Paket_1_INBR.pptxc73582af-1530-475f-8f39-ce7a5958f0b7_PAMFLET-PIT-INPS-SEMARANG---BUNDLING.pdf

c73582af-1530-475f-8f39-ce7a5958f0b7_PAMFLET-PIT-INPS-SEMARANG---BUNDLING.pdf

1. PAKET 1

2. Chromatin condensation and fragmentation, dilation and blebbing of the nuclear membrane, and cellular shrinkage Apoptosis Necrosis Both None of the above

3. Mobilizes the immune system Apoptosis Necrosis Both None of the above

4. The mechanism of cell death after radiation therapy Apoptosis Necrosis Both None of the above

5. Type of cell death detected by the annexin V/propidium iodide assay Apoptosis Necrosis Both None of the above

6. Pharmacologic strategies that inhibit caspase 8 may decrease this form of cell death Apoptosis Necrosis Both None of the above

7. Rapid cell lysis Apoptosis Necrosis Both None of the above

8. Translocation of phosphatidylserine to the outer plasma membrane is an early characteristic of this mode of cell death Apoptosis Necrosis Both None of the above

9. DNA ladder formation on gel electrophoresis Apoptosis Necrosis Both None of the above

10. 9. Which of the following ion channels is partly responsible for carrying current during the repolarization phase in cochlear hair cells? A. Na+ channel B. Ca2+ channel C. Ca2+-sensitive K+ channel D. Cl -channel E. Mg2+ channel

11. 10. Which of the following causes an increase in decerebrate rigidity? Sectioning the dorsal roots B. Chemically inactivating the lateral vestibular nucleus C. Sectioning the y motor neurons D. Activating the medullary reticular formation E. Destruction of the flocculonodular lobe of the cerebellum

12. 11. Neurotransmitter release at the synaptic terminal is triggered mainly by which ion? Na+ B. W C. CJ D. Ca2+ E. Mg2+

13. 12. Which of the following would hyperpolarize a resting neuron? Increase in Cl -conductance B. Increase in Na+ conductance C. Increase in Ca2+ conductance D. Decrease in Ic + conductance E. Increase in Ic + conductance

14. 13. Which of the following would increase conduction velocity in an axon? Increasing the diameter of an axon 2. Increasing the transmembrane resistance ( Rm ) 3. Decreasing the capacitance of the membrane (C",) 4. Decreasing the membrane length constant ( Ie ) 1,2, and3 are correct B. 1 and 3 are correct C. 2 and 4 are correct D. Only 4 is correct E. All of the above

15. 14. Which of the following about the utricle and saccule is correct? With the head in an upright position, the utricle is oriented vertically on the medial wall of the vestibule B. They respond to angular acceleration C. In the utricular macula, the hair cells are arranged with the kinocilium oriented away from the striola D. The surface of the macula extends into the membranous labyrinth and is bathed in perilymph E. The tips of the hair cells are covered by the overlying otolithic membrane, which is embedded with calcium carbonate crystals ( otoconia )

16. 15. Resistance of this tumor to BCNU may have resulted from A high concentration of 06-alkylguanine-DNA alkyltransferase (06-AGAT) in tumor cells B. The tumor was in the S phase of the cell cycle (resistant phase) during administration of BCNU C. The tumor cells lacked topoisomerase II, which causes transient DNA strand breaks during chemotherapy induction D. The tumor cells lacked cell surface proteins that recognize BCl '- nJ E. An agent that disrupts the blood-brain barrier was not administered concurrently with BCNU A 52-year-old male underwent subtotal resection of a glioblastoma m ultiforme originating in the right frontal lobe and extending into the deep nuclei of that hemisphere. Postoperatively, he underwent whole-brain radiation therapy and received 1, 3-bis-2-chloroethyl-1-nitrosourea (BCNU). The patient succumbed to his disease process 8 months later

17. 16. Which of the following agents could potentially increase response rates to BCl '-HJ chemotherapy? Irinotecan (CPT- ll ) B. Tamoxifen C. Suramin D. 06-benzylguanine E. 1-(2-chloroethyl)-3-cyclohexyl-1-nitrosourea (CCl'-,I1J) A 52-year-old male underwent subtotal resection of a glioblastoma l11ultiforme originating in the right frontal lobe and extending into the deep nuclei of that hemisphere. Postoperatively, he underwent whole-brain radiation therapy and received 1, 3-bis-2-chloroethyl-1-nitrosourea (BCNU). The patient succumbed to his disease process 8 months later

