Mechanic Motor Vehicle MCQ Book PDF Free

Contents
MMV Question Bank (ITI 1
st
Year) ..................................................................................................................................... 3
ITI MMV 2nd year Question Bank ................................................................................................................................... 35
RRB ALP Mechanic Motor Vehicle .................................................................................................................................. 61
RRB ALP CBT 2 Mechanic Motor Vehicle 2019 ............................................................................................................... 62
Junior Instructor (Mechanic Motor Vehicle) 2023 .......................................................................................................... 65
MVSI (Motor Vehicle Sub Inspector), 13.02.2022 (Morning shift) ............................................................................. 68
MVSI (Motor Vehicle Sub Inspector), 13.02.2022 (Morning shift) ............................................................................. 71
DSSSB MOTOR VEHICLE INSPECTOR 2014 ...................................................................................................................... 76
DSSSB CRAFT INSTRUCTOR MECHANIC MOTOR VEHICLE 2014 ..................................................................................... 80
Chattisgarh Vyavsayik Priksha Mandal Vyapam Mechanic Motor Vehicle 2023 ............................................................ 85
MPSC RTO Assistant Motor Vehicle Inspector 2020, 2017, 2011, .................................................................................. 88
MPSC Assistant Motor Vehicle 2017 (Mains) ................................................................................................................. 89
MPSC Motor Vehicle Inspector 2023 .............................................................................................................................. 90
Motor Vehicle Act (1988) Motor Vehicle Inspector 2023 ............................................................................................... 92
Karela PSC Junior Instructor Mechanic Motor Vehicle Industrial Training Dept 2017 ................................................... 94
Kerala PSC Junior Instructor Mechanic Motor Vehicle Online Exam 2016 ..................................................................... 97
Kerala PSC Junior Instructor Mechanic Motor Vehicle Exam 2015 ................................................................................ 99
Maharashtra AMVI (Assistant Motor Vehicle Inspector) Ports and Transport Department Class-II [RTO Exam 2021]102
ASSISTANT MOTOR VEHICLE INSPECTOR 10-09-2009 ................................................................................................. 104
GPSC Inspector of Motor Vehicle Class – II [ Automobile] 2016 ................................................................................... 106
KPSC Motor Mechanic, Tradesman (Automobile Mechanic) 2023............................................................................... 109
KPSC Assistant Motor Vehicle Inspector 2023 ............................................................................................................. 113
KPSC Assistant Motor Vehicle Inspector 2015 .............................................................................................................. 115
Karnataka RTO Exam Question Paper MCQ .................................................................................................................. 116
Karnataka Motor Vehicle Inspector Question Paper MCQ ........................................................................................... 120
HPSSC MVI (Motor Vehicle Inspector) 2022 ................................................................................................................. 124
JSSC Motor Vehicle Inspector 2020 (Jharkhand) .......................................................................................................... 125

MMV Question Bank (ITI 1
st Year)
1. What is the type of mechanical hazards in workshop?
a) Illness
b) Current leakage
c) Unguarded machinery
d) Wrong layout of machinery
Answer – c

2. What is the name of the given risk symbol?

a) Risk of fire
b) Risk of wind
c) Risk of slipping
d) Risk of danger
Answer – a

3. Which type of personal protective equipment (PPE) is used for eye protection?
a) Cap
b) Mask
c) Gloves
d) Goggles
Answer – d

4. Which type of safety equipment is used for head protection?
a) Boots
b) Mask
c) Apron
d) Helmet
Answer – d

5. Which part of human body needs to be protected from high noise level at workplace?
a) Ear b) Eye c) Nose d) Head
Answer – a

6. Which personal protective equipment protects against dust?
a) Mask
b) Gloves
c) Apron
d) Face Shield
Answer – a

7. Which is an explosive hazard?
a) Physical hazard
b) Chemical hazard
c) Biological hazard
d) Mechanical hazard
Answer – b

8. Which type of oil is used in lifts and cranes?
a) Sesame oil
b) Coconut oil
c) Hydraulic oil
d) Groundnut oil
Answer – c

9. For handling loads with rough surfaces and jagged edges, which type of personal protective equipment
is recommended or advised to be used?
a) Paper gloves
b) Rubber gloves
c) Leather gloves
d) Polythene gloves
Answer – c

10. Which type of gloves are used to avoid cuts and abrasions during material handling?
a) Rubber gloves b) Leather gloves
c) Cotton gloves d) Thin polythene gloves
Answer – b

11. Which type of safety includes wearing safety shoes in the workplace?
a) General safety b) Personal safety
c) Machine safety d) General and machine safety
Answer – b

12. What is the name of the following prohibition sign?

a) One way prohibited
b) Pedestrians prohibited
c) Do not extinguish fire with water
d) Smoking prohibited
Answer – d

13. What is the name of the following warning sign?

a) Fire hazard b) Laser beam c) Toxic hazard d) Electric shock hazard
Answer – d

14. What is the name of the following safety sign?

a) Eye protection b) Head protection
c) Ear protection d) Respiratory protection
Answer – a

15. What is the name of the following warning sign?

a) Fork lift b) Fire hazard c) Fragile roof d) Toxic hazard
Answer – d

16. What is the name of the following safety sign?

a) No entry b) Pedestrians prohibited
c) No walking in the work area d) No walking in this work area
Answer – b

17. What is the name of the following safety sign?

a) Wear head protection b) Protect head from rain
c) Protect head from sun d) Only construction workers allowed
Answer – a

18. What is the name of the following mandatory sign?

a) Save water
b) Wash hands
c) Canteen zone
d) Drinking water
Answer – b

19. Which equipment is used for lifting the vehicle for water wash in vehicle service station?
a) Hoist b) Crane
c) Stand d) Screw jack
Answer – a

20. Which equipment is used to support the vehicle while lifting it before working under it for safe
working?
a) Stand
b) Sling chain
c) Lifting crane
d) Hydraulic jack
Answer – a

21. Which oil is harmful for environment?
a) Engine oil
b) Hydraulic oil
c) Seed/nut oil
d) Used engine oil
Answer – d

22. Smoking is prohibited in which area?
a) Water filling area
b) Fuel filling area
c) Chana bazaar
d) City boundary area
Answer – b

23. What is the cause of fire while refueling a hot engine?
a) Vapor b) Paper
c) Cloth d) Leather
Answer – a

24. A type of fastener having threads on both ends is called _____
a) Rivet
b) Pin
c) Stud
d) Bolt
Answer – c

25. Which automobile component produces dust?
a) Axle b) Piston c) Gear box d) Brake shoe
Answer – d

26. Which type of material can be toxic for lung cancer?
a) Fiber
b) Wood
c) Graphite
d) Asbestos
Answer – d

27. Which device is best for controlling toxic waste?
a) Wire brush
b) Cotton waste
c) Air compressor
d) Vacuum cleaner
Ans – d

28. First aid comes under –
a) Treatment of victim for electric shock
b) Completing a first aid
c) Assessing the vital signs of the victim
d) Giving immediate care and assistance to the injured person
Ans – d

29. What will be your immediate action after completing first aid?
a) Call a taxi
b) Call your friend
c) Call the fire service
d) Call emergency service
Ans – d

30. What is ABC in first aid?
a) Army, Branch, Calculate b) Aviation, Breathing, Cumin
c) Away, Breathing, Calculation d) Airway, Breathing, Circulation
Ans. d

31. Which three elements must be present for any fire to burn?
a) a) Fuel + Heat + Oxygen b) Oxygen + Fuel + Paper
c) Heat + Water + Oxygen d) Smoke + Fuel + Oxygen
Answer – a

32. Identify what is shown in the figure given below?

a) Glow plug b) Heat plug
c) Spark plug d) Ignition plug
Answer – c

33. What is the cause of electrical fire?
a) Over rated fuses
b) Under loaded circuits
c) Over loaded circuits
d) Tight wire connections
Answer – c

34. Which is the most flammable liquid?
a) LPG
b) Water
c) Diesel
d) Crude oil
Answer – a

35. What is the type of fire associated with wood, cloth and paper?
a) Class a b) Class b
c) Class c d) Class d
Answer – a

36. Which should not be used on burning liquids?
a) Carbon dioxide b) Foam c) Sand d) Water
Answer – d

37. Which type of fire extinguisher is unsuitable for electrical fires?
a) Carbon dioxide b) CTC
c) Foam d) Dry powder
Answer – c

38. Which item is used to stop Class B fires?
a) Carbon dioxide
b) Argon
c) Oxygen
d) Nitrogen
Answer – a

39. Fires of flammable liquids fall under which class? a) Class a
b) Class b
c) Class c
d) Class d
Answer – b

40. Which type of fire extinguisher is suitable for class A fire?
a) Halon
b) Dry powder
c) Foam or water
d) Carbon dioxide
Answer – c

41. How to take care of a burnt hand?
a) Apply hot air to the burnt hand
b) Apply cold air to the burnt hand
c) Cover the burnt hand with water
d) Cover the burnt hand with hot water
Answer – c

42. Which type of fire extinguisher is suitable for class C fire?
a) Foam
b) Water
c) Dry powder
d) Carbon dioxide
Answer – c

43. Wearing gloves and helmet in a workshop is included in which safety?
a) General safety b) Personal safety
c) Machine safety d) General and machine safety
Answer – b

44. Which type of safety says not to spill fuel at work place?
a) General safety b) Personal safety c) Machine safety d) Both b and c
Answer – a

45. Which type of first aid care is given for a severely bleeding open wound?
a) Allow the wound to drain
b) Reduce the wound area below the body
c) Apply pressure near the wound to stop bleeding
d) Apply pressure on the wound itself to stop bleeding and avoid infection
Answer – c

46. Which is the major opportunity for energy conservation?
a) Stopping leakage b) Changing machinery
c) Changing household appliances d) Reduction in housekeeping
Answer – b

47. Which hand tool is used for circular cut in sheet metal work?
a) Straight snip b) Band snip
c) Size cutting plier d) Combination plier
Answer – b

48. What is the name of the following caliper?

a) Outside caliper
b) Firm joint caliper
c) Hill type Janney caliper
d) Hill type joint caliper
Answer – c

49. Which spanner is used for zero setting in outside micrometer?
a) Hook spanner
b) Ring spanner
c) Adjustable spinner
d) Double end spinner
Answer – a

50. What is the name of the part marked as ‘x’?

a) Face b) Chick c) Wedge d) Pen
Answer – c

51. What is the name of the following hammer?

a) Club hammer
b) Ball pin hammer
c) Straight pin hammer
d) Cross pin hammer
Answer – a

52. What is the name of the following marking instrument?

a) Bevel gauge
b) Bevel protractor
c) Universal bevel gauge
d) Universal surface gauge
Answer – d

53. What is the name of the following caliper?

a) Firm joint caliper
b) Spring joint caliper
c) Outside caliper
d) Inside caliper
Answer – d

54. What is the name of the following caliper?

a) Jenny caliper
b) Spring joint caliper
c) Outside caliper
d) Inside caliper
Answer – c

55. What is the name of the following plier?

a) Flat nose plier
b) Round nose plier
c) Slip joint multi grip plier
d) Internal circle plier
Answer – c

56. What is the name of the following tool?

a) Work cutter b) Circle cutter c) Pipe cutter d) Thread cutter
Answer – c

57. What is the name of the following tool?

a) Crimping tool b) Flaring tool c) Wrench d) Ratchet
Answer – b

58. What is the name of the hammer used in operation?

a) Mallet hammer b) Ball peen hammer
c) Cross peen hammer d) Straight peen hammer
Answer – a

59. What is the name of the following plier?

a) Round nose plier b) End cutting plier c) Combination plier d) Side cutting plier
Answer – d

60. What is the name of the following socket key?

a) Octagon key b) Hexagon socket key
c) Pentagon socket key d) Nonagon socket key
Answer – b

61. What is the name of the following vice?

a) Pipe vice b) Hand vice c) Pin vice d) Tool maker vice
Answer – c

62. What is the name of the following screw driver?

a) Ratchet screw driver b) Offset screw driver c) Stumpy screw driver d) Cross race screw driver
Answer – c

63. What is the name of the following screw driver?

a) Cross recess screw driver b) Ratchet screw driver
c) Stumpy screw driver d) Offset screw driver
Answer – a

64. What is the meaning of ABS ?
a) Anti-lock braking system b) Advanced braking system
c) Additional braking system d) Alternative braking system
Answer – a

65. What is the name of the part marked as ‘x’ ?

a) Beam
b) Fixed jaw
c) Depth measuring blade
d) Vernier scale
Answer – a

66. What is the name of the part marked as ‘x’ ?

a) Cap b) Lock c) Stock d) Thimble
Answer – c

67. What is the name of the part marked as ‘x’ ?

a) Anvil b) Spindle c) Thimble d) Spindle lock
Answer – d

68. What is the name of the bevel graduated sleeve of outside micrometer?
a) Anvil b) Barrel c) Thimble d) Spindle
Answer – c

69. What is flaring?
a) Increasing the diameter of a tube end
b) Decreasing the diameter of a tube
c) Decreasing the length of a tube
d) Decreasing the length of a tube
Answer – a

70. Which type of socket spanner can be converted into an angle?
a) Socket spanner
b) Slip socket spanner
c) Spark plug socket spanner
d) Swivel socket spanner
Ans – d

71. Which tool is used to tighten nuts and bolts to the recommended tightness?
a) Stud wrench
b) Pipe wrench
c) Torque wrench
d) Adjustable wrench
Ans – c

72. Which metal tube is used for single thickness flare?
a) Brass
b) Bronze
c) Copper
d) Aluminium
Ans – c

73. Which is a colourless, odourless tasteless and highly toxic gas?
a) CO b) CO2 b) NOx c) SOx
Ans. a

74. Which type of chisel is used to remove excess metal from a welded joint?
a) Cross cut chisel
b) Half round chisel
c) Flat chisel
d) Diamond point chisel
Answer – c

75. What is the purpose of angle plate?
a) Machining b) Marking
c) Polishing d) Grinding
Answer – b

76. What is the purpose of half round chisel?
a) Cutting excess metal
b) Cutting curved grooves
c) Cutting key wedges
d) Cutting edges
Answer – b

77. Which screw driver is used in blind space?
a) Ratchet screw driver
b) Offset screw driver
c) Phillips screw driver
d) Stumpy screw driver
Answer – b

78. What is the purpose of cross pin in hammer?
a) Fixing handle
b) Striking the metal
c) Stretching the metal in one direction
d) Stretching the metal in all directions
Answer – c

79. How are screwdrivers specified?
a) By length of blade and width of tip
b) By width and diameter of edge
c) By thickness and length
d) By shape and length
Answer – a

80. Which part of engine can be measured by dial gauge?
a) Crank pin
b) Gudgeon pin
c) Piston
d) Cylinder bore
Answer – d

81. Which gauge is used to check spark plug gap?
a) Telescopic gauge b) Vernier gauge
c) Pitch gauge d) Feeler gauge
Answer – d

82. Which instrument is used to check piston ring and gap?
a) Telescopic gauge b) Vernier gauge
c) Pitch gauge d) Feeler gauge
Answer – d

82. Which instrument is used to check piston ring and gap?
a) Filler gauge
b) Vernier gauge
c) Pitch gauge
d) Telescopic gauge
Ans – a

83. Which precision instrument is used for taking external, internal and depth measurements?
a) Vernier caliper b) Depth micrometer
c) Outside micrometer d) Inside micrometer
Ans – a

84. In outside micrometer the distance covered by the spindle in one complete rotation of the thimble is?
a) 2 mm
b) 1.5 mm
c) 1.0 mm
d) 0.5 mm
Ans. d

85. Which measuring gauge needs to be set up to a certain dimension before use?
a) Depth gauge
b) Dial text indicator
c) Dial bore gauge
d) Vernier dial gauge
Ans – c

86. Which gauge is used to check the leakage of inset?
a) Filler gauge b) Vacuum gauge
c) Pressure gauge d) Emission gauge
Answer – b

87. What is the name of the following drilling machine?

a) Breast drilling machine b) Ratchet drilling machine
c) Pneumatic drilling machine d) Bevel gear drilling machine
Answer – b

88. Which drilling machine is used to drill multiple holes in a single bore?
a) Hand drilling machine b) Pillar drilling machine
c) Column drilling machine d) Radial drilling machine
Answer – d

89. What is the unit of cutting speed?
a) Meter/second
b) Meter/minute
c) Centimeter/minute
d) Centimeter/second
Answer – b

