep them happy which of the following things
should be done:
a) Compel them to buy the product/service
b) Offer the customer alternatives or other interesting offers
c) Argue with the customer
d) All of these
Ans. b

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48. What is feedback?
a) Reaction or response to a product sold or service offered
b) Talking behind someone
c) Speaking about someone without their knowledge
d) All of these
Ans. a

49. Feedback helps to ______
a) Improve the service
b) Modify the process or system
c) Meet customer satisfaction better
d) All of these
Ans. d

50. What actions should be taken after getting to know customer suggestions/problems?
a) Ask, Solve
b) Ask, Act, Categorize
c) Ask, Categorize, Act, Followup
d) Ask, Followup
Ans. c

51. Some ways to getting feedback include
a) Feedback forms b) Google Forms c) Survey tools d) All of these
Ans. d

52. Customer expect to be _______
a) Welcomed politely
b) Paid attention to
c) given immediate attention
d) All of these
Ans. d

53. Feedback helps to ______
a) Improve future performance b) Make people write suggestions
c) Get good job d) None of these
Ans. a

54. Customers have grievances when _______
a) Their expectations and needs are not meet
b) They don’t want the product
c) They want to be rude
d) None of these
Ans. a

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55. If a customer has registered a complaint against you, which of these steps should be followed.
a) Receive the complaint
b) Investigate
c) Provide reasons & options for solving it
d) All of these
Ans. d

56. For handling customer grievances, LEARN technique is:
a) Listen, Empathise, Accept, React, Now
b) Listen, Empathise, Apologize, React, Now
c) Listen, Example, Apologize, Receive, Now
d) Listen, Expert, Admit, React, Now
Ans. b

57. When customers are satisfied with the service/product, they become ______ the brand.
a) Annoyed with b) Strangers to
c) Loyal to d) None of these
Ans. c

58. Listening to customer feedback and modifying services help to _______
a) Develop an ongoing relationship with customers
b) Build long-term relationship with customers
c) Become close to customers as they become loyal customers
d) All of these
Ans. d

59. The 4 stages of getting customers are ________
a) Acquisition, Remember, Satisfaction, Loyalty
b) Attention, Retention, Sale
c) Acquisition, Retention, Satisfaction, Loyalty
d) Attention, Retention, Satisfaction, Loyalty
Ans. c

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