18. 17. Experimental studies using the IISV- tk /GCV suicide gene transfer approach in animal models have shown tUl110r regression and long-term survival in spite of transduction efficiencies of less than 10%. Successful application of suicide gene cancer therapy in these studies despite incomplete delivery of genetic vector to all tumor cells was ill,ely the result of The transfer of phosphorylated GCV ( pGCV ) into un transduced tumor cells via gap junctions The ensuing inflammatory reaction produced by the viral vector, resulting in the activation of cell deathsignaling pathways (Fas/APO-1) The upregulation of p53, which immediately causes release of apoptotic mediators (e.g., caspase 8) from the mitochondria Upregulation of cAMP , a second messenger Imown to halt tumor proliferation in the G1 phase of the cell cycle Transfer of viral vectors into untransduced tumor cells via clathrin -coated pits

19. 18. What is the only neurotransmitter synthesized in the synaptic vesicle? . Dopamine Norepinephrine Acetylcholine Serotonin Substance P

20. Free nerve endings lvleissner's corpuscles Pacinian corpuscles Ruffini's corpuscles l'l'lerkel's discs None of the above 19. Most sensitive to skin stretch

21. 20. Particularly sensitive to vibration (600 stimuli/second) Free nerve endings lvleissner's corpuscles Pacinian corpuscles Ruffini's corpuscles l'l'lerkel's discs None of the above

22. 21. Mostly found in clusters at the center of the papillary ridge Free nerve endings lvleissner's corpuscles Pacinian corpuscles Ruffini's corpuscles l'l'lerkel's discs None of the above

23. 22. Provide shalvest resolution of spatial pattern Free nerve endings lvleissner's corpuscles Pacinian corpuscles Ruffini's corpuscles l'l'lerkel's discs None of the above

24. 23. Line the alimentary tract Free nerve endings lvleissner's corpuscles Pacinian corpuscles Ruffini's corpuscles l'l'lerkel's discs None of the above

25. 24. Afferent fibers to the stretch reflex Free nerve endings lvleissner's corpuscles Pacinian corpuscles Ruffini's corpuscles l'l'lerkel's discs None of the above

26. 25. Transmit information about pressure and texture Free nerve endings lvleissner's corpuscles Pacinian corpuscles Ruffini's corpuscles l'l'lerkel's discs None of the above

27. 26. Which of the following structures is assessed by the doll's eye maneuver? Lateral vestibulospinal tract Medial vestibulospinal tract Vestibular nerve Cerebellum Cerebral cortex

28. 27. Which of the following statements about phototransduction in the retina is correct? Cones perform better than rods in most visual tasks except detection of dim light at night The presence of light results in the opening of sodium channels in the photoreceptors of the retina The flow of sodium into photoreceptor cells is mediated by cAMP channels In the dark, the hyperpolarization of photoreceptor cells of the retina is the result of outward sodium flow lvletarhodopsin II, a breakdown product of rhodopsin, deactivates phosphodiesterase molecules

29. 28. Gap junctions close in response to what stimuli? Decreased concentration of intracellular Ca2+ Increased extracellular K+ concentration Elevated intracellular proton concentration Increased extracellular Ca2+ concentration Gap junctions, unlike ion channels, remain open continuousl

30. 29. Unipolar neurons mainly innervate what structure(s)? Sympathetic nervous system Exocrine gland secretions and smooth muscle contractili ty Cardiac muscle cells (AV node) Adrenal gland secretions and the renal glomerulus Small and large bowel muscle contractility

31. 30. Which of the following statements about the cochlea is correct? High-frequency sounds cause the basilar membrane to vibrate maXimally at its apex Hair cells of the cochlea do not typically adapt to sustained stimuli unless provoked by low-frequency sounds An endocochlear potential of + 40 mV exists between the perilymph and the endolymph Deflection of stereocilia in either direction can cause depola riza tion The hair cells form chemical synapses with bipolar cells of the spiral ganglion

32. 31. Which of the following statements about olfactory receptors is correct? An olfactory receptor displays rapid adaptation initially The life span of olfactory receptor cells is approximately 9 months A Single olfactory receptor cell typically responds to only a single odorant The receptor potential occurs when Na+ channels are closed in a manner similar to phototransduction They are cGMP -regulated