90. Which part of the drill is fitted on the machine?
a) Point
b) Flute
c) Shank
d) Body
Answer – c

91. What is the name of the angle between the cutting edges of a drill?
a) Helix angle b) Rake angle
c) Clearance angle d) Point angle
Answer – d

92. What is the name of the angle marked as ‘x’?

a) Rake angle b) Point angle c) Helix angle d) Lip clearance angle
Answer – d

93. What is the name of the following die?
a) Solid die b) Half die c) Circular split die d) Rectangle split die

Answer – c

94. What is the name of the following reamer?

a) Taper shank drill
b) Hand reamer
c) Straight shank drill
d) Machine reamer
Answer – a

95. What is the formula to calculate drill size for reaming?
a) Drill size = Reamed size – (Under size-over size)
b) Drill size=Reamed size + (Under size + over size)
c) Drill size=Reamed size-(Under size + over size)
d) Drill size = Reamed size-(Under size x over size)
Ans. c

96. What is the material used in hand reamer?
a) Mild steel b) Brass c) High speed steel d) Cast iron
Ans. c

97. What is the name of the following operation?

a) Drilling b) Tapping c) Deeping d) Reaming
Ans. d

98. Which device is used to hold straight shank drill?
a) Stock b) Chuck
c) Sleeve d) Socket
Ans. b

99. Which drilling machine is used to drill small diameter holes upto 6 mm?
a) Bevel gear hand drill
b) Pneumatic hand drill
c) Electric hand drill light duty
d) Electric hand drill heavy duty
Answer – a

100. A tap drill size is selected by –
a) Major diameter + pitch
b) Major diameter x pitch
c) Major diameter / pitch
d) Major diameter – pitch
Answer – d

101. Which taper is used in drilling machine?
a) Pin taper
b) Brown and Sharpe taper
c) Metric taper
d) Morse taper
Answer – d

102. What is the name of the following movement?

a) Holding the drill b) Removing the drill c) Clamping the spindle d) Removing the spindle
Answer – b

103. Which part of the drill forms the cutting edge?
a) Land
b) Point
c) Flute
d) Body
Answer – c

104. Which angle of drill bit prevents abrasion behind the cutting edge?
a) Point angle b) Rake angle
c) Clearance angle d) Helix angle
Answer – c

105. Which tap of a set has 40 chamfer at the end?
a) Intermediate tap
b) Plug tap
c) Taper tap
d) Bottoming tap
Answer – c

106. What are the uses of hand tap?
a) To make external thread
b) To make internal thread
c) To bevel the end of the hole
d) To enlarge the hole
Answer – b

107. Which tool is used to make external thread on pipe?
a) Tap
b) Drill
c) Die
d) Reamer
Answer – c

108. What is used to hold the die?
a) Wrench b) Spanner
c) Stock d) Chuck
Answer – c

109. Which is a multipoint cutting tool?
a) Chisel
b) Scraper
c) Reamer
d) Snip
Answer – c

110. Which is the hardest abrasive material?
a) Diamond
b) Boron carbide
c) Silicon carbide
d) Aluminium oxide
Answer – a

111. Which process improves the sealing between mating parts?
a) Filing b) Grinding
c) Reaming d) Lapping
Answer – d

112. What is the reason for poor cutting of twist drill?
a) Clearance angle too small
b) Clearance angle too large
c) Lip angle too small
d) Lip angle too large
Ans – b

113. If worn reamer is used then what will be the effect on the hole?
a) Over size
b) Under size
c) Correct size
d) Normal size
Ans – b

114. What is the mathematical expression (formula) of Ohm?
a) I = V/R b) I = R/V
c) V=I/R d) R=I/V
Ans. a

115. What is the purpose of radiator in cooling system?
a) Cool the hot air
b) Cool the hot oil
c) Cool the hot water
d) Cool the water pump
Ans – c

116. What is the name of the following electronic symbol?

a) Diode
b) Switch
c) Battery
d) Transistor
Answer – a

117. Which electronic component is used as a solid state switch?
a) Inductor
b) Resistor
c) Capacitor
d) Transistor
Answer – d

118. What is the name of the following symbol?

a) Diode
b) Transistor
c) Triode
d) Thermistor
Answer – b

119. Which is a temperature sensitive resistance?
a) Diode
b) Thyristor
c) Thermistor
d) Transistor
Answer – c

120. Which component is used to measure the temperature of the coolant of an engine?
a) Thermistor
b) Resistor
c) Transistor
d) Diode
Answer – a

121. How many cells are there in a 12 volt battery?
a) 2
b) 6
c) 9
d) 12
Answer – b

122. The positive plate of a lead acid battery is made of which material?
a) Tin
b) Lead peroxide
c) Antimony
d) Spongy lead
Answer – b

123. The negative plate of a lead acid battery is made of which material?
a) Spongy lead b) Tin
c) Antimony d) Lead peroxide
Answer – a

124. What is the colour of the positive plates in a charged lead acid battery?
a) Grey b) Brown c) White d) Black
Answer – b

125. How is the capacity of a battery expressed?
a) Ampere-hour rating b) Voltage-hour rating
c) Ampere rating d) Voltage rating
Answer – a

126. Which instrument is used to measure electrical resistance?
a) Ammeter b) Voltmeter c) Ohmmeter d) Wattmeter
Answer – c

127. What is the name of the following circuit?

a) Open circuit b) Short circuit c) Closed circuit d) Parallel circuit
Answer – a

128. What is the name of the given electrical measuring instrument?

a) Ammeter b) Voltmeter
c) Wattmeter d) Multimeter
Answer – d

129. Which law states “Electric current is proportional to voltage and inversely proportional to resistance”?
a) Ohm’s law b) Hooke’s law
c) Boyle’s law d) Newton’s law
Answer – a

130. What is the purpose of colour code in cables?
a) Colour refers to the current rating b) Colour refers to the voltage rating
c) Easy identification of each circuit d) Refers to the size of the wire
Answer – c

131. Which device has the capacity to store electric charge?
a) Capacitor
b) Resistor
c) Insulator
d) Conductor
Answer – a

132. What is the name of the part marked as x?

a) Cylinder head
b) Engine block
c) Connecting rod
d) Cam shaft
Answer – d

133. What is the energy conversion of battery during discharge?
a) From electrical energy to thermal energy
b) From chemical energy to electrical energy
c) From electrical energy to chemical energy
d) From electrical energy to mechanical energy
Answer – b

134. Which engine has a carburetor?
a) Petrol b) Diesel c) Kerosene d) Mineral oil
Answer – a

135. Which shell electrons have the least energy?
a) K shell electrons b) L shell electrons
c) M shell electrons d) N shell electrons
Answer – a

136. Which is a semiconductor material?
a) Arsenic and Boron b) Gallium and Indium
c) Germanium and Silicon d) Aluminium and Antimony
Answer – c

137. How can a semiconductor material be identified from its atomic structure?
a) Two electrons in the outermost orbit b) Three electrons in the outermost orbit
c) Four electrons in the outermost orbit d) Five electrons in the outermost orbit
Answer – c

138. Which is the thickest cable used in automobile wiring?
a) Horn cable b) Head light cable
c) Starter motor cable d) Wiper motor cable
Answer – c

139. What is the name of the part marked as x?

a) Cotter pin b) Piston pin c) Split pin d) Crank pin
Answer – b

140. What does the floating level of the hydrometer indicate about the battery charge rate?

a) Discharge b) ¼ charge
c) ½ charge d) Full charge
Ans – d

141. What is the specific gravity of half charged battery?
a) 1.170 – 1.200
b) 1.200 – 1.230
c) 1.240 – 1.250
d) 1.260 – 1.280
Ans. b

142. How do the number of positive and negative plates in a lead acid battery compare?
a) Positive plate is equal to negative plate
b) Negative plate is one more than positive plate
c) Negative plate is one less than positive plate
d) Positive plates are one more than negative plate
Ans – b

143. What is the use of ohmmeter in electric circuit?
a) Measurement of resistance b) Measurement of electric current
c) Measurement of voltage d) Measurement of power
Answer – a

144. Which measuring instrument is used to measure ampere, volt and resistance?
a) Watt meter b) Energy meter
c) Galvan meter d) Multimeter
Answer – d

145. If a battery gives 5 ampere and duration of 20 hours, then what will be the ampere hour rating?
a) 80 ampere hour b) 90 ampere hour
c) 100 ampere hour d) 110 ampere hour
Answer – c

146. What is the use of hydrometer?

a) To check the specific gravity of electrolyte
b) To check the density of water
c) To check the temperature of electrolyte
d) To check the density of sulphuric acid
Answer – a

147. What is the effect of soft iron bar in a closed circuit?

a) Shock effect
b) Thermal effect
c) Magnetic effect
d) Chemical effect
Answer – c

148. What is the advantage of maintenance free sealed battery?
a) No need to check and top up distilled water
b) No need to recharge the battery
c) No chance of sulphation of battery terminals
d) No need to disconnect
Answer – a

149. Which type of circuit has an infinite resistance?
a) Open circuit b) Short circuit
c) Series closed circuit d) Parallel closed circuit
Answer – a

150. Which type of circuit has dangerous effect?
a) Open circuit b) Series circuit
c) Short circuit d) Parallel circuit
Answer – c

151. What is the name of the following electrical symbol?

a) Cell b) Battery c) Earth d) Resistance
Answer – b

152. What is the reason of blowing of fuse in an electrical circuit?
a) Open circuit b) Short circuit c) Series circuit d) Parallel circuit
Answer – b

153. What is the purpose of reamer?
a) To drill holes in thin sheet b) To remove burrs
c) To drill deep holes d) To enlarge and finish holes
Answer – d

154. What is the name of the part marked as x in pneumatic brake system?

a) Air tank b) Air pressure gauge c) Brake valve d) Compressor
Answer – d

155. What is the name of the part marked as x in pneumatic brake system?

a) Air release valve
b) Brake valve
c) Pressure release valve
d) Bypass valve
Answer – b

156. What is the type of the following compressor?

a) Gear type b) Vane type c) Rotary type d) Reciprocating type
Answer – d

157. Which measures the fluid resistance to flow?
a) Gravity b) Elasticity c) Quality d) Viscosity
Answer – d

158. 140. What is the specific gravity of a fully charged battery?
a) 1.170 – 1.200 b) 1.210 – 1.230 c) 1.240 – 1.250 d) 1.260 – 1.280
Ans. d

159. What is the name of the following drive pump?

a) Vane pump b) Plunger pump
c) Internal gear drive pump d) External gear drive pump

Ans. d

160. What is the name of the following hydraulic cylinder?

a) Double rod cylinder b) Double acting cylinder
c) Single acting cylinder d) Rotary acting cylinder
Ans. c

161. What is the name of the following valve?

a) Pressure relief valve b) Bypass valve c) Check valve d) Inlet valve
Answer – c

162. What is the name of the following symbol?

a) Roller operated
b) Foot pedal
c) Push button
d) General button
Answer – b

163. What is the name of the part marked as x in the following hydraulic clutch?

a) Slave cylinder
b) Master cylinder
c) Air cylinder
d) Wheel cylinder
Answer – b

164. What is the name of the part marked as x in the following hydraulic clutch?

a) Wheel cylinder
b) Master cylinder
c) Clutch cylinder
d) Slave cylinder
Answer – d

165. What is the name of the part marked as x in power assisted steering system?

a) Steering gear
b) Piston rod
c) Pressure line
d) Fluid reservoir
Answer – d

166. What is the name of the part marked as x in pneumatic system?

a) Regulator
b) Control valve
c) Filter
d) Air service unit
Answer – c

167. What is the function of hydraulic oil in hydraulic system?
a) Transmit power b) Increase heat
c) Increase volume d) Reduce pressure
Answer – a

168. Which type of pump is used in hydraulic jack?
a) Gear pump b) Plunger pump
c) Vane pump d) Internal gear pump
Answer – b

169. Which device converts mechanical energy into pneumatic energy?
a) Actuator b) Generator
c) Alternator d) Compressor
Answer – d

170. Which device converts hydraulic energy into mechanical energy?
a) Actuator
b) Regulator
c) Compressor
d) Control valve
Answer – a

171. Which valve protects hydraulic jack?
a) Relief valve
b) Shut off valve
c) Non return valve
d) Compressor
Answer – a

172. Which device transmits pressure equally to all wheel cylinders in hydraulic brake?
a) Slave cylinder
b) Servo cylinder
c) Master cylinder
d) Booster cylinder
Answer – c

173. Which component of air brake system converts pneumatic into mechanical energy? a) Reservoir
b) Brake valve
c) Compressor
d) Brake chamber
Answer – d

174. Which service unit acts as filter, regulator and lubricator in pneumatic system?
a) Air service unit b) Compressor unit c) Valve unit d) Actuator unit
Answer – a

175. What is the power source of pneumatic system?
a) Actuator
b) Control valve
c) Air compressor
d) Air service unit
Answer – c

176. What is the working media in pneumatic system?
a) Air
b) Oil
c) Diesel
d) Stream
Answer – a

ITI MMV 2nd year Question Bank
1. What is the name of the part marked as x in a heavy vehicle?

a) Steering wheel
b) Clutch housing
c) Gear box
d) Fuel tank
Answer – b

2. Which battery is used in heavy vehicles?
a) 6 volts
b) 12 volts
c) 24 volts
d) 28 volts
Answer – c

3. What is the working principle of clutch?
a) Sliding
b) Centrifugal
c) Friction
d) Screw and nut
Answer – c

4. What type of clutch is this?

a) Cone clutch
b) Single plate clutch with coil spring
c) Diaphragm clutch
d) Multi plate dry end clutch
Answer – b

5. Which of the following is a type of clutch?

a) Single plate clutch b) Dog clutch c) Multi plate clutch d) Cone clutch
Answer – d

6. What is the name of the following clutch?

a) Cone clutch b) Diaphragm spring type clutch c) Dog clutch d) Multi plate clutch
Answer – b

7. What is the name of the part marked by x in the following dog clutch?

a) Splined shaft
b) Driving shaft
c) Sleeve
d) Inner teeth
Answer – c

8. Which part is in the following figure?

a) Single plate clutch b) Multi plate clutch c) Fluid coupling d) Dog clutch
Answer – c

9. What is the name of the following clutch?

a) Cone clutch b) Dog clutch c) Multi plate clutch d) Single plate clutch
Answer – c

10. What is the name of the part marked by x in the following fluid coupling?

a) Driver unit impeller
b) Crank shaft
c) Driven shaft
d) Inner fins
Answer – d

11. Which instrument is used to check the pressure plate?
a) Straight edge and filler gauge
b) Steel rule and angle gauge
c) Straight edge and slip gauge
d) Parallel block and radius gauge
Answer – a

12. What is the name of the instrument shown by x symbol to check fly wheel run out?

a) Outside micrometer
b) Dial test indicator
b) Inside micrometer
d) Dial bore gauge
Answer – b

13. Which gear box is in the following figure?

a) Constant mesh gear box
b) Sliding mesh gear box
c) Synchromesh gear box
d) Automatic sliding gear box
Ans – a

14. What is the name of the seal shown by x in the following figure servo piston?

a) Square cut seal b) Metal sealing ring
c) Lip seal d) Teflo seal
Ans – c

15. Which gear box is in the following figure?

a) Sliding mesh gear box
b) Synchronous mesh gear box
c) Constant mesh gear box
d) Automatic sliding gear box
Ans – a

16. What is the tripod joint permission angle?
a) 130
b) 180
c) 260
d) 320
Ans. c

17. Which of the following is a type of constant velocity joint?

a) Pot joint
b) Tripod joint
c) Ball joint
d) Double joint
Answer – b

18. Which of the following is a drive line?

a) Front wheel drive line
b) Rear wheel drive line
c) Center wheel drive line
d) Four wheel drive line
Answer – a

19. Which of the following is a type of synchronous gear box?

a) Bulk ring type
b) Bulk type
c) Multi and double cone type
d) Porch type
Answer – a

20. Which of the following is a type of synchronous gear box?

a) Bulk ring type
b) Multi and double cone type
c) Bulk type
d) Porch type
Answer – c

21. In synchronizing action, x stands for?

a) Gear
b) Conical cup
c) Hub
d) Synchronizer sleeve
Answer – d

22. Which type of fixed constant velocity joint is in the following figure?

a) Double joint
b) Ball joint
c) Pot joint
d) Tripod joint
Answer – b

23. Which type of constant velocity joint is in the following figure?

a) Ball and trunnion type universal joint
b) Cross type universal joint
c) Slip joint
d) Double joint
Answer – b

24. Which type of drive is in the following figure?

a) Torque tube drive
b) Hotchkiss drive
c) Four wheel drive
d) Front wheel drive
Answer – a