33. 32. Which of the following sensory systems sends signals directly to both the thalamus and cerebral cortex? Two-point discrimination Taste Olfaction Pain Balance

34. 33. Cells most sensitive to radiation therapy (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

35. 34. Nutrient depletion or pbysical crowding are conditions that encourage cells to move into this phase of the cell cycle (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

36. 35. Cells can incorporate thymidine analogues into their nuclear DNA (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

37. 36. Cells most resistant to radiation therapy (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

38. 37. PIS and p16 cause growth arrest in this cell-cycle phase (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

39. 38. TP53-dependent growth arrest following DNA damage occurs in this phase (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

40. 39. Most variable phase of the cell cycle in terms of duration End Qlset (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

41. 40. What is the resting membrane potential for nerve cells? -100 mV -90 mV -80 mV -65 mV -40 mV

42. 41. What is the extracellular concentration of Ca2+ ions in the brain? 0.7 mM /L 2 mM /L 125 mM /L 150 mM /L None of the above

43. 42. Columns of neurons in area 3a of the somatic sensory cortex receive input primarily from what type of receptor(s)? Rapidly adapting skin receptors Slowly and rapidly adapting skin receptors Pressure and joint position receptors Muscle stretch receptors 1,2, and 3 are correct 1 and 3 are correct 2 and 4 are correct Only 4 is correct All of the above

44. 43. Which of the following is true of action potentials? Action potentials are mediated entirely by changes in W voltage-gated channels The rate of Na+ influx begins to slow as the membrane potential approaches E,\+ The threshold for initiating action potentials is usually around +15 mV The falling phase of the action potential is mediated by delayed activation of Ie conductance 1,2, and 3 are correct 1 and 3 are correct 2 and 4 are correct Only 4 is correct All of the above

45. 44. Cells with concentric receptive fields along the visual pathway are found in what location(s)? Retina Retina and optic nerve Retina and lateral geniculate nucleus Retina, lateral geniculate nucleus, layer 4 of the visual cortex Cells in the premotor cortex only

46. 45. "That is the primary neurotransmitter of the Renshaw cell? Glycine Acetylcholine GABA Serotonin Glutamate

47. 46. A patient with homonymous hemianopsia due to a parietal lesion will have deficient pursuit eye movements ___ of the lesion, resulting in opticolunetic nystagmus . The opticolunetic nystagmus will be decreased when the drum is rotated the side of the lesion. Opposite the side, toward Toward the side, away from Opposite the side, away from Toward the side, toward None of the above

48. 47. All of the following biochemical features regarding receptors for chemical neurotransmitters are correct EXCEPT? They may be membrane-spanning proteins They can work in a direct or indirect fashion to influence synaptic response They can influence cells by activating second messengers, such as cAMP or diacylglycerol They can help reinforce the pathways involved with learning The binding site on the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor usuaUy includes both the (J. and p subunits

49. 48. All of the following statements about the semicircular canals are correct EXCEPT? The movement of endolymph within each canal is opposite to the direction of head rotation Primary afferent fibers do not discharge after head rotation ceases Linear acceleration of the head is sufficient to activate the posterior semicircular canal The floor of the ampulla contains a ridge of speCialized hair cells that is covered by a layer of gelatin called the cupula I-lair cells in the horizontal canal are polarized toward the utricle, and those in the anterior and posterior semicircular canals are polarized away from the utricle

50. 49. Slow synaptic transmission between nociceptors and dOl'sal horn neurons is mediated primarily by what neurotransmitter? Substance P Glutamate Acetylcholine ATP Serotonin

51. 50. A motor unit is composed of 1\ group of D. motor neurons to a given muscle A group of D. and y motor neurons to a given muscle A group of (J. motor neurons to a given muscle and all of the muscle fibers they innervate A group of muscle fibers innervated by a single motor neuron All muscle groups innervated by the ventral root

52. 51. Group 1b sensory fibers from Illuscle are most sensitive to what sensory modality? Muscle length Deep pressure Rate of change ill length Muscle tension 1,2, and 3 are correct 1 and 3 are correct 2 and 4 are correct Only 4 is correct All of the above are correct

53. 52. Which of the following is a component of the muscle spindle? Intrafusal muscle fibers Annulospiral endings Flower-spray endings y motor fibers 1,2, and 3 are correct 1 and 3 are correct 2 and 4 are correct Only 4 is correct All of the above

54. 53. Striking the ligamentum patellae with a reflex hammer results in the activation of which of the following structure(s)? Annulospiral endings Flower spray endings a motor neurons Quadriceps muscle 1,2, and 3 are correct 1 and 3 are correct 2 and 4 are correct Only 4 is correct All of the above are correct

55. 54. Which of the following statements about neurons is correct? Golgi type I neurons form the short fiber tracts of the brain and spinal cord Golgi type II neurons have long axons that terminate in the neighborhood of the cell body Golgi type I neurons are inhibitory The volume of cytoplasm within the cell body always exceeds that found in the neurites Golgi type II neurons greatly outnumber type I neurons

56. 55. Retrograde transport Kinesin Dynein Dynamin None of the above All of the above

57. 56. Fast anterograde transport Kinesin Dynein Dynamin None of the above All of the above

58. 57. Slow anterograde transport Kinesin Dynein Dynamin None of the above All of the above

59. 58. GTP-dependent Kinesin Dynein Dynamin None of the above All of the above

60. 59. Binds vinblastine and colchicine to inhibit fast antero- grade transport Kinesin Dynein Dynamin None of the above All of the above

61. 60. All of the following are true about GABA-responsive channels EXCEPT? The GABA,I receptor consists of five subunits Picrotoxin inhibits the GABA,I receptor after binding to the subunit The GABA b receptor increases K + conductance and generates an inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP) after binding baclofen The B subunit of the GABA,I receptor binds benzodiazepines The binding of alcohol, barbiturates, or benzodiazepines to the GABA,I receptor increases Cl- conductance

62. 61. What ion blocks the ion pore of the N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) glutamate receptor at resting membrane potential? Ca2+ Na+ K+ Mg2+ Cl-

63. 62. Inhibits glycine release Tetrabenazine a-bungarotoxin D-tubocurarine Strychnine Tetanus toxin Cholera toxin Barbiturates Botulinus toxin Pertussis toxin LSD Ondansetron None of the

64. 63. Binds to a subunit of nicotinic receptors Tetrabenazine a-bungarotoxin D-tubocurarine Strychnine Tetanus toxin Cholera toxin Barbiturates Botulinus toxin Pertussis toxin LSD Ondansetron None of the

65. 64. Cleaves the protein synaptobrevin Tetrabenazine a-bungarotoxin D-tubocurarine Strychnine Tetanus toxin Cholera toxin Barbiturates Botulinus toxin Pertussis toxin LSD Ondansetron None of the

66. 65. Cleave t-SNAREs and v-SNAREs Tetrabenazine a-bungarotoxin D-tubocurarine Strychnine Tetanus toxin Cholera toxin Barbiturates Botulinus toxin Pertussis toxin LSD Ondansetron None of the

67. 66. Selectively activates Gs Tetrabenazine a-bungarotoxin D-tubocurarine Strychnine Tetanus toxin Cholera toxin Barbiturates Botulinus toxin Pertussis toxin LSD Ondansetron None of the

68. 67. Nondepolarizing inhibitor of nicotinic cholinergic receptors Tetrabenazine a-bungarotoxin D-tubocurarine Strychnine Tetanus toxin Cholera toxin Barbiturates Botulinus toxin Pertussis toxin LSD Ondansetron None of the

69. 68. Inactivates G1 Tetrabenazine a-bungarotoxin D-tubocurarine Strychnine Tetanus toxin Cholera toxin Barbiturates Botulinus toxin Pertussis toxin LSD Ondansetron None of the

70. 69. Agonist of the 5-HT1c receptor Tetrabenazine a-bungarotoxin D-tubocurarine Strychnine Tetanus toxin Cholera toxin Barbiturates Botulinus toxin Pertussis toxin LSD Ondansetron None of the

71. 70. Antagonist of the 5-HTJ (ionotropic) receptor Tetrabenazine a-bungarotoxin D-tubocurarine Strychnine Tetanus toxin Cholera toxin Barbiturates Botulinus toxin Pertussis toxin LSD Ondansetron None of the

72. 71. Clinical evidence of neurologic deficit may not appear until regional blood flow has fallen to 50% or below average levels. At what rate of cerebral blood flow (in mL/ lOO g/min) does cytotoxic edema develop from failure of the Na+W-ATPase ? 40-50 25-30 16-20 10-12 <10