25. Which type of joint allows for small deflection angle and linear variation?
a) Flexible disc
b) Double joint
c) Pot joint
d) Tripot joint
Ans – a

26. What is the permitted diffraction angle in a double joint?
a) 500
b) 620
c) 580
d) 720
Ans. a

27. In the following figure what is the part represented by x in the double joint?

a) Spider b) Shaft wheel end
c) Double joint fork d) Sealing cup
Ans – b

28. What is the permitted diffraction angle in a pot joint?
a) 180 b) 200 c) 220 d) 260
Ans. c

29. Which type of gear converts rotary motion into linear motion and vice versa?
a) Helical gear b) Rack and pinion c) Spur gear d) Bevel gear
Answer – b

30. In which type of gear axial thrust is not produced while transmitting torque?
a) Helical gear
b) Worm gear
c) Spiral bevel gear
d) Spur gear
Answer – d

31. In which type of gear more than one tooth is in contact with each other at the same time?
a) Spur gear
b) Rack and pinion
c) Helical gear
d) Spiral bevel gear
Answer – c

32. In which type of gear teeth are straight and parallel to the gear axis?
a) Spur gear
b) Helical gear
c) Worm gear
d) Bevel gear
Answer – a

33. Which type of seal is used between two parts which do not rotate with each other?
a) Dynamic seal b) Static seal
c) Square cut seal d) Teflon
Answer – b

34. In which type of gear box helical gear is used?
a) Auto synchromesh gear box
b) Constant mesh gear box
c) Sliding mesh gear box
d) Synchromesh gear box
Answer – b

35. What is the advantage of dual mass fly wheel?
A) Avoid noise
B) Reduce noise of gear box and body
C) Transmit torque with less effort
D) Reduce chances of clutch slip
Answer – b

36. Which part of dual mass fly wheel separates the fly wheel mass system of the engine?
A) Gear box B) Vibration damper
C) Crank shaft D) Cam shaft
Answer – b

37. Which is the noiseless clutch?
A) Single plate clutch
B) Diaphragm spring type clutch
C) Multi plate clutch
D) Dog clutch
Answer – b

38. What is the advantage of dog clutch?
A) No chances of slip
B) More friction area
C) Minimum power required for work
D) Less maintenance and repairing
Answer – a

39. Which type of clutch gives more friction area and is also simple in design? a) Diaphragm spring clutch
b) Cone clutch
c) Dog clutch
d) Multi plate clutch
Answer – b

40. What is the advantage of single plate hydraulic clutch?
a) Minimum power required in clutch operation b) Friction area is effective
c) Reduced wear of clutch plate d) Easy repair and maintenance
Answer – a

41. In the figure of single plate clutch, which part does x represent?

a) Clutch plate hub b) Gear box drive shaft c) Fly wheel d) Pressure plate
Answer – c

42. The main advantage of hydraulic operated clutch is?
a) Pedal force is transmitted with the help of linkage
b) Pedal force is transmitted with the help of spring
c) Pedal force is transmitted with the help of liquid/fluid
d) Pedal force is transmitted with the help of coupling
Answer – c

43. What is the main advantage of mechanical actuation clutch?
a) Less maintenance and repair
b) Less pedal force is required
c) Simple operation
d) Easy to use
Answer – a

44. Which factor does not affect the power transfer by clutch?
a) Size of clutch plate
b) Coefficient of friction
c) Clutch plates used
d) Axial load on clutch
Answer – d

45. Which system of drive cabin is provided to make driving comfortable?
a) HVAC system b) Starting system c) Steering system d) Charging system
Ans. a

46. How does steering system increase tyre life?
a) Maintenance of correct angles between tyres
b) Providing lubrication as required
c) Applying grease to steering controls
d) Providing correct brake adjustment
Ans. a

47. What is the advantage of power steering?
a) Increasing engine power
b) Reducing engine consumption
c) Improving fuel efficiency
d) Turning and controlling the vehicle with less force
Ans. d

48. What is the range of pedal play allowed in heavy vehicles?
a) 6-10 mm
b) 2-4 mm
c) 15-18 mm
d) 16-20 mm
Ans. a

49. Which type of gear box can be used even by unskilled driver?
a) Synchromesh gear box b) Sliding mesh gear box
c) Constant mesh gear box d) Compound wheel mesh gear box
Answer – a

50. Which type of synchronous gear box will produce more torque than other 3 types?
a) Bulk type
b) Bulk ring type
c) Multi and double cone
d) Porch type
Answer – c

51. Which type of synchromesh gear box is used for heavy commercial vehicles?
a) Bulk type b) Bulk ring type c) Multi and double cone d) Porch type
Answer – c

52. Which type of gear does not produce axial thrust but stabilizes the axial thrust?
a) Bevel gear
b) Herringbone gear
c) Spur gear
d) Worm gear
Answer – b

53. Which type of gears produce clicking sound when in contact?
a) Spur gear
b) Bevel gear
c) Helical gear
d) Worm gear
Answer – a

54. Which parts are connected to the propeller shaft?
a) Clutch shaft and fly wheel
b) Gear box and final drive
c) Cam shaft and clutch shaft
d) Crankshaft and final drive
Answer – b

55. Which part provides flexible connection and allows smooth transfer of torque from gear box to rear
axle?
a) Universal joint
b) Fly wheel
c) Half shaft
d) Clutch shaft
Answer – a

56. What is the possible cause of gear slip?
a) Wrong selection of gear shaft lever b) Excessive end float of gear
c) Incorrect clutch engagement d) Worn out clutch plate
Answer – b

57. What causes gear lock?
a) Synchronizer wear b) Gear teeth wear
c) Synchronizer unit stuck d) Lack of proper lubrication
Answer – c

58. How can hard gear shifting be corrected?
a) Lubricate the unit
b) Check and repair
c) Adjust clutch pedal free play
d) Refit springs correctly
Answer – c

59. What is the result of faulty clutch?
a) Noise in gear shifting
b) Gear slip
c) Gear locking in one gear
d) Gear getting stuck during shifting
Answer – a

60. What causes hard gear shifting?
a) a) Bad bearing
b) Synchronizing unit bad
c) Stuck synchronizing unit
d) Worn flywheel ring
Answer – b

61. Which type of gearbox removes the defect of matching gears on shaft?
a) Sliding mesh gear box b) Synchromesh gear box
c) Constant mesh gear box d) Compound wheel mesh gear box
Answer – b

62. In the following figure, what is indicated by the mark x in camber?

a) Caster angle b) King pin inclination c) Camber angle d) Included angle
Answer – c

63. In the figure, what is the name of the mark x in electronic power steering?

a) Motor b) Assist map c) Compensator d) Observer
Answer
– a

64. What is the name of this part used in integral power steering?

a) Flow control valve b) Rotary valve c) Unloading valve d) Pressure relief valve
Answer – d

65. In the figure, which part of integral power steering is?

a) Flow control valve b) Unloading valve c) Rotary valve d) Pressure relief valve
Answer – a

66. Which type of leaf spring is shown in the following figure?

a) Semi elliptical spring
b) Quarter elliptical spring
c) Three elliptical spring
d) Transverse spring
Answer – a

67. In the following figure, what is the name of the part shown by x in neutral in integral power steering?

a) Lower cylinder
b) Upper cylinder
c) Valve sleeve
d) Input shaft
Answer – d

68. In the figure, which type of power steering is shown?

a) Integral power steering
b) Leakage power steering
c) Semi electronic power steering
d) Electrical power steering
Answer – a

69. In the figure, which type of leaf spring is shown?

a) Quarter elliptical spring
b) Transverse spring
c) Semi elliptical spring
d) Full elliptical spring
Answer – b

70. In the following figure, which type of leaf spring is shown?

a) Transverse spring b) Full elliptical spring c) Quarter elliptical spring d) Semi elliptical spring
Answer – c

71. In the figure, which type of suspension system is shown?

a) Independent suspension system b) Conventional suspension system
c) Air suspension system d) Rubber spring suspension system
Ans. – b

72. Which type of suspension spring is shown in the figure?

a) Mono leaf spring b) Fiber composite spring c) Multiple leaf spring d) Coil spring
Ans. – b

73. What is the name of the marked part in the figure?

a) Camber angle
b) Caster angle
c) Thrust angle
d) Included angle
Ans. – c

74. What is the prescribed value of combined angle in steering system?
a) 5-80
b) 9-100
c) 12-150
d) 15-180
Ans. – b

75. What is the name of the angle shown by x in the figure?

a) Combined angle
b) Camber angle
c) Caster angle
d) Thrust angle
Ans – a

76. If the length of pitman arm is twice the length of steering arm then what is the steering linkage ratio?
a) 2:1
b) 2:4
c) 1:2
d) 2:3
Ans. c

77. What is the average power steering gear ratio usually?
a) 40% less than manual steering
b) Equal to manual steering
c) 20% less than manual steering
d) 10% more than manual steering
Ans – c

78. Steering ratio usually ranges in what range?
a) 8:2 to 22:2
b) 11:2 to 22:2
c) 11:1 to 24:1
d) 10:1 to 18:1
Answer – c

79. What is the name of the angle shown by x in the figure?

a) Camber angle
b) Caster angle
c) King pin inclination
d) Included angle
Answer – c

80. What is the name of the part of the suspension system shown by x in the figure?

a) Chassis frame
b) Helper spring
c) Rubber buffer
d) Brackets
Answer – c

81. Which type of independent suspension system is in the figure?

a) Torsion bar suspension
b) Strot type system
c) Air type suspension
d) Coil spring suspension
Answer – d

82. What is the name of the part of the coil spring system shown by x in the figure?

a) Torsion bar
b) Stabilizer bar
c) Control arm
d) Coil spring
Answer – b

83. Which type of suspension is shown in the picture?

a) Coil spring suspension
b) Torsion bar suspension
c) Rubber spring suspension
d) Strut type suspension
Answer – d

84. Which type of suspension system is shown in the picture?

a) Strut type suspension b) Coil spring suspension
c) Torsion bar suspension d) Rubber spring suspension
Answer – c

85. Which type of shock absorber is shown in the picture?

a) Gas pressure shock absorber b) Electronically adjustable shock absorber
c) Hydraulic shock absorber d) Load adjustable shock absorber
Answer – b

86. Which type of shock absorber is shown in the picture?

a) Gas pressurized shock absorber b) Mechanical type shock absorber
c) Telescopic type shock absorber d) Piston type shock absorber
Answer – a

87. Which type of shock absorber is in the picture?

a) Vane type b) Piston type
c) Telescopic type d) Mechanical type
Answer – c

88. What is the maximum air pressure of the compressor in air suspension system?
a) 100 to 115 psi b) 180 to 210 psi
c) 120 to 125 psi d) 200 to 215 psi
Answer – c

89. What is the name of the part shown by x in the picture of suspension system?

a) Tracking bar
b) Upper control rod
c) Shock absorber
d) Axle mounting bracket
Answer – c

90. Which suspension is in the picture?

a) Air suspension rear axle
b) Coil spring rear suspension
c) Front air spring suspension
d) Rigid axle suspension system
Answer – b

91. What is aspect ratio in tyre design?
a) Percentage ratio of tyre height and rim width
b) Ratio between tyre diameter and height
c) Percentage ratio between tyre width and height
d) Ratio between rim width and tyre width
Answer – c

92. What is the part represented by x in the front air suspension system in the picture?

a) Air spring valve
b) Lower control arm
c) Piston
d) Spring connecting clip
Answer – c

93. In the figure, what is represented by x in the wheel rim?

a) Valve stem b) Wheel hub c) Pressure sensor d) Bidding edge
Answer – c

94. Tyre height How is it calculated?
a) Rim diameter – Outer diameter of tyre
b) Outer diameter of tyre – Rim diameter
c) Thread width + Width of tyre
d) Width of tyre + Bead circle diameter
Answer – b

95. What is the name of the distance between the two outermost parts of a tyre?
a) Shoulder width b) Bead circle diameter
c) Width of tyre d) Radius of thread
Answer – c

96. In the special tyre size 9” x 14 – 14PR, the number 14PR represents what?
a) Shoulder width
b) Bead circle diameter
c) Ply rating
d) Width of tyre
Answer – c

97. In the figure, what is the name of the part represented by x in a cast wheel?

a) Tyre
b) Rim
c) Tube
d) Hub
Answer – d

98. What is the name of the part shown by x in the flat type rim in the figure?

a) Center position
b) Plain split lock ring
c) Rim projection
d) Outer part of rim
Answer – b

99. Which type of wheel has two separate discs joined to each other?
a) Split wheel
b) Wire wheel
c) Disc wheel
d) Heavy wheel
Answer – c

100. Which type of wheel is in the figure?

a) Wire wheel
b) Disc wheel
c) Split wheel
d) Heavy vehicle wheel
Answer – b

101. In the following figure, which type of service method of wheel is there?

a) Checking camber angle b) Checking caster angle
c) Checking king pin inclination d) Checking included angle
Answer – a

102. Which benefit is not available in wheel alignment?
a) Reducing tyre wear
b) Reducing driver’s power
c) Getting the steering centered automatically after cornering
d) Getting torque transmission easily
Answer – d

103. Which part of electronic power steering converts it to manual steering in case of power steering
failure?
a) Solenoid valve
b) Phase compensator
c) Fail safe relay
d) Current controller
Answer – c

104. Which device of electronic power steering converts steering torque into input and its direction into
voltage?
a) Solenoid valve b) Phase compensator
c) Fail safe relay d) Current controller
Answer – c

104. Which device of electronic power steering converts steering torque into input and its direction into
voltage?
a) Rotation sensor
b) Torque sensor
c) Half effective sensor
d) Temperature sensor
Answer – b

105. What is the advantage of electronic power steering?
a) Compact in size
b) Energy is spent only on turning the steering
c) Occupies less space
d) Number of parts is less
Answer – b

106. Which type of steering system does not help unless the engine is running?
a) Integral power steering
b) Leakage power steering
c) Electronic power steering
d) Manual steering
Answer – c

107. Which part of integral power steering reduces the fluid pressure?
a) Torsion bar
b) Rotary valve
c) Unloading valve
d) Flow control valve
Answer – c

108. What is called the heart of integral power steering system?
a) Flow control valve b) Rotary control valve
c) Pressure relief valve d) Unloading valve
Answer – b

109. Which is not an advantage of power steering?
a) Less power required b) Quick response
c) Firm control during driving d) Positive braking system
Answer – d

110. Which type of suspension spring cannot transfer wheel control force?
a) Helical spring
b) Coil spring
c) Leaf spring
d) Compression spring
Answer – a

111. What is the advantage of coil spring?
a) Good load carrying capacity
b) High steering and stability
c) Requires less space
d) Provides greater pay load
Answer – c

112. Which type of suspension spring is made of fibre glass, laminated together and stiffened by polyester
resin?
a) coil spring
b) Multiple leaf spring
c) Mono leaf spring
d) Spring made of fibre
Answer – d

113. Which system is used between axle and chassis frame?
a) Braking system
b) Suspension system
c) Steering system
d) Cooling system
Answer – b

114. Which is not the function of suspension system?
a) Maintains body level b) Provides cushioning effect
c) It transmits braking torque to chassis d) Improves steering stability
Answer – d

115. Why low steering ratio is used in light weight cars?
a) To get less steering effect b) To get more steering effect
c) To get stable steering effect d) To get no steering effect
Answer – b

116. What angle is given for the action of steering to come back to center after a turn?
a) Caster angle b) King pin inclination
c) Camber angle d) Included angle
Answer – b

RRB ALP Mechanic Motor Vehicle
1. Scavenging is done to maintain
a) Oil pressure
b) Fuel consumption
c) Power output
d) Speed
Ans. c

2. Which of the following is the most accurate fuel injection system for SI engines?
a) Direct injection
b) Manifold injection
c) Throttle body injection
d) Port injection
Ans. d

3. Which method should be used for cleaning the spark plugs?
a) Cleaning with wet cloth
b) Washing with solvent
c) Rubbing with emery paper
d) Sand blasting
Ans. d

4. An Anti-lock braking system prevent the wheels from ____.
a) heat loss
b) power loss
c) speed loss
d) locking-up
Ans. d

5. An inductive proximity sensor is used to detect _____.
a) Wooden object
b) Metal object
c) sand object
d) Plastic object
Ans. b

6. Which of the following is a part of pressure feed cooling system?
a) Turbocharger b) Fuel feed pump c) Oil pump d) Water pump
Ans. d