73. 72. Which of the following is believed to be the major vasoactive mediator that plays an integral role in vasomodulation ? Carbon monoxide Arachidonic acid metabolites Nitrous oxide Adenosine ATP

74. 73. Neural crest cells give rise to all of the following structures EXCEPT? Ventral root ganglia Postganglionic cells of the sympathetic and parasympathetic ganglia Chromaffin cells of the adrenal medulla Melanocytes Schwann cells

75. 74. Which of the following are common features of Wallerian degeneration ? Degeneration and phagocytosis of the distal axonal segment Chromatolysis (peripheralization of rough endoplasmic reticulum with a concomitant increased protein synthesis) due to decreased retrograde neurotrophic factor delivery Proximal axon segment swelling due to continued anterograde axonal transport Greater neuronal cell death of postsynaptic neurons in the peripheral nervous system (PNS) than the central nervous system after axotomy 1,2,and3arecorrect 1 and 3 are correct 2 and 4 are correct Only 4 is correct All of the above

76. 75. Striated muscle fibers Red muscle fibers White muscle fibers Both None of the above

77. 76. Contain large amounts of mitochondria, contract and relax slowly Red muscle fibers White muscle fibers Both None of the above

78. 77. Aerobic metabolism capacity Red muscle fibers White muscle fibers Both None of the above

79. 78. Contain large stores of glycogen Red muscle fibers White muscle fibers Both None of the above

80. 79. Composed solely of actin filaments

81. 80. Shortens during muscle contraction

82. 81. H zone

83. 82. A band

84. 83. Z disc

85. 84. A consulting neuropathologist is asked to determine the gestational age of a stillborn infant thought to have been of approximately 18 weeks' gestational age. What is the best neuroanatomic criterion the pathologist can use to determine the infant's gestational age around this time period? The degree of neural tube closure The pattern of cerebral sulci The extent of myelination The amount of o.-fetoprotein in the mother's serum Thiclmes soft heependymallayerliningtheventricular cavity

86. 85. Which of the following is true regarding cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)? 90% is secreted by the choroid plexus Volatile anesthetic agents and CO2 increase CSF formation The exit of CSF via the arachnoid villi is volume dependent About 750 cc of CSF is produced each day Norepinephrine increases the rate of CSF formation

87. 86. Caudal neuropore closure Day18 Day21 Day24 Day26 None of the above

88. 87. Notochord begins to develop Day12 Day14 Day16 Day18 Day21

89. 88. Neural folds almost fused Day12 Day14 Day16 Day18 Day21

90. 89. Rostral neuropore closure Day18 Day21 Day24 Day26 None of the above

91. 90. Neural groove development Day12 Day14 Day16 Day18 Day21

92. 91. Bilaminar disc formed Day12 Day14 Day16 Day18 Day21

93. 92. Prosencephalon divides into telencephalon and diencephalon Day18 Day21 Day24 Day26 None of the above

94. 93. What neurotransmitter is responsible for generating an excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP)? Acetylcholine GABA Glutamate Glycine 1,2, and 3 are correct 1 and 3 are correct 2 and 4 are correct Only 4 is correct All of the above

95. 94. What occurs during acute metabolic acidosis to maintain the pH homeostasis of the CNS? Compensatory hyperventilation Reduction in CSF pC02 Paradoxic CSF allutlosis Carbonic anhydrase- catalyzed generation of bicarbonate by the choroid plexus A. 1,2, and 3 are correct B. 1 and3 are correct C. 2 and4 are correct D. Only 4 is correct E. All of the above

96. 95. Meningiomas have been shown to be associated with the expression of progesterone receptors. In what part of the tumor cell do they reside? Endoplasmic reticulum Cell membrane Nucleus Ribosomes Golgi complex

97. 96. Binds to smooth endoplastic reticulum, causing release of Ca2+ ions Phospholipase C (PLC) Diaglycerol (DAG) Inositol triphosphate (IPJ ) cAMP None of the above

98. 97. Second messenger, which activates protein kinase C Gproteins Protein kinase A Protein kinase C Phospholipase C (PLC) Diaglycerol (DAG)

99. 98. Activates protein kinase A Gproteins Protein kinase A Protein kinase C Phospholipase C (PLC) Diaglycerol (DAG)

100. 99. Has three subunits termed a, B dan Y Gproteins Protein kinase A Protein kinase C Phospholipase C (PLC) Diaglycerol (DAG)

101. 100. Splits PIP2 into two molecules that act as second messengers Gproteins Protein kinase A Protein kinase C Phospholipase C (PLC) Diaglycerol (DAG)

102. 101 Regions of the brain devoid of a blood-brain barrier include all the following EXCEPT? A. Pineal body B. Subfornical organ C. Organum vasculosum of the lamina terminalis D. Median eminence of the hypothalamus E. Habenular nucleus

103. 102. What is the major outtlow tract of the basal ganglia? A. Lenticular fasciculus ( Forel's field H2) B. Ansa lenticularis C. Thalamic fasciculus ( Forel's field HI) D. Ansa reticularis E. Mammillothalamic tract

104. 103. Injury to Guillain-Mollaret's triangle can produce? A. Ann tremor B. Torsional nystagmus C. Hypotonia D. Deafness E. Myoclonus

105. 104. Through what structure do fibers from the inferior olives reach the cerebellum? A. Superior cerebellar peduncle B. Inferior cerebellar peduncle C. Middle cerebellar peduncle D. Vestibular nucleus E. Flocculonodular lobe

106. 105. All of the following are association fibers EXCEPT? A. Superior longitudinal fasciculus B. Arcuate fasciculus C. Uncinate fasciculus D. Corona radiata E. Cingulum

107. 106. First-order neurons involved in pupillary dilation originate in what structure? A. Thalamus B. Hypothalamus C. Superior colliculus D. Superior cervical ganglia E. Edinger-Westphal nucleus

108. 107. The basal nucleus (of Meynert ) contains what type of neurons? A. Cholinergic B. Adrenergic C. Serotonergic D. Dopaminergic E. Noradrenergic

109. 108. Beginning the incision for an anterior iliac crest graft approximately 3 cm lateral to the anterior iliac spine attempts to avoid injury of what structure(s)? 1. Sartorius muscle 2. Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve 3. Ilioinguinal ligament 4. Iliacus muscle 1,2, and 3 are correct 1 and 2 are correct 2 and 4 are correct Only 4 is correct All of the above

110. 109. Mossy fibers originating in the dentate gyrus terminate here A. CAl B. CA2 C. CA3 D. CA4 E. Indusium griseum

111. 110. Extremely vulnerable to hypoxia A. CAl B. CA2 C. CA3 D. CA4 E. Indusium griseum

112. 111. Schaffer collaterals project to the pyramidal neurons of this subfield A. CAl B. CA2 C. CA3 D. CA4 E. Indusium griseum

113. 112. Lies in the concavity of the dentate gyrus A. CAl B. CA2 C. CA3 D. CA4 E. None of the above

114. 113. Vestigial remnant of hippocampal formation A. CAl B. CA2 C. CA3 D. CA4 E. Indusium griseum

115. 114. Injury of this sector may produce remote memory problems A. CAl B. CA2 C. CA3 D. CA4 G. None of the above

116. 115. Largest sector A. CAl B. CA2 C. CA3 D. CA4 G. None of the above

117. 116. In normal individuals, the direct and indirect circuits of the basal ganglia are balanced by? A. The opposing actions of the dopaminergic nigrostriatal projections on the Dl and D2 receptor subtypes in the putamen B. The inhibitory activity of the subthalamic nucleus on the globus pallidus interna C. The increased activity of GABAergic neurons in the internal segment of the globus pallidus by the direct pathway D. The ascending dopaminergic fibers originating in the midbrain tegmentum and synapsing in the pars compacta of the substantia nigra (influencing Dl and D2 receptors in the globus pallidus) E. All of the above

118. 117. A visual lesion producing a central defect in one field with a superior temporal defect in the opposite may be originating in what location? A. Anterior chiasm B. Occipital lobe C. Temporal lobe D. Optic nerve E. Inferior parietal lobe

119. 118. Fibers from the frontal eye fields pass through the genu of the internal capsule, decussate in the pons, and synapse in what structure involved with saccades? A. Medial longitudinal fasciculus ( MlLF ) B. Inferior colliculus C. Edinger-Westphal nucleus D. Solitary nucleus E. Paramedian pontine reticular formation (PPRF)

120. 119. Occlusion of this vessel is the most common cause of lateral medullary (Wallenberg) syndrome A B C D E

121. 120. Supplies the pyramis , tuber, flocculus , and caudal parts of pontine tegmentum A B C D E