7. The order in which the cylinders must be burned is called _____
a) power stroke b) firing order
c) firing line d) fire wall
Ans. b

RRB ALP CBT 2 Mechanic Motor Vehicle 2019
1. The chisel will dig into material when
a) Clearance angle is too low
b) Rake angle is more
c) Angle of inclination is more
d) Angle of inclination is too low
Ans. c

2. Which of the following is used to check the gap between contact breaker points?
a) Vernier gauge
b) Wire gauge
c) Micrometre gauge
d) Filler gauge
Ans. d

3. Between ring and pinion gear which works as heat expansion and lubrication?
a) Pits
b) Hole
c) Shims
d) Backlash
Ans. d

4. The colour of negative plates of lead acid battery is
a) Gray b) Brown c) Black d) White
Ans. a

5. Which of the following is the function of flywheel?
a) It serves as mounting and frictional surface for clutch assembly
b) It controls crankshaft endplay
c) It drives the camshaft
d) It supports timing gears
Ans. a

6. A 12 volt lead acid battery consists of
Ans. 6 cells in series

7. What is the function of sensor in MPFI system?
Ans. It senses information in the form of physical and chemical variables

8. Which of the following converts rotary motion to linear motion?
a) Rack and pinion b) Helical gear
c) Worm gear d) Herringbone gear
Ans. a

9. Halon extinguisher are filled with
Ans. Carbon Tetrachloride

10. In distributor less ignition system, distributor is replaced by
a) Insulated coils
b) Ignition switch
c) Brushes
d) Rotor
Ans. a

11. Which of the following is not a part of MPFI system?
a) Electronic fuel injector
b) Carburettor
c) Electrical fuel pump
d) Throttle position sensor
Ans. b

12. The opening and closing of valve related to piston movement called
Ans. Valve timing

13. Connecting rod are made of
a) Mild steel
b) Cast iron
c) Alluminium
d) Alloy steel
Ans. d

14. The taper shank drills should be mounted on machine spindle by means of
a) Punch
b) Drift
c) Hammer
d) Tang of file
Ans. b

15. A radiator core should be cleaned
a) From top to bottom of core b) From outside to the side of fan
c) From top hose to bottom hose d) By reverse flushing
Ans. d

16. Theoretically ignition in an engine should occur at
a) BDC at end of induction b) BDC at start of power stroke
c) TDC at end of compression stroke d) TDC at start of compression stroke
Ans. c

17. The part that must be fited in piston to ensure a good seal with cylinder wall is cleaned
a) Gaskets
b) Piston rings
c) Connecting rods
d) Piston pins
Ans. b

18. Which of the following conductor is used in bulbs?
a) Carbon
b) Copper
c) Nichrome
d) Tungsten
Ans. d

19. In automatic transmission letter R denotes
a) Forward
b) Reverse
c) Drive
d) Parking
Ans. b

20. Viscosity of a fluid offers resistance to
a) Flow
b) Light
c) Current
d) Sound
Ans. a

21. Pneumatic study deals with study of systems operated with
a) Water
b) Oil
c) Solid
d) Air
Ans. d

22. Which tool is used to remove and refit valves in cylinder head
a) Valve spring aligner b) Valve sprint remover
c) Valve bend remover d) Spring tension tester
Ans. b

23. Gear box and Differential enclosed in together in a box called
a) Gear box b) Transfer case
c) Transaxle d) Multi axle
Ans. c

Junior Instructor (Mechanic Motor Vehicle) 2023

1. The most common cause of accident in the workshop is :
(A) Defective parts (B) Defective equipment
(C) Failure to follow instructions (D) Faulty workmanship
Ans. c

2. What is the point angle of centre punch?
(A) 30° (B) 45°
(C) 60° (D) 90°
Ans. c

3. What does the ‘A’ stand for in ABC of first aid?
(A) Ambulance (B) Airway
(C) Alert (D) Artery
Ans. b

4. What is the pitch distance of a metric micrometer spindle thread?
(A) 0.5 mm (B) 0.05 mm
(C) 0.2 mm (D) 0.02 mm
Ans. a

5. The purpose of feeler gauge is :
(A) Checking angle of screw thread
(B) Checking clearances between mating surfaces
(C) Checking radius of a job
(D) Checking contour of a profile of a job
Ans. b

6. The hand tool used for making internal thread :
(A) Tap (B) Die
(C) Reamer (D) Scrapper
Ans. a

7. Which of the following is not a part of Drilling machine?
(A) Spindle (B) Column
(C) Mandrel (D) Head
Ans. c

8. Which component is used to prevent leakage between cylinder and cylinder head?
(A) Rivet (B) Stud
(C) Welding (D) Gasket
Ans. d

9. The thread angle of an ISO metric thread is :
(A) 47.5° (B) 55°
(C) 60° (D) 90°
Ans. c

10. For cutting soft materials, the hacksaw blade should have :
(A) Coarse pitch (B) Medium pitch
(C) Fine pitch (D) All the above mentioned
Ans. c

11. The electrolyte used in the lead-acid storage batteries is a solution of :
(A) Hydrochloric acid (B) Phosphoric acid
(C) Sulphuric acid (D) Boric acid
Ans. c

12. Which test is used to determine whether the battery plates are defective or not?
(A) Specific gravity test (B) Open volt test
(C) High discharge test (D) Cadmium test
Ans. c

13. Which of the following is provided to charge the battery constantly?
(A) Ignition coil (B) Generator
(C) Fuse box (D) ECU
Ans. b

14. A starter solenoid consists of two coils. These are called :
(A) Push-in and pull-out (B) Push-in and hold-out
(C) Pull-in and hold-in (D) Pull-in and push-out
Ans. c

15. In an alternator the magnetic field produced in the :
(A) Rotor (B) Stator
(C) Frame (D) Regulator
Ans. a

16. Which one of the following can be used to convert A.C to D.C?
(A) Rectifier (B) Induction coil
(C) Condenser (D) Brushes
Ans. a

17. In a starter motor, the field windings are wound around :
(A) Armature (B) Commutator
(C) Brush (D) Pole shoes
Ans. d

18. Any short-circuit in armature windings may be tested with a :
(A) Voltmeter (B) Growler
(C) Multimeter (D) None of the above
Ans. b

19. For aiming the head lights, the distance between the head light and screen should be :
(A) 1.6 m (B) 4.6 m
(C) 7.6 m (D) 10.6 m
Ans. c

20. The lamps are protected from overloading by :
(A) Fuse (B) Switch
(C) Capacitor (D) Harness
Ans. a

21. Distance travelled by the piston in moving from Top dead centre to Bottom dead centre is
called :
(A) Stroke (B) Bore
(C) Engine capacity (D) Engine torque
Ans. a

22. The efficiency of an Otto cycle is increased by increasing :
(A) Temperature ratio (B) Pressure ratio
(C) Compression ratio (D) None of the above
Ans. c

23. For the condition of maximum pressure and heat supplied :
(A) Otto cycle is more efficient than diesel cycle
(B) Diesel cycle is more efficient than Otto cycle
(C) Dual cycle is more efficient than Otto and diesel cycle
(D) Dual cycle is less efficient than Otto and diesel cycle
Ans. b

24. The firing order in case of six cylinder in-line engine is usually :
(A) 1-6-3-5-2-4 (B) 1-3-5-2-4-6
(C) 1-4-5-6-3-2 (D) 1-5-3-6-2-4
Ans. a

25. In a four stroke cycle diesel engine the inlet valve opens :
(A) 10° – 20° before TDC (B) 10° – 20° after TDC
(C) 39° – 50° before TDC (D) 39° – 50° after TDC
Ans. c

MVSI (Motor Vehicle Sub Inspector), 13.02.2022 (Morning shift)
1. Which of the following relation give equation of gear ratio in gear drive?
a) No. of teeth on Driven Gear/ No. of teeth on Driving Gear
b) No. of teeth on Driven Gear x No. of teeth on Driving Gear
c) No. of teeth on Driven Gear + No. of teeth on Driving Gear
d) No. of teeth on Driven Gear – No. of teeth on Driving gear
Ans. a

2. Which of the following is a type of power transmission drive, generally used to drive Superchargers?
a) Rope drive
b) Shaft drive
c) Belt drive
d) None of these
Ans. c

3. Which of the following is not a type of Friction clutch?
a) Single Plate Clutch
b) Cone clutch
c) Centrifugal clutch
d) Fluid Flywheel
Ans. d

4. Rolling resistance of wheel is directly proportional to which of the following parameters?
a) Load
b) Speed
c) Acceleration
d) None of these
Ans. a

5. Which of the following is unit of torque?
a) Newton x Meter
b) Kilo-Watt
c) Newton/Meter
d) Kilowatt/Meter
Ans. a

6. Which of the following law states that “At constant temperature, the volume of a given mass of gas is
inversely proportional to the absolute pressure.”?
a) Gay-Lussac Law
b) Boyle’s Law
c) Avogadro’s Law
d) Charles’ Law
Ans. b

7. Which of the following law states that “The pressure of a given mass of gas varies directly with the
absolute temperature of the gas, when the volume is kept constant.”?
a) Gay-Lussac Law
b) Boyle’s Law
c) Avogadro’s Law
d) Charles’ Law
Ans. a

8. Which of the following law of thermodynamics gives the principal concept of Thermometer?
a) Zeroth Law
b) First Law
c) Second law
d) Boyle’s law
Ans. a

9. In Otto Cycle, Heat addition is done at
a) Constant Pressure
b) Constant Volume
c) Constant Velocity
d) All of these
Ans. b

10. In Carnot cycle Heat engine, if the source temperature is increased, efficiency ______.
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remain same
d) None of these
Ans. a

11. Which of the following refrigeration cycle is used in vehicle air-conditioning?
a) Vapour Absorption Cycle
b) Vapour Compression Cycle
c) Brayton Cycle
d) Rankine Cycle
Ans. b

12. Otto cycle Engine is also known as
a) SI Engine
b) CI Engine
c) HCCI Engine
d) None of these
Ans. a

13. The process of driving exhaust gases, out of the cylinder and replacing it with fresh air in two stroke
engine is called
a) Ignition
b) Injection
c) Engine Cranking
d) Scavenging
Ans. d

14. One Power Stroke is equal to how many revolutions of Crankshaft in four stroke engine?
a) One
b) Two
c) One half
d) Varies as per speed
Ans. b

15. Which of the following terms is a condition when the inlet valves are made to open certain degrees
earlier than to top dead center which enables air/air fuel mixture to fill the cylinder to its capacity?
a) Valve Overlap
b) Valve lag
c) Valve Lead
d) Valve lapping
Ans. c

16. Which of the following option enters inside the combustion chamber in four stroke spark ignition
engine during suction stroke?
a) Air + Fuel
b) Air + Fuel + Lubrication Oil
c) Air + Lubrication Oil
Ans. a

17. Which of the following is used as Cross-sectional shape used in Connecting rods of IC Engine?
a) T shape
b) C shape
c) L shape
d) I shape
Ans. d

18. Which one of the following engine lubricating oils has maximum viscosity range?
a) SAE 15 W 40
b) SAE 10 W 30
c) SAE 10 W 40
d) SAE 5 W 20
Ans. a

MVSI (Motor Vehicle Sub Inspector), 13.02.2022 (Morning shift)
1. Which of the following relation give equation of gear ratio in gear drive?
a) No. of teeth on Driven Gear/ No. of teeth on Driving Gear
b) No. of teeth on Driven Gear x No. of teeth on Driving Gear
c) No. of teeth on Driven Gear + No. of teeth on Driving Gear
d) No. of teeth on Driven Gear – No. of teeth on Driving gear
Ans. a

2. Which of the following is a type of power transmission drive, generally used to drive Superchargers?
a) Rope drive
b) Shaft drive
c) Belt drive
d) None of these
Ans. c

3. Which of the following is not a type of Friction clutch?
a) Single Plate Clutch
b) Cone clutch
c) Centrifugal clutch
d) Fluid Flywheel
Ans. d

4. Rolling resistance of wheel is directly proportional to which of the following parameters?
a) Load
b) Speed
c) Acceleration
d) None of these
Ans. a

5. Which of the following is unit of torque?
a) Newton x Meter
b) Kilo-Watt
c) Newton/Meter
d) Kilowatt/Meter
Ans. a

6. Which of the following law states that “At constant temperature, the volume of a given mass of gas is
inversely proportional to the absolute pressure.”?
a) Gay-Lussac Law
b) Boyle’s Law
c) Avogadro’s Law
d) Charles’ Law
Ans. b

7. Which of the following law states that “The pressure of a given mass of gas varies directly with the
absolute temperature of the gas, when the volume is kept constant.”?
a) Gay-Lussac Law
b) Boyle’s Law
c) Avogadro’s Law
d) Charles’ Law
Ans. a

8. Which of the following law of thermodynamics gives the principal concept of Thermometer?
a) Zeroth Law
b) First Law
c) Second law
d) Boyle’s law
Ans. a

9. In Otto Cycle, Heat addition is done at
a) Constant Pressure
b) Constant Volume
c) Constant Velocity
d) All of these
Ans. b

10. In Carnot cycle Heat engine, if the source temperature is increased, efficiency ______.
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remain same
d) None of these
Ans. a

11. Which of the following refrigeration cycle is used in vehicle air-conditioning?
a) Vapour Absorption Cycle
b) Vapour Compression Cycle
c) Brayton Cycle
d) Rankine Cycle
Ans. b

12. Otto cycle Engine is also known as
a) SI Engine
b) CI Engine
c) HCCI Engine
d) None of these
Ans. a

13. The process of driving exhaust gases, out of the cylinder and replacing it with fresh air in two stroke
engine is called
a) Ignition
b) Injection
c) Engine Cranking
d) Scavenging
Ans. d

14. One Power Stroke is equal to how many revolutions of Crankshaft in four stroke engine?
a) One
b) Two
c) One half
d) Varies as per speed
Ans. b

15. Which of the following terms is a condition when the inlet valves are made to open certain degrees
earlier than to top dead center which enables air/air fuel mixture to fill the cylinder to its capacity?
a) Valve Overlap
b) Valve lag
c) Valve Lead
d) Valve lapping
Ans. c

16. Which of the following option enters inside the combustion chamber in four stroke spark ignition
engine during suction stroke?
a) Air + Fuel
b) Air + Fuel + Lubrication Oil
c) Air + Lubrication Oil
Ans. a

17. Which of the following is used as Cross-sectional shape used in Connecting rods of IC Engine?
a) T shape
b) C shape
c) L shape
d) I shape
Ans. d

18. Which one of the following engine lubricating oils has maximum viscosity range?
a) SAE 15 W 40
b) SAE 10 W 30
c) SAE 10 W 40
d) SAE 5 W 20
Ans. a

19. The size of Inlet Valve is ______ than Exhaust Valve.
a) Larger
b) Smaller
c) Equal
d) Varies as per type of Engine
Ans. a

20. Which of the following is correct full form of CRDI?
a) Common Rail Direct Ignition
b) Continuous Rail Direct Ignition
c) Common Rail Direct Injection
d) Common Rail Diffused Ignition
Ans. c

21. Which of the following component drives the distributor of battery ignition system?
a) Additional Motor
b) Oil Pump
c) Cam Shaft
d) Flywheel
Ans. c

22. The shape of a Four-cylinder engine distributor cam is
a) Hexagonal
b) Octagonal
c) Triangular
d) Square
Ans. d

23. Which of the following is correct full form of MPFI used in Engine?
a) Multi Point Fuel Injection
b) Maximum Point fuel injection
c) Motive plus fuel Injection
d) Multi point fuel ignition
Ans. a

24. If first stroke is suction stroke then fourth stroke of a 4 stroke IC Engine is
a) Combustion Stroke b) Compression Stroke
c) Power Stroke d) Exhaust Stroke
Ans. d

25. Which of the following component of engine is not located in Engine Cylinder Block?
a) Piston b) Connecting Rod
c) Gudgeon Pin d) Rocker Arm
Ans. d

26. Which of the following is a function of heater plug?
a) Warm up Fuel Pump
b) Warm Up Combustion Chamber
c) Warm up injector
d) Warm up valves
Ans. b

27. In Valve timing, the period during which both the valves remain open is called
a) Open time
b) All valve open
c) In-Out open
d) Valve Overlap
Ans. d

28. Which of the following component heats incoming fuel and air to encourage efficient fuel combustion
in a diesel engine during cold start condition?
a) Fuel rail
b) Fuel injectors
c) Glow Plugs
d) Spark Plugs
Ans. c

29. Which of the following is direct engine cooling method?
a) Water Cooling
b) Air Cooling
c) Oil Cooling
d) All of these
Ans. b

30. Which of the following is a method of coolant system for an IC Engine?
a) By force feed of water
b) By gravity of water
c) By density difference of hot and cold water
d) All of these
Ans. d

31. What does 2.0 “L” in Vehicle Specification indicates?
a) Fuel tank capacity
b) Engine Capacity
c) Oil sump capacity
d) Boot Space
Ans. b

DSSSB MOTOR VEHICLE INSPECTOR 2014

1. If air is there in the hydraulic system then the brake system is called
a) hard brake
b) spongy brake
c) weak brake
d) foam brake
Ans. b

2. Which gauge is used to measure the thickness of sheet?
a) Wire gauge
b) Sheet gauge
c) Feeler gauge
d) Pitch gauge
Ans. a

3. The stroke of an engine is the
a) Length of the connecting rod
b) Internal diameter of the cylinder
c) Volume of the cylinder
d) Distance between TDC and BDC
Ans. d

4. Generally the cross-section of connecting rods are made of
a) I – in cross section
b) L – in cross section
c) H – in cross section
d) C – in cross section
Ans. a

5. Which of the following symptom is caused as a result of brake disk run out?
a) Infectiveness of the brakes
b) Judder during braking
c) Localized wearing of the brake pads
d) Rapid wearing of the brake pads
Ans. b

6. If the engine coolant leaks into the engine oil, then engine oil
a) Appears milky
b) Becomes foamy
c) Turns black
d) Turns sticky
Ans. a

7. How the Oil paints becomes dry?
a) Heating
b) Oxidation
c) Cooling
d) Electro chromic
Ans. b

8. What type of bearing is used for main bearings and connecting rod big end bearings?
a) Ball bearing
b) Shell bearing
c) Needle roller bearing
d) Taper roller bearing
Ans. b

9. Which of the following materials is not used for battery separators?
a) Lead
b) Wood
c) Paper
d) Plastic
Ans. a

10. In automobile G.V.W. refers to
a) Gross Vehicle Width
b) Gross Vehicle weight
c) Gross vehicle wheel-base
d) Gross vehicle wheel-track
Ans. b

11. The crescent-shaped on the piston head top surface is called as
a) Piston oil hole
b) snap ring
c) valve recess
d) valve clearance
Ans. c

12. Which part of the automobile tyre is subjected to greatest flexing action?
a) Bead b) Side wall c) Shoulder d) Tread
Ans. b

13. The compression ratio for diesel engines usually lies in the range of
a) 6-10 b) 10-15
c) 15-25 d) 25-40
Ans. c

14. Tachometer in a vehicle measures
a) Speed
b) Distance
c) Engine RPM
d) Fuel consumption
Ans. c

15. The parking brakes employed in most of the vehicles are operated by
a) Mechanically
b) Hydraulically
c) Pneumatically
d) Vacuum
Ans. a

16. The aspect ratio (expressed in percentage) of the tyre is defined as the ratio of
a) Section width to section height
b) Section height to section width
c) Wheel diameter to section height
d) Wheel diameter to section width
Ans. b

17. The gradual loss of color is known as
a) Bloom
b) Fading
c) Flashing
d) Grinning
Ans. b

18. The ignition coil is used to
a) step up current
b) Step down current
c) Step up voltage
d) Step down voltage
Ans. c

19. Free pedal play in car clutches is about
a) 15 mm b) 25 mm c) 40 mm d) 60 mm
Ans. b

20. The information provided by the oxygen (O2) sensor to the feedback control system is about the
(A) air temperature (B) air flow speed
(C) air-fuel ratio (D) exhaust gas volume
Ans. c

21. The rating of C.l. engine fuel (Diesel) is given by
(A) Performance number
(B) Cetane number
(C) Methane number
(D) Octane number
Ans. b

22. The diagram which shows the correct crank positions corresponding to the opening and closing of the
valves, is known as
(A) indicator diagram
(B) axial force diagram
(C) valve timing diagram
(D) port timing diagram
Ans. c

23. The starting system includes
(A) a battery, a starter and an ignition switch
(B) a battery, a distributor and an ignition switch
(C) a battery, a starter and a distributor
(D) a distributor, a starter and an ignition switch
Ans. a

24. The rating of C.l. engine fuel (Diesel) is given by
(A) Performance number
(B) Cetane number
(C) Methane number
(D) Octane number
Ans. b

25. The vehicle ride will be comfortable if
(A) unsprung mass is kept minimum
(B) sprang mass is kept minimum
(C) vehicle mass is kept minimum
(D) all of these
Ans. a

26. Battery electrolyte is a mixture of waterand
(A) Lead peroxide (B) Sulfuric acid
(C) Lead sulfate (D) Sulfur crystals
Ans. b

27. The reconditioning process used to give cylinder bore surfaces a crosshatch pattern, is known as
(A) Honing (B) Porous plating (C) Boring (D) Shot peening
Ans. a

DSSSB CRAFT INSTRUCTOR MECHANIC MOTOR VEHICLE 2014

1. Which is the birth place of automobile?
a) France
b) Germany
c) Japan
d) China
Ans. b

2. Who is considered to be the father of the automobile?
a) Captain Nicholas cugnot
b) Rudolf diesel
c) Felix Wankle
d) Carl Benz
Ans. d

3. In 1876, Otto and Langen in Germany invented and designed an
a) External combustion engine
b) Internal combustion engine
c) Steam engine
d) Gas engine
Ans. b

4. The portion of the automobile without body is called
a) frame
b) integral frame
c) Chassis
d) Unitized body
Ans. c

5. The body structure is designed in such a way as to combine the function of the body and frame is called
a) Frameless Construction
b) Framed Construction
c) Conventional construction
d) Similar frame construction
Ans. a

6. In India, the first motor car appeared in 1938 with taxi cabs in
a) Calcutta
b) Delhi
c) Madras
d) Bombay
Ans. a

7. Hindustan Motors Ltd. Manufactures trucks and cars at
a) Bombay
b) Calcutta
c) Jaipur
d) Madras
Ans. b

8. Which gears used for providing main speed reduction between the engine and driving wheels?
a) Final drive gears
b) Hypoid gear
c) Synchromesh gear
d) Progressive gear
Ans. a

9. The type of suspension system in which there is no rigid axle
a) Conventional system
b) Independent system
c) Rigid system
d) Strut system
Ans. b

10. Radial engines mostly used in
a) Automobiles
b) Marine
c) Aircraft
d) Stationery
Ans. c

11. Rotary piston engine was invented by
a) Dr. Felix Wankel
b) Dr. Rudolf Diesel
c) Nicholas Cugnot
d) Carl Benz
Ans. a

12. The engine is preferred to be mounted at how many points?
a) One b) Two c) three d) four
Ans. c

13. The material of the piston pin is
a) Silicon steel b) Pressed steel
c) Case hardened steel d) Alloy steel
Ans. c

14. Generally the cross section of the connecting rod is
a) C-in section
b) H-in section
c) I-in section
d) L-in section
Ans. c

15. The necessity of sleeve/slip joint in the propeller shaft is to
a) Vary the angle
b) Vary the height
c) Vary the width
d) Vary the length
Ans. d

16. Fluid drive will be acting as an
a) Automatic gearbox
b) Automatic gear train
c) Automatic gear drive
d) Automatic clutch
Ans. d

17. The actual output available at the crankshaft is called
a) Brake horse power
b) Thermal horse power
c) Indicated horse power
d) Friction horse power
Ans. a

18. The device used to check the engine timing markings is
a) Stroboscopic light
b) Stethoscope
c) Engine scope
d) Oscilloscope
Ans. a

19. The device used in the vehicle to control the directional changes is
a) Clutch b) Gearbox c) Steering d) Differential
Ans. c

20. The engine in which there are three power cycles in each revolutions of the rotor
a) Rotary combustion engine b) Inline combustion engine
c) Reciprocating combustion engine d) Free piston combustion engine
Ans. a

21. A vehicle is subjected to rocking chair action or rotating action about a transverse axis through the
vehicle parallel to ground is called
a) Bouncing
b) Rolling
c) Pitching
d) Skidding
Ans. c

22. The angle between the centerline of the tyre and the vertical is called
a) Caster
b) Camber
c) King pin inclination
d) Combined angle
Ans. b

23. The unit which stores the energy during the power strokes and delivers it out during the others stroke
to keep the crankshaft moving at the uniform speed
a) Vibration damper
b) Flywheel
c) Torque
d) Convertor
Ans. b

24. The maximum amount of current that a battery can deliver based on the number of plates and on the
area of the plate surface in contact with the electrolyte is called
a) Battery capacity
b) Battery efficiency
c) Battery voltage
d) Battery rating
Ans. a

25. At low speed of the engine generator will not supply current to the battery but the current will flow in
reverse and the battery will gets discharged to avoid this a switch is used called as
a) Current regulator
b) Voltage regulator
c) Cut out relay
d) Solenoid relay
Ans. c

26. In automobile vehicles for starting the engine starter motors used is of
a) Shunt wound b) Series wound
c) Parallel wound d) Stunt wound
Ans. b

27. The specific gravity of lead acid battery electrolyte is measured by an instrument called
a) Cell tester
b) Multimeter
c) Hydrometer
d) Tachometer
Ans. c

28. Topping up of the battery is done by adding
a) Electrolyte
b) Sulphuric acid
c) Distilled water
d) Hydrochloric acid
Ans. c

29. The unit usually connected across the contact breaker is used to reduce arching and pitting of the
contact breaker points as well as intensity the spark
a) Diode
b) Rectifier
c) Condenser
d) Coil
Ans. c

30. The closed period of contact points/angle between the cam lobes is called
a) Dwell or cam angle
b) Ignition timing
c) Steering angle
d) Turning angle
Ans. a

31. In the alternator charging circuit how to change the alternating current to direct current
a) By using carbon brush
b) By using copper brush
c) By using rectifiers
d) By using slip rings
Ans. c

32. The mechanism which consist of a diaphragm which automatically advances and retards the ignition
timing according to the engine speed and operation condition.
a) Centrifugal advances mechanism
b) Vacuum advances mechanism
c) Manual advances mechanism
d) Servo advances mechanism
Ans. b

Chattisgarh Vyavsayik Priksha Mandal Vyapam Mechanic Motor Vehicle 2023
1. What is the full form of GPS in Vehicle safety system?
Ans. Global Positioning system

2. What is the contributory cause for having difficulty to start the engine in cold?
a) Thermo time switch faulty
b) Defective oil pressure
c) Faulty fuel filter
d) Damaged radiator
Ans. a

3. Which type of sensor located at the exhaust manifold?
A. Hall effect sensor
B. Oxygen sensor
C. Air vertex sensor
D. Mass air flow sensor
Ans. b

4. Which instrument indicate engine RPM in the engine control module?
A. Pyno meter
B. Tachometer
C. Galvano meter
D. Hydro meter
Ans. b

5. Which instrument is used to check the face out of the fly wheel?
A. Dial indicator
B. Bore dial gauge
C. Outside micrometer
D. Inside micrometer
Ans. a

6. Which part of a drill is fitted on the machine?
A. Point B. Flute
C. Shank D. Body
Ans. c

7. What is the function of drive end frame in the alternator?
A. Carriers driving pully
B. Connecting to spring loaded brush
C. Allow current flow in one direction
D. Support the pre lubricated sealed bearing
Ans. d

8. Which part of air conditioning system absorbs moisture in the system?
A. Expansion valve
B. Receiver
C. Condenser
D. Evaporator
Ans. b

9. Which part of engine can be measured by dial gauge?
A. Crank pin
B. Gudgen pin
C. Piston
D. Cylinder bore
Ans. d

10. What is brake horse power?
A. Power available at fly-wheel
B. Power available at the cylinder
C. Power available at the wheels
D. Power available at the gear box
Ans. a

11. How can you identify a two-stroke engine?
A. Valves
B. Ports
C. Cavities
D. Passages
Ans. b

12. Which measuring instrument is used to check the fly wheel face out?
A. Dial indicator
B. Compression gauge
C. Outside micrometer
D. Feeler gauge
Ans. a

13. Which device changes carbon monoxide into carbon dioxide in the exhaust gas?
A. Canister B. Muffler
C. Catalytic converter D. Exhaust gas regulator
Ans. c

14. What is the gas filled in the sealed beam head lights?
A. Oxygen gas B. Nitrogen gas
C. Argon gas D. Hydrogen gas
Ans. c

15. What will be the effect of over-inflating the tyres?
A. Tyre will wear out at centre
B. Tyre will wear out at edges
C. Tyre will crack at edges
D. Tyre will crack at centre
Ans. a

16. What part drives the oil pump?
A. Crank shaft
B. Cam shaft
C. Crank pulley
D. Timing gears
Ans. b

17. What is the type of hardening done on crank shaft?
A. Induction hardening
B. Case hardening
C. Surface hardening
D. Curve hardening
Ans. a

18. Which emission reacts with other compounds in the atmosphere to produce photo chemical smog?
A. CO
B. HC
C. PM
D. SOx
Ans. b

19. Which equipment is used for quick inspection under chassis of a car?
A. Stand
B. Screw jack
C. Trolley jack
D. Two post hoist
Ans. c

20. What is your immediate action on completion of first aid?
A. Call taxi B. Call your friend
C. Call fire service D. Call emergency service
Ans. d

21. The firing order for an inline fourcylinder I. C. engine is
A. 1-2-3-4 B. 1-3-4-2
C. 1-2-4-3 D. 1-3-2-4
Ans. d

MPSC RTO Assistant Motor Vehicle Inspector 2020, 2017, 2011,
1. A ______ is simply a butterfly valve located between the entrance to the carburettor and the venture throat.
a) Acceleration pump
b) choke
c) lever
d) none of the above
Ans. b

2. In a _____ engine, cycle consists of two isothermal and two constant volume processes.
a) Carnot
b) Sterling
c) Johnson
d) None of the above
Ans. a

3. A fuel injection system consisting of
- High pressure pump
- Fuel rail with a pressure sensor
- Electronically controlled injectors
- An engine management system
Is called as ______ system.
a) Common Rail Fuel injection (CRFI)
b) Pump Line Injector (PLI)
c) Hydraulic Electronic Unit Injector (HEUI)
d) None of the above
Ans. a

4. Modern practice is to use _____ excess air for fuel combustion in engines.
a) 5 to 10%
b) 15 to 20%
c) 20 to 25%
d) 25 to 50%
Ans. b

5. The span of gear box is the ______ between the highest and lowest reduction ratios.
a) Ratio
b) sum
c) multiplication
d) square root
Ans. a

6. The frequency of light per minute flashing in a direction indicator is about ______.
a) 8
b) 80
c) 800
d 8000
Ans. b

MPSC Assistant Motor Vehicle 2017 (Mains)
1. Which of the following is chip removal process ?
(I) Rolling (2) Extruding (3) Die casting (4) Broaching
Ans. 4

2. The functions of a fuel injection system in diesel engines are :
(1.) To filter the fuel and measure the correct quantity of fuel to be injected.
(2) To control the rate of fuel injection and time the fuel injection correctly.
(3) To atomise the fuel into fine particles for complete combustion and properly distribute the fuel in the
combustion chamber.
(4) All of these.
Ans. d

3. The spark occurs when the :
(1) contact breaker points close
(2) contact breaker points open
(3) ignition switch is on
(4) none of the above
Ans. 2

4. The thermal efficiency of an air standard diesel cycle having fixed compression ratio, with increase in cut-off will :
(1) increase (2) decrease
(3) independent (4) none of the above
Ans. 1

5. Octane number of Indian lead-free petrol is :
(1) less than octane number of leaded petrol
(2) equal to octane number of leaded petrol
(3) greater than octane number of leaded petrol
(4) not specified
Ans. 3

6. Reduction of formation of pollutants is achieved by :
(1) Reducing evaporative emissions
(2) Re-designing the engine
(3) Closed crankcase ventilation
(4) All of these
Ans. 4

7. The vibration damper on a crankshaft reduces the :
(1) Longitudinal vibrations (2) transverse vibrations
(3) torsional vibrations (4) all of these
Ans. 3

8. An indication of auto-ignition quality of a diesel fuel is given by :
(1) octane number (2) detonation
(3) preignition (4) cetane number
Ans. 4

MPSC Motor Vehicle Inspector 2023

1. The basic automobile structure consists of frame, axles, wheels and
a) Steering
b) Suspension
c) Brakes
d) Differential gear
Ans. b

2. What carries the driving wheels of a vehicle?
a) Crankshaft
b) Crank and slider
c) Propeller shaft
d) Axles
Ans. d

3. The hand brake usually operates on
a) Right wheels
b) Left wheels
c) Rear wheels
d) Front wheels
Ans. c

4. Side members of frame may undergo lateral bending due to
a) Weight of vehicle
b) Engine torque
c) Side wind
d) Sudden impact during collision
Ans. d

5. Which is not a part of automobile transmission system?
a) Clutch
b) Gearbox
c) Axles
d) Differential gear
Ans. c

6. The clutch is located between the engine and
a) Gearbox
b) Differential gear
c) Rear axle
d) Universal Joint
Ans. a

7. The pressure plate is held against the clutch plate by
a) Struts
b) Levers
c) Thrust bearings
d) Springs
Ans. d

8. The automobile gears are generally made of
a) Cast iron
b) Mild steel
c) Alloy steel
d) Cast steel
Ans. c

9. The function of differential gear in automobiles is to
a) Facilitate reverse operation of the vehicle
b) Reduce tyre-wear at high speeds
c) Distribute equal torque between wheels
d) Take care of difference in seeds of rear wheels
Ans. d

10. Suggest the type of spring widely used for suspension in light and heavy commercial vehicles
a) Torsion bar
b) Semi-elliptic left spring
c) Tempered leaf spring
d) Coil springs
Ans. b

11. The function of the shackle with a leaf spring is to
a) Allow the spring length to change
b) Allow pivoting of spring end
c) Provide good traction
d) Prevent squeaking sound
Ans. a

12. What is the main shaft of an engine that controls the movement of piston?
a) Axle b) Drive shaft c) Crankshaft d) Camshaft
Ans. c

13. The minimum number of rings in a piston are
a) 2 b) 3
c) 4 d) 6
Ans. a

Motor Vehicle Act (1988) Motor Vehicle Inspector 2023
1. When did the motor vehicle act, 1988, come into force?
a) 01 April 1989
b) 01 March 1988
c) 01 July 1989
d) 01 April 1988
Ans. c

2. Under which Chapter of the Act, the issue of the ‘driving license’ is mentioned?
a) Chapter IV
b) Chapter III
c) Chapter I
d) Chapter II
Ans. b

3. Under which section of the Act, the grant of driving license to any person is provided?
a) Section 12
b) Section 9
c) Section 8
d) Section 10
Ans. b

4. What is the time period for the applicant to re-appear in the test for ‘driving license’?
a) Five days
b) Ten days
c) Seven days
d) Fifteen days
Ans. c

5. According to Motor vehicle Act, 1988, the age limit in connecting with driving of motor vehicle
a) 18 years and above
b) Less than 18 years
c) 15 years and above
d) None of the above
Ans. a

6. An application for compensation arising out of accident of the nature specified in Section 165 may be
made
a) By the person who has sustained the injury
b) By the owner of the property
c) Where death has resulted from the accident, by all or any of the legal representative
d) All of the above
Ans. d

7. What is provided under Section 12 of the Act?
a) Registration certificate
b) Licensing and regulation of schools or establishments for imparting instruction in driving of motor
vehicles
c) Driver license in driving of motor vehicle
c) None of the above
Ans. b

8. A learner’s license issued under this Act is effective for a period of _____ from the date of issue of the
license.
a) Three months
b) Five months
c) Six months
d) Seven months
Ans. c

9. A driving license issued or renewed under this Act by Motor Vehicle (Amendment Act), 2019 shall, in the
case of a license to drive a transport vehicle is effective for a period of
a) Two years
b) Five years
c) Four years
d) Three years
Ans. b

10. A driving license issued or renewed under this Act shall, in the case of license to drive a transport
vehicle carrying goods of dangerous of hazardous nature is effective for a period of
a) Five years
b) Four years
c) Three years
d) Two years
Ans. d

11. Whenever, being the owner or person in charge of a motor vehicle, causes or permits, any other
person who does not satisfy the provision of section 3 or section 4 of the Act to drive the vehicle shall be
punishable with –
a) Imprisonment for a term which may extend to six months or with fine which may extend to one
thousand rupees, or with both
b) Imprisonment for a term which may extend to three months or with fine with may extend to five
thousand rupees, or with both
c) Imprisonment for a term which may extend to one month or with fine which may extend to five
thousand rupees, or with both
d) None of the above
Ans. a

Karela PSC Junior Instructor Mechanic Motor Vehicle Industrial Training Dept
2017
1. The function of anti-lock brake system (ABS) is that is
a) Reduce the stopping distance
b) Minimize the brake fade
c) Maintains directional control during braking by preventing the wheels from locking
Ans. c

Question 2:-The component used to overcome viscous drag in the multi plate wet clutch
A:-Solenoid
B:-Hydraulic pump
C:-Clutch brake
D:-Disc valve
Correct Answer

Question 3:-Arrangement of the chassis ‏ام‎ which provide maximum utilization of space
A:-Full-forward control chassis
B:-Semi-forward control chassis
C:-Conventional control chassis
D:-None of these
Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question 4:-In a rear axle drive vehicle, torque reaction and braking torque are transmitted from the axle casing to
the frame by means of
A:-Pan hard rod
B:-Leaf spring
C:-Torsion bar
D:-Stabilizer bar
Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question 5:-Hazard flashers are used to indicate
A:-A slow moving vehicle in high speed lane
B:-A disabled vehicle in high speed lane
C:-A vehicle stopped in moving traffic
D:-All of these
Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question 6:-Which type of brake chamber is provided with fail safe parking brake?
A:-Spring brake chamber B:-Single diaphragm brake chamber
C:-Double diaphragm brake chamber D:-Triple diaphragm brake chamber
Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question 7:-The propellant unit of air bag consists of
A:-Potassium chloride and silver nitrate B:-Potassium chioride and sodium azide
C:-Potassium nitrate and sedium azide D:-Potassium nitrate and sodium chloride
Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question 8:-Which of the following is controls fuel surge in fuel tank on vehicle movement?
A:-Ribs
B:-Baffles
C:-Belts
Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question 9:-Excess fuel pressure in a CRDI engine system is protected with a
a:-Rail pressure sensor
b:-Pressure limiter valve
c:-Flow limiter
Correct Answer:- Option-b

Question 10:-The function of an air cleaner
A:-Act as silencer
B:-Act as flame amrester
C:-Filtering intake air
D:-All of these
Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question 11:-What are the basic factors affect the gear selection?
A:-Vehicle load and engine speed
B:-Vehicle speed and engine load
C:-Vehicle load and road condition
D:-Engine speed and road condition
Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question 12:-The cavitations formed inside the torque converter centre is the result of
A:-Low oil pressure
B:-Less engine RPM
C:-Less torque conversion
D:-None of these
Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question 13:-Which of the following is not a reason for humming noise?
A:-Wom out differential bearings
B:-Backlash between crown and pinion
C:-Wom out gears
D:-Wom out axle shaft splines
Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question 14:-The material used to improve the resistance to wear of rubber threads in a tire is
A:-Nylon
B:-Rayon
C:-Carbon black
D:-Terylene
Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question 15:-Which part of a master cylinder serves to retain the residual pressure in the brake lines even when the
brakes are released?
A:-Check valve
B:-Piston
C:-Primary cup
Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question 15:-Lamda sensors are located at
A:-Exhaust manifold
B:-Inlet manifold
C:-Throttle body
D:-Timing cover
Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question 16:-Sedimentation type fuel filters are generally used as
A:-Baby filter
B:-Secondary filter
C:-Primary filter
D:-All of these
Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question 17:-Which one of the following is a cylinder head gasket material?
A:-Felcoprene
B:-Felcoid
C:-Cord
D:-Shimbestose
Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question 18:-The ability of engine bearings to accommodates small variation in shaft is its
A:-Embadability
B:-Conformability
C:-Adaptability
D:-Fatigue strength
Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question 19:-The device fitted on diesel engine to develop vacuum to assist the pneumatic governor of FIP
A:-Compressor
B:-Inter cooler
C:-Exhauster
D:-Super charger
Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question 20:-Which of the following is a solid lubricant?
A:-Graphite
B:-lead
C:-Tin
D:-Aluminium
Correct Answer:- Option-A

Kerala PSC Junior Instructor Mechanic Motor Vehicle Online Exam 2016

1. To continue running the engine must have
a) Braking, electrical, electronics and steering systems
b) Power train, Suspensions, steering and body
c) Fuel, ignition, lubricating and cooling system
d) Power train, ignition, suspension, cooling system
Ans. c

2. Which provide information to electronic control module?
a) Sensors
b) Output
c) Actuators
d) Control unit
Ans. a

3. Periodic maintenance or preventive maintenance helps to
a) Schedule brake down
b) Eliminate routine service
c) Driver to use self service
d) Prevent failure
Ans. d

4. Hand brakes are applied on
a) The rear wheels only
b) The front wheels only
c) All wheels
d) Transmission
Ans. a

5. What are the causes of accidents in the workshop?
a) Defective parts
b) Defective equipments
c) Faulty workmanship
d) Failure to follow instructions
Ans. d

6. Never running an engine in the closed room because the exhaust gas contains
a) Air
b) Blue smoke
c) Carbon monoxide
d) Water Vapor
Ans. c

7. The diameter of a piston in three inches, in metric system the diameter is
a) 76.2 cm b) 67.2 cm c) 67.2 mm d) 76.2 mm
Ans. d

8. In the radiator pressure cap contains
a) Only pressure valve
b) Only vacuum valve
c) Only blow-off valve
d) Both vacuum and pressure valves
Ans. d

9. The function of fly wheel is
a) Smoothen the power flow
b) Serve s the part of the clutch
c) For starting purpose
d) All of the above
Ans. d

10. Excessive end play of the crank shaft is prevented by using
a) Sleeve bearing
b) Thrust bearing
c) Shaft journal
d) Fly wheel
Ans. b

11. Which type of tool is used to tighten bolt and nut with specified torque?
a) Double end spanner
b) Socket wrench
c) Torque wrench
d) Ring spanner
Ans. c

12. Two type of fuel supply system used in SI engine are
a) Carbureted and diesel
b) Fuel injection and diesel
c) Port and throttle body
d) Fuel injection and carburattor
Ans. d

13. In the clutch disk, the torsional vibration is absorbed by the
a) Splines
b) Friction pad
c) Coil springs
d) Cushion springs
Ans. c

14. The distance difference between the vehicle bases from one side to the other is known as
a) Thrust radius
b) Wheel track
c) Scrub radius
d) Set back
Ans. d

Kerala PSC Junior Instructor Mechanic Motor Vehicle Exam 2015

1. Which one of the following is an indirect measuring tool?
a) Inside calliper
b) Vernier calliper
c) Bevel protractor
d) Inside micrometer
Ans. a

2. Which one of the following designation does not denote the grade of a file?
a) Bastard
b) First cut
c) Second cut
d) Smooth
Ans. b

3. In which nut having an internal groove cut, in which a fiber or nylon ring inserted?
a) thumb nut
b) Castle nut
c) Cape nut
d) Simmonds lock nut
Ans. d

4. Tap wrench is a tool used to make:
a) Key ways
b) Oil holes
c) External threads
d) Internal threads
Ans. d

5. The tool used to measure the thickness of sheet is called:
a) Screw pitch gauge
b) Ring gauge
c) Feeler gauge
d) Wire gauge
Ans. d

6. Wear on one side of tyre is due to:
a) Excessive camber
b) Excessive caster
c) Under inflation
d) Over inflation
Ans. a

7. Tie rod ends have the following threads:
a) Left hand b) Right hand
c) Either A or B d) Both A and B
Ans. d

8. Which one of the following is not considered for calculating the unsprung weight?
a) Steering knuckle
b) Brakes
c) Axles
d) Chassis frame
Ans. d

9. In an integral power steering system, fluid flow is controlled by:
a) Plunger
b) Check valve
c) Spool valve
d) Hydraulic pump
Ans. c

10. Which one of the following is not a part of master cylinder?
a) Piston
b) Push rod
c) Check valve
d) Piston rings
Ans. c

11. In air brakes, what is the position of valves in brake valve, when brake pedal is released?
a) Both inlet and outlet closed
b) Inlet closed and outer opened
c) Inlet opened and outlet closed
d) Both inlet and outlet remain opened
Ans. b

12. Hydraulic brakes works on the principle of:
a) Pascal’s law
b) Boyle’s law
c) Charl’s law
d) Newton’s law
Ans. a

13. The rocking chair action of vehicle during running is known as:
a) Rolling
b) Pitching
c) Bouncing
d) Wobbling
Ans. b

14. What type of clutch is used in two wheelers?
a) Multi plate clutch
b) Cone clutch
c) Single plate clutch
d) Diaphragm clutch
Ans. a

15. The main function of a universal joint is to:
a) Transfer the entire power in a straight line only
b) Accommodate change in length of drive shaft
c) Allow variation of angle between main shaft and drive shaft
d) All of the above
Ans. c

16. Transfer case is used for:
a) Rear wheel and vehicles
b) Front wheel drive vehicles
c) Four wheel drive vehicles
d) Two wheel drive vehicles
Ans. c

17. The driven member of torque converter is known as:
a) Turbine
b) Stator
c) Impeller
d) Flywheel
Ans. a

18. Double de-clutching is used on:
a) Sliding mesh gear box
b) Synchromesh gear box
c) Constant mesh gear box
d) Epicyclic gear box
Ans. a

19. In a differential action which gear does not resolve in a straight drive?
a) Sun gear
b) Planetary gear
c) Crown gear
d) Pinion
Ans. b

20. The function of gear box is to:
a) Increase speed
b) Increase toque
c) Provide neutral
d) All of the above
Ans. d

21. The head light of a vehicle is connected with the battery in:
a) Parallel
b) Series
c) Compound
d) Either A or B
Ans. a

Maharashtra AMVI (Assistant Motor Vehicle Inspector) Ports and Transport
Department Class-II [RTO Exam 2021]

1. Under uniaxial loading, the maximum shear stress is _____ times the uniaxial stress
a) Three
b) Two
c) one & half
d) half
Ans. d

2. The torque required by the machine is more than the torque supplied by the motor, the flywheel is
a) retarded
b) accelerated
c) rotating with constant speed
d) none of the options
Ans. a

3. In gas welding, carburizing flame is obtained when
a) acetylene is in excess
b) oxygen is in excess
c) methane is in excess
d) all of the above
Ans. a

4. In forehand welding _______.
a) the torch points in the direction opposite to that it which welding is being done
b) welding is done by right hand
c) the torch points in the same direction in which welding is being done
d) none of the above
Ans. c

5. Which of the following is indirect measuring instrument?
a) Vernier calliper
b) Micrometer
c) Protractors for measuring angles
d) none of the above
Ans. d

6. The permissible deviation of a dimension from the desired size is known as
a) Precision b) tolerance c) fit d) none of the above
Ans. b

7. Cutting tool life is affected by _____
a) depth of cut b) cutting speed
c) feed d) all of the above
Ans. d

8. Which of the following material can be a choice for flat belts used in belt drives?
a) Lather
b) Fabric
c) Rubber
d) All of the above
Ans. d

9. Which of the following operation is carried out to make the drilled hole dimensionally more accurate?
a) Reaming
b) Tapping
c) Centering
d) Countersinking
Ans. a

10. To adjust for the change in length of the propeller shaft _____ joint is provided
a) universal
b) slip
c) cotter
d) all of the above
Ans. b

11. As per the uniform wear theory used to obtain torque transmitting capacity of friction clutch, pressure is _____.
a) coefficient of friction
b) axial pressure/load
c) mean effective radius of contact surfaces
d) all of the above
Ans. d

12. For the friction cone clutches torque transmission capacity is ______ to semi cone angle
a) not related
b) inversely proportional
c) inversely proportional
d) none of these
Ans. c

13. While braking a vehicle if unity coefficient of friction is achieved between the road and tyre then ______.
a) Brakes are said to be efficient less than 100%
b) Brakes are said to be efficient more than 100%
c) Brakes are said to be 100% efficient
d) None of these
Ans. c

14. For forward moving vehicles with internal expanding drum brakes when the brakes are applied, the net force
exerted on the leading shoe becomes ______ the net force exerted on the trailing shoes.
a) Less than b) More than
c) Equal to d) none of these
Ans. b

ASSISTANT MOTOR VEHICLE INSPECTOR 10-09-2009

1. Which is not the common component between a petrol and diesel engine?
Ans: Ignition Oil

2. Highest useful compression ratio is the compression ratio at which the engine
Ans: Can operate without detonation

3. The purpose of a condenser in the ignition system of petrol engine is to :
Ans: Avoid arcing across the contact breaker points

4. Higher octane rating of a SI engine fuel indicates that the fuel has:
Ans: Longer ignition delay

5. Knocking tendency in a SI engine reduces with increasing:
Ans: Engine speed

6. Reference fuels used for cetane rating of CI engines fuels would include
Ans: Cetane and alpha-methyl naphthalene

7. Octane number of LPG fuel is :
Ans: Higher than iso-octane

8. Accumulation of carbon deposit on combustion chamber of an IC engine leads to increase in :
Ans: Compression ratio

9. In a Diesel cycle, heat rejection takes place at :
Ans: Constant volume

10. A Hook’s joint in a automobile transmission system is preferred when the driving and driven shafts are:
Ans: Non-parallel and intersecting

11. Reboring of an engine cylinder to the next oversize would slightly
Ans: Increase the stroke volume

12. The standard firing order of a six cylinder in line left hand crank shaft is :
Ans: 1-4-2-6-3-5

13. Cylinder block construction by mono-block is preferred to individual cylinder construction because of?
(a)Compact engine size
(b)Easy manufacturing operations
(c)Better water sealed joints
(d)All of the above
Ans: (d)

14. A loose fit between a dry cylinder liner and cylinder block would cause:
Ans: High operating temperatures

15. The part of a piston intended to strengthen the position head so as to withstand the force of explosion is :
Ans: Piston web

16. In case of offset pistons, the piston pin hole axis is made offset from the cylinder centerline towards the :
Ans: Major or minor thrust side

17. All of the following are the merits of a side valve(L.head) operating mechanism, except-
(a)High volumetric efficiency
(b)Low engine Height
(c) Low production cost
(d)Silent operation
Ans: High volumetric efficiency

18. Bent of a valve stem can be straightened by :
(a)Valve stem straighter
(b)Valve stem grinder
(c) Dial gauge
(d)None of the above
Ans: (d)

19. What could be the probable reason of necking of valve stem?
Ans: Leakage of gases at valve seat.

20. Engine lubricating oil pump is usually driven by a?
Ans: Camshaft gear

21. The purpose of a radiator pressure cap is to maintain the working pressure of a water cooling system.
Ans: Higher than the atmospheric pressure

22. Which is not an advantage of multi cylinder air cooled engines when compared to multi cylinder water cooled
engines?
Ans: Maintains uniform cooling all around the cylinders

23. The part of an overhead valve mechanism arranged between the valve tappet and rocker arm is :
Ans: Push rod

24. Specific gravity of a lubricating oil can be determined by a?
Ans: Hydro meter

25. A manual method commonly used for measuring the engine lubricating oil level is :
Ans: An oil dipstick

26. Engine lubricating oil pumps are usually positive displacement types because they are suitable for?
Ans: High pressure ratios.

27. In a positive crank case ventilation system , the blow by gases drawn from the crankcase is fed to the :
Ans: Inlet manifold

GPSC Inspector of Motor Vehicle Class – II [ Automobile] 2016
1. Which of the following is a dry park test?
a) When the vehicle is on a frame-type lift with the wheels hanging free, rotate the steering wheel and watch for
steering component play
b) When pulling and pushing on the wheels with the vehicle supported by a frame type lift
c) With the vehicle on the ground, rotate the steering wheel while watching for steering component play
d) When pulling and pushing on the wheels with the vehicle supported by a frame type hoist while he engine is
running
Ans. c

2. A vehicle is sagging at the rear. Which of the following procedures would properly correct this condition?
a) Replace the shock absorbers with new gas charged unit
b) Replace the worn rear springs with new rear springs
c) Place spacers under the spring mount to lift the vehicle to the proper height
d) Install shock extensions to lift the vehicle to the correct height
Ans. b

3. Tandem drive vehicles has
a) No drive axle
b) Two drive axles at front
c) One drive axle at rear
d) Two drive axles at rear
Ans. d

4. Which of the following is the most correct method for mounting a tire on rim?
a) Align the mark on the tire to the valve stem hole, (match mounting)
b) Align the mark on the tire 180
0
across the rim from the valve stem hole
c) Use silicon spray lubricant or silicon based grease to mount the tire on the rim
d) Use wheel-bearing grease as a lubricant for mounting the tire on the rim
Ans. a

5. What is the maximum radial run-out allowed for a tire?
a) 0.025 mm (0.001 in.)
b) 0.8 mm (0.030 in.)
c) 1.5 mm (0.060 in.)
d) 32. Mm (0.125 in.)
Ans. b

6. What type of sound will a defective wheel bearing make?
a) A growl b) A whine c) A whistle d) A clunking sound
Ans. a

7. A vehicle owned complaint that a severe vibration is felt throughout the entire vehicle only during rapid
acceleration from a stop to about 32 km/h (20 mph). Which of the following is the most likely cause?
a) Unequal drive shaft u-joint working angles b) A bent drive shaft
c) Defective universal joint d) A bent rim or a defective tire
Ans. a

8. The capacity of a battery is determined by the number of plates per cell and
a) Number of cells
b) Shape of plates
c) Size of plates
d) Number of separators
Ans. c

9. In a DC generator magnetic field is produced in the
a) Armature
b) Commutator
c) Carbon brushes
d) Stator
Ans. d

10. The condition that causes vapour locking in a brake system is
a) an excessively high engine speed on a downhill road
b) overcooling of the brakes during high speed driving
c) overheating of the fluid due to frequent brake application
d) keeping the vehicle without use for an extended period
Ans. c

11. A manual 5-speed transmission is noisy in all gears except fourth. Which of the following could be the cause?
a) The input shaft bearings are defective
b) The counter shaft bearings are defective
c) The output shaft bearings are defective
d) The synchronizer sleeves are defective
Ans. b

12. What is the typical type of fluid used in hydraulic clutch system?
a) Engine oil
b) Automatic transmission fluid
c) DOT 3 brake fluid
d) DOT 5 brake fluid
Ans. c

13. A five speed manual transmission is very difficult to shift into 3
rd
and 4
th
gear only. Which of the following could
be the cause?
a) Worm synchronizer-blocking ring b) The clutch is not fully releasing
c) Cracked or loose shift forks d) The pilot bushing is seized
Ans. c

14. A defective U-joint can cause a clicking sound. When is the sound most noticeable?
a) When the vehicle is accelerating from a stop
b) When the vehicle is at rest and idling
c) When the vehicle is cruising at 50 kph (30 mph)
d) When the vehicle is cruising at 90 kph (55 mph)
Ans. a

15. The smallest gear inside the differential casing are
a) Pinion gears
b) Sun gears
c) Side gears
d) Ring gears
Ans. a

16. Brake lining consists mainly of
a) Asbestos
b) Copper
c) Cast iron
d) Aluminium
Ans. a

17. During braking the push rod directly operates
a) Primary piston
b) Secondary piston
c) Residual pressure valve
d) Compensating port
Ans. a

18. ‘Heel’ and ‘toe wear’ in tyres is caused y
a) Under inflation
b) Excessive acceleration and braking
c) Over inflation
d) Excessive camber
Ans. b

19. Axle which form compact unit with gearbox, clutch and engine are called
a) Tandem axle
b) Power packed axle
c) Compact axle
d) None of the above
Ans. b

20. A vehicle equipped with a manual 5-speed transmission is difficult to shift into first gear and reverse. Which of
the following is the most likely cause?
a) The input shaft bearing is worn
b) The output shaft bearing is worn
c) The pilot bearing is partially seized to the input shaft
d) The clutch linings are worn
Ans. c

21. A grinding noise is heard and felt when the driver’s foot lightly depressed the clutch pedal. Which of the
following could be the most likely cause?
a) Clutch linkage is not correctly adjusted b) The pilot bearing is seizing
c) The input shaft bearing is defective d) The clutch release bearing is defective
Ans. d

KPSC Motor Mechanic, Tradesman (Automobile Mechanic) 2023
1. Which statement is wrong ?
i. Helmet is a head protection equipment.
ii. Apron is a hand protection equipment.
iii. Face shield is help to protect face from UV rays.
iv. Ear plug to protect from high noise level.
A) i only B) ii only
C) both i and ii d) both i and iv
Ans. b

2. maintenance carried out after machine stops due to some fault is called
A) Regular maintenance B) Preventive maintenance
C) Periodic maintenance d) Breakdown maintenance
Ans. d

3. Which statement is correct ?
i. Starving is the process of removing fuel from a re.
ii. Smothering is the process of isolate the re from Oxygen.
iii. Cooling is the process of reduce temperature in a re.
A) all of these i, ii and iii
B) both i and ii
C) i only d) iii only
Ans. a

4. Which type locking device is used in Fully oating type Piston and Connecting rod
assembly ?
A) External Circlip B) Woodruff key
C) Internal Circlip d) Split pin
Ans. a

5. Which statement is correct ?
i. morse taper is related to taper shank drill bit.
ii. The point angle of a standard drill bit is 189°.
iii. Reamer is a multi point cutting tool.
iv. Screwdriver shank is made of mild steel.
A) i only B) both i and iii
C) both i and iv d) both ii and iii
Ans. b

6. Which type Chisel is used to break metal after chain drilling ?
A) Web chisel B) Cross cut chisel
C) Flat chisel d) Half round chisel
Ans. a

7. Which statement is wrong ?
i. In a vernier caliper main scale graduations are marked on beam.
ii. The accuracy of outside micrometer is 0.01 mm.
iii. depth bar is the part of inside micrometer.
iv. Jenny caliper is a marking tool.
A) both i and ii B) both i and iii
C) iv only d) iii only
Ans. d

8. Which tool is used to make internal thread ?
A) Tap and wrench B) die and die stock
C) Reamer d) lapping plate
Ans. a

9. Which statement is wrong ?
i. 2 stroke engine makes power every 360° of rotation.
ii. 4 stroke engine makes power every 240° of rotation.
iii. Glow plug is related to mPFI engine.
iv. 4 cylinder diesel engine has 12 V electrical system.
A) i only B) both ii and iii
C) both i and iv d) iii only
Ans. d

10. Which type valve is used in a 4 stroke diesel engine ?
A) Sleeve valve B) Reed valve
C) Poppet valve d) Rotary valve
Ans. c

11. The distance between TdC and BdC is called
A) Bore B) Swept volume C) Stroke d) Crank radius
Ans. c

12. Which statement is correct ?
i. The oil pressure gauge indicates the actual oil pressure developed in the oil gallery.
ii. The oil pressure gauge indicates the actual oil pressure developed in the oil Filter.
iii. The oil pressure gauge indicates the actual oil pressure developed in the oil sump.
iv. The oil pressure gauge indicates the actual oil pressure developed in the oil cooler.
A) i only B) ii only C) both i and iv d) both ii and iii
Ans. a

13. Which is related to a 4 stroke diesel engine ?
A) Intake and Exhaust port B) Transfer port
C) Reed valve d) Overhead camshaft
Ans. d

14. Crush and spread is related to
A) Roller bearing B) Bush bearing
C) Shell bearing d) Needle bearing
Ans. c

15. The mass of air required to burn a unit mass of fuel with no excess of oxygen or fuel
left over is known as
A) Specic heat B) Stoichiometric ratio
C) Volumetric efciency D) Thermal efciency
Ans. b

16. Catalytic convertor is the part of
A) Evaporative emission B) Turo charging
C) Fuel tank emission d) Exhaust emission
Ans. d

17. The unit of engine torque is mentioned in
A) cm3 B) Nm C) m3 d) KW
Ans. b

18. Which statement is correct ?
i. Flywheel is mounted on engine Crankshaft.
ii. Connecting rod big end bearings are shell bearings.
iii. Piston rings are made of Aluminium alloy.
iv. The ratio of Crankshaft and Camshaft is 1 : 2.
A) both i and ii B) both ii and iii
C) i only d) all of these i, ii, iii and iv
Ans. a

19. The piston has a extra groove between piston head and top ring groove is known as
A) Solid skirt piston B) Slipper piston
C) Cam ground piston d) Heat dam piston
Ans. d

20. Which one is not belongs to 5S concept ?
A) Sort B) Set in order
C) Strength d) Sustain
Ans. c

21. The oat unit is the part of
A) Temperature gauge B) Oil pressure gauge
C) Tachometer d) Fuel gauge
Ans. d

22. Which statement is correct ?
i. Oil pan is made of pressed steel.
ii. Oil pump is driven by engine camshaft.
iii. Piston made of Aluminium alloy.
iv. Flywheel works as a part of clutch.
A) i only B) all of these i, ii, iii and iv
C) both iii and iv d) both i and ii
Ans. b

23. The ring order of a 6 cylinder diesel engine is
i. 1 – 5 – 3 – 6 – 2 – 4
ii. 1 – 4 – 2 – 6 – 3 – 5
iii. 1 – 6 – 5 – 3 – 2 – 4
iv. 1 – 3 – 4 – 2 – 6 – 5
A) i only B) both ii and iii
C) both ii and iv d) both i and ii
Ans. a

24. The qualities of a bearings are
i. Fatigue strength
ii. Embedability
iii. Conformability
iv. Thermal conductivity
A) both ii and iii B) both i and iv
C) all of these i, ii, iii and iv d) both i and ii
Ans. c

25. lambda sensor produce greater voltage if
A) more oxygen in exhaust B) more CO in exhaust
C) less oxygen in exhaust d) None of the above
Ans. b

26. Inlet valves are made to open certain degree earlier than TdC is called
A) lag B) lead
C) Overlap d) Timing
Ans. b

27. Which statement is wrong ?
i. The Gudgeon pin is supported on piston pin boss.
ii. In a piston minimum number of compression rings are 2.
iii. The portion below the Gudgeon pin is called land.
iv. Compression rings are made of stainless steel.
A) i only B) ii only C) Both ii and iv d) Both iii and iv
Ans. c

KPSC Assistant Motor Vehicle Inspector 2023
1. Morse test in Multi-cylinder engines is used to determine
(A) Volumetric efficiency (B) Brake thermal efficiency
(C) Indicated power (D) Brake power
Ans. c

2. The piston pin bearings in heavy duty diesel engines are
(A) Needle roller bearing (B) Tapered roller bearing
(C) Collar bearing (D) Cylindrical roller bearing
Ans. a

3. The diameter of the hub of the fly wheel is usually taken as
(A) Equal to the diameter of the shaft
(B) Twice the diameter of the shaft
(C) Three times the diameter of the shaft
(D) Four times the diameter of the shaft
Ans. b

4. The two-stroke cycle engine
(A) One suction valve and one exhaust valve operated by two cams
(B) Only ports covered and uncovered by piston to effect charging and exhausting
(C) One suction valve and one exhaust valve operated by one cam
(D) None of the above
Ans. b

5. In SI. engine, to obtain required firing order
(A) Battery is installed (B) Ignition Coil is installed
(C) Distributor is installed (D) Carburettor is installed
Ans. c

6. In 4-stroke cycle engine power is produced in
(A) Every revolution of the crankshaft
(B) Each stroke
(C) Every alternate revolution of the crankshaft
(D) None of the above
Ans. c

7. The venturi in the carburettor causes the
(A) Increase of air velocity (B) Increase of manifold vacuum
(C) Decrease of air velocity (D) Decrease of fuel flow
Ans. a

8. The turbocharger uses ______ energy
(A) Energy of exhaust gases
(B) Engine energy
(C) Energy from a radiator
(D) Energy from a flywheel
Ans. a

9. Thermostat valve in the cooling system controls
(A) The flow of water (B) The temperature of water
(C) Both (A) & (B) (D) None of the above
Ans. c

10. In the following system, lubricating oil is carried in separate tanks from where it is fed to the engine.
(A) Wet sump system (B) Mist lubrication system
(C) Splash system (D) Dry sump system
Ans. d

11. Which technology changes the timing of intake/exhaust valves when the engine is running?
(A) DOHC (B) CRDI
(C) VVT (D) TDI
Ans. c

12. Weight of the vehicle produces in the side members of the frame
(A) Vertical Bending (B) Horizontal Bending
(C) Torsion (D) All of these
Ans. a

13. The following type of spring is most commonly used for suspension in heavy vehicle
(A) Coil Spring (B) Quarter elliptic leaf spring
(C) Semi-elliptic leaf spring (D) Torsion spring
Ans. c

14. In circulating ball type steering gear, the balls travel between the ball nut and _____
(A) Worm Wheel (B) Worm Shaft
(C) Gear Rack (D) Steering wheel shaft
Ans. b

15. _______ is the tilting in or out of the front wheels from the vertical when viewed from the front of the vehicle.
(A) Caster (B) Toe-in (C) King-pin inclination (D) Camber
Ans. d

16. During braking the push rod directly operates
(A) Residual pressure valve (B) Secondary piston (C) Primary piston (D) Compensating port
Ans. c

17. If a tyre is designated as 175/65 R14 82 S, then the aspect ratio for the tyre is
(A) 82 (B) 175 (C) 65 (D) 14
Ans. c

18. The main function of a master cylinder is to
(A) Ensure that all the wheel brakes are supplied with the same amount of fluid pressure
(B) Convert brake pedal force into hydraulic pressure
(C) Adjust the extent of brake pedal free play
(D) Boost the force applied to brake pedal
Ans. b

KPSC Assistant Motor Vehicle Inspector 2015

1. The I.P (Indicate power) of an engine is always ______ the brake power.
a) less than
b) equal to
c) greater than
d) none of the above
Ans. c

2. The brake power of an internal combustion engine can be found out with the help of:
a) planimeter
b) brake dynamometer
c) calorimeter
d) none of the above
Ans. b

3. C.R.D.I is related to:
a) Ignition system
b) Fuel system
c) Lighting system
d) Suspension system
Ans. b

4. E.G.R is employed to reduce:
a) Noise
b) Harshness
c) Emission
d) Vibration
Ans. c

5. Forward efficiency is related to:
a) Braking
b) Steering
c) lighting
d) Engine performance
Ans. d

6. HUD is a term linked with _______ of the modern vehicle.
a) Transmission
b) Aerodynamics
c) Handling
d) Gauges
Ans. d

7. Anti dazzle devices are used in ______ system.
a) Starting b) indicator
c) Charging d) Head lamp
Ans. d

Karnataka RTO Exam Question Paper MCQ

1. In 4 stroke petrol engine the spark comes during the _________
(1) Beginning of the suction stroke
(2) End of the compression stroke
(3) At the power stroke
(4) None of these
Ans. b

2. Compression ratio in the diesel engine is __________
(1) 7:1 to 12:1
(2) 16:1 to 20:1
(3) 22:1 to 24:1
(4) None of the above
Ans. b

3. The upper most ring on a piston is usually plated with _________
(1) Steel
(2) Cast iron
(3) Aluminium
(4) Chromium
Ans. d

4. An indication of ignition quality of diesel fuel is given by _________
(1) Detonation
(2) Octane number
(3) Pre ignition
(4) Cetane number
Ans. d

5. The type of wheel which cannot be used with tubeless tyre is __________
(1) Disc wheel
(2) Light alloy wheel
(3) Wire wheel
(4) Composite wheel
Ans. c

6. In a torque converter maximum torque multiplication occurs at __________
(1) Stop
(2) Medium speed
(3) Low Speed
(4) High Speed
Ans. a

7. In ventilation and air conditioning system a pressure difference is created by
(1) Thermostat (2) Flaps
(3) Plenum (4) None of the above
Ans. c

8. Maximum allowable hydrocarbons in the car emission are approximately
(1) 10ppm
(2) 1000ppm
(3) 100ppm
(4) 5000ppm
Ans. c

9. With reference to Mechatronics which statement is true ___________
(1) Mechatronics is the synergistic integration of mechanical, electrical and electronics engineering with intelligent
computer control.
(2) Mechatronics is the confluence of traditional design methods with sensors and instrumentation technology
embedded real time micro processor.
(3) Mechatronics is the extension and completion of mechanical system with sensors and microcomputer.
(4) All of the above.
Ans. d

10. Identify the gaseous fuel __________
(1) Methane from coal mines
(2) Gases derived from waste and biomass
(3) Liquefied petroleum gas
(4) All the above
Ans. d

11. Alternative power train includes __________
(1) IC engines
(2) Hydrogen fuel cells
(3) Compressed air
(4) All the above
Ans. d

12. This safety standard is not included in Indian transport safety standard
(1) Safety belt
(2) Safety requirements for side door of passenger
(3) Booster seats
(4) (2) and (3) but not (1)
Ans. c

13. The reference fuels for knock rating of spark ignition engines would include
(1) iso-octane and alpha-methyl naphthalene
(2) normal octane and aniline
(3) iso-octane and normal hexane
(4) normal heptane and iso-octane
Ans. c

14. In a four stroke cycle, the minimum temperature inside the engine cylinder occurs at the ___________
(1) Beginning of suction stroke (2) End of suction stroke
(3) Beginning of exhaust stroke (4) End of exhaust stroke
Ans. a

15. The exhaust valve in a four stroke cycle petrol engine ___________
(1) Opens at 500 before bottom dead centre and closes at 150 after top dead centre
(2) Opens at bottom dead centre and closes at top dead centre
(3) Opens at 500 after bottom dead centre and closes at 150 before top dead centre
(4) May open and close anywhere
Ans. c

16. The motion of the cam is transferred to the valves through _________
(1) Pistons
(2) Rocker arms
(3) Camshaft pulley
(4) Valve stems
Ans. b

17. Which of the following symptom is caused as a result of brake disc run out ?
(1) Ineffectiveness of the brakes
(2) Judder during braking
(3) Localized wearing of the brake pads
(4) Rapid wearing of the brake pads
Ans. b

18. If the engine coolant leaks into the engine oil, then engine oil _________
(1) Appears milky (2) Becomes foamy
(3) Turns black (4) None of these
Ans. a

19. Pre-ignition is caused by the spontaneous combustion of the mixture before the end of the compression stroke,
and is due to _________
(1) Cylinder walls being too hot
(2) Overheated spark plug points
(3) Red hot carbon deposits on cylinder walls
(4) Any one of these
Ans. d

20. The objective of supercharging the engine is ___________
(1) To reduce mass of the engine per brake power.
(2) To reduce space occupied by the engine.
(3) To increase the power output of an engine when greater power is required.
(4) All of the above.
Ans. d

21. All of the following are characteristics of DIESEL Engine EXCEPT ________
(1) They are more durable than Gasoline engines.
(2) They operate at lower compression ratio than Gasoline engines.
(3) All Diesel engines are fuel injected.
(4) These engines convert a higher percentage of fuel into useful power.
Ans. b

22. It is necessary to maintain the valve clearances as they _________
(1) Reduce the resistance to sliding that occurs between the cam and the tappet.
(2) Allow for lengthening of the valves owing to the heat of combustion.
(3) Increase the speed at which the valves move up and down.
(4) Make the crankshaft turn smoothly.
Ans. b

23. Incorrect steering axis inclination (S.A.I.) causes __________
(1) Tendency to assume toe-out orientation
(2) Generation of a braking effect at tight corners
(3) Poor recovery of the steering wheel after making a turn
(4) The vehicle to pull to the side of lesser inclination
Ans. c

24. The compensating jet in a carburettor supplies almost constant amount of petrol at all speeds because the ___
(1) Jet area is automatically varied depending on the suction.
(2) The flow from the main jet is diverted to the compensating jet with increase in speed.
(3) The diameter of the jet is constant and the discharge coefficient is invariant.
(4) Flow is produced due to the static head in the float chamber.
Ans. b

25. The effective inhibitor of pre-ignition is __________
(1) Alcohol
(2) Water
(3) Lead
(4) None of these
Ans. c

26. The pressure inside the cylinder is ___________ the atmospheric pressure during the exhaust stroke.
(1) Equal to
(2) Below
(3) Above
(4) Twice
Ans. c

27. The torque available at the contact between driving wheels and road is known as ____________
(1) Brake effort
(2) Tractive effort
(3) Clutch effort
(4) None of these
Ans. b

28. A traction control system (TCS) in automobiles controls the __________
(1) Vibrations on the steering wheel
(2) Engine power during acceleration
(3) Torque that is transmitted by the tyres to the road surface
(4) Stopping distance in case of emergency
Ans. c

Karnataka Motor Vehicle Inspector Question Paper MCQ
1. Maximum bending movement for a simply supported beam of length L, cross section A carrying uniformly
distributed total load of W is _______
(1) LW/ 2
(2) LW/ 4
(3) LW/8
(4) LW/16
Ans. 3

2. In case of a thin longitudinal cylinder the ratio = will be Longitudinal stress
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 1
(4) 1
Ans. 2

3. Iron alloyed with more than 2% carbon content is called _____.
(1) Grey Iron
(2) Cast Iron
(3) Carbon Steel
(4) High carbon steel
Ans. 2

4. Microscopic examinations have revealed that chips are produced by shearing process along the ______.
(1) Longitudinal plane
(2) Tangential plane
(3) Shear plane
(4) Principal plane
Ans. 3

5. Materials system composed of a combination of two or more constituent that differs in form and chemical
compositions and which are insoluble in each other is _______
(1) Alloy
(2) Compound
(3) Composites
(4) Carburizing
Ans. 3

6. Kinematic pair consists of _______
(1) Pair of element having surface element. (2) Pair of element having line or point contact.
(3) Two elements that permit relative motion. (4) Two elements dynamically held together.
Ans. 3

7. The Hartnell Governor is the best example for the ______
(1) Centrifugal type governor (2) Dead weight type governor
(3) Inertia type governor (4) Pendulum type governor
Ans. 1

8. An ideal flow of any fluid must satisfy ______
(1) Newton law of Viscosity
(2) Boundary layer theory
(3) Pascal’s Law
(4) Continuity equation
Ans. 4

9. In case of laminar flow ______
(1) Reynold number is high
(2) The fluid particles move in Zig - Zag manner
(3) The fluid particles move in layers parallel to boundary
(4) Both Reynold and Nusselt number is high
Ans. 3

10. A ball pen works on the principle of ______
(1) Adhesion and Cohesion of the molecules
(2) Surface tension
(3) Viscosity
(4) Gravitational Force
Ans. 1

11. In air standard diesel cycle, at fixed compression ratio and fixed value of adiabatic index.
(1) Thermal efficiency increases with increase in heat addition cut – off ratio.
(2) Thermal efficiency decreases with increase in heat addition cut – off ratio.
(3) Thermal efficiency remains same with increase in heat addition cut – off ratio.
(4) None of the above.
Ans. 1

12. Prony brake is used for the measurements of brake power of a ______
(1) Low speed engine
(2) Low power engine
(3) Variable speed engine
(4) High speed engine
Ans. 3

13. The phenomenon by which the fuel catches fire without external flame is called as ______
(1) Detonation
(2) Pre-ignition
(3) Knocking
(4) Auto-ignition
Ans. 4

14. The car batteries generally used in our country are of the type ______
(1) Nickel cadmium battery
(2) Lead – acid battery
(3) Nickel iron battery
(4) Dry battery
Ans. 2

15. The most commonly used lubricant in India for automobiles is ______
(1) Animal oil
(2) Mineral oil
(3) Vegetable oil
(4) Synthetic oil
Ans. 2

16. _______ is used to control the output of the generator within the safe limits, to prevent or to increase the life of
the battery.
(1) Transducers
(2) Sensors
(3) Regulator
(4) Generator
Ans. 3

17. The percentage reduction of the cross sectional area in a cast iron specimen subjected to tensile test is _______
(1) 50%
(2) 25%
(3) 5%
(4) 0%
Ans. 4

18. Materials having the same elastic properties in all the directions are called as_______
(1) Elastic materials
(2) Isotropic materials
(3) Uniform materials
(4) Ideal materials
Ans. 2

19. The property of materials which allows it to be rolled into plates and sheets is called as ________
(1) Malleability
(2) Ductility
(3) Plasticity
(4) Elasticity
Ans. 1

20. The tendency of a body to resist change from rest or motion is known as _______
(1) Inertia
(2) Mass
(3) Friction
(4) Resisting force
Ans. 1

21. The type of coupling suitable when two shafts are not in line and not parallel is _______
(1) Chain Coupling (2) Universal Coupling
(3) Oldham Coupling (4) Flexible Coupling
Ans. 2

22. Which of the following is not associated with the measurement of viscosity?
(1) Redwood
(2) Engler
(3) Saybolt
(4) Orsat
Ans. 4

23. Poise is the unit of _______
(a) Surface tension
(b) Buoyancy
(c) Viscosity
(d) Capillarity
Ans. c

24. Entropy change depends on _______
(1) Heat transfer
(2) Mass transfer
(3) Change in pressure and volume
(4) Change in temperature
Ans. 1

25. The ball joints are used on the tie rod ends of a steering because they _____
(1) Reduce noise
(2) Reduce sliding resistance
(3) Help movement of suspension in other directions
(4) Improve force transmission
Ans. 3

26. The stroke of an IC engine is ________
(1) Distance between TDC & BDC
(2) Volume of Cylinder
(3) Length of Cylinder
(4) Length of Piston
Ans. 1

27. Connecting rods are manufactured by ________
(1) Forging
(2) Casting
(3) Welding
(4) Machining
Ans. 1

28. The motion of the Cam Shaft is transferred to the value of engine through_______
(1) Rocker Arm
(2) Piston
(3) Pulley
(4) Valve Stem
Ans. 1

HPSSC MVI (Motor Vehicle Inspector) 2022
1. Which of the following is used for controlling fluctuations of energy and load in an engine?
a) Control valve
b) Flywheel
c) Governor
d) Flywheel and Governor both
Ans. d

2. Which of the section provide for penalty for driving when mentally unfit to drive?
a) 181
b) 186
c) 192
d) 194
Ans. a

3. According to Motor Vehicle Act, Section – 49 provide for _____
a) No objection certificate
b) Transfer of ownership
c) Change in residence of place of business
d) None of these
Ans. c

4. Sulphur content for Bharat VI grade fuel is approximately.
a) 10 PPM
b) 50 PPM
c) 20 PPM
d) 25 PPM
Ans. a

5. How many chapters and sections are there in Motor Vehicle Act 1998?
a) 12 and 217
b) 14 and 215
c) 12 and 215
d) 14 and 217
Ans. b

6. What is the meaning of “Golden Hour”?
a) 24 hours after accident b) 48 hours after accident
c) 12 hours after accident d) 1 hours after accident
Ans. d

7. Limit gauges are used to
a) Measure flatness of the component
b) measure exact size of the component
c) check if the component dimension lies with permissible limits
d) measure surface roughness of the component
Ans. c

JSSC Motor Vehicle Inspector 2020 (Jharkhand)
1. A driver driving a vehicle in excess of its permissible weight
(A) Can refuse to get the vehicle weighed when asked by the authority
(B) Can refuse to stop his vehicle
(C) Can remove excess load prior to weighing by the authority
(D)Is liable for fine, tax and penalty for excess weight
Ans. d

2. To whom is an application given to issue a no-objection certificate under Section 48 of Motor Vehicles Act, 1988,
in Form 28 with respect to a motor vehicle?
(A) Registering authority
(B) Controlling authority
(C)Licensing authority
(D) Central Government
Ans. a

3. An application for an International Driving Permit shall be made in
(A) Form 1
(B) Form 1A
(C) Form 4
(D) Form 4 –A
Ans. b

4. The overall length of the agricultural tractor shall NOT exceed
(A) 7.5 metres
(B) 8.5 metres
(C)6.5 metres
(D) 10.5 metres
Ans. b

5. Application for Registration of a Motor Vehicle is to be made in which form?
(A) Form 20
(B) Form 24
(C) Form 25
(D) Form 27
Ans. a

6. For the grant of National Permit to a multiaxle goods carriage, the age of the motor vehicle at any point of time
shall NOT exceed
(A) 14 years (B) 12 years
(C)13 years (D)15 years
Ans. d

7. If the vehicle is fitted with pneumatic tyre and it is a medium or heavy passenger motor vehicle, the maximum
speed per hour in kilometer is
(1) 40 (2) 60 (3) 50 (4) 70
Ans. 2

8. The amount of compensation to be paid under Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, for a simple fracture is
(A) Demand made by the victim (B) No compensation
(C) As per award of tribunal (D)INR 50,000
Ans. c

9. Who among the following is required to be in 36. the driver's seat when a motor vehicle is allowed to be
stationary in any public place?
(A) Licensed driver (B) Driver whose license is expired
(C) Driver whose license is impounded (D) Cleaner of the vehicle
Ans. a

10. For 4 wheeled sleeper coach, under Special Road Tax, each berth will be treated equal to
a) 2 seats b) 4 seats c) 5 seats d) 6 seats
Ans. c

11. The validity of a temporary registration of a non-transport vehicle can be extended up to
(A) 10 days (B) 15 days (C)No extension (D)30 days
Ans. d

12. According to which of the following Acts, a person must NOT place or maintain commercial advertising on a
traffic control device?
(A) Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 (B) Police Act, 1961
(C) Trade Unions Act, 1926 (D)Arms Act, 1959
Ans. a

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