INI CET Nov 2023 Recall Session (Part-1).pdf

Questions recall

1. DERMATOLOGY Recall
INI-CET November 2023

2. Q. 1 60 year old male presented with ulcer near medial canthus :-
(a) Basal cell carcinoma
(b) Squamous cell carcinoma
(c)Melanoma
(d) Discoid lupus erythematosus
E O
f

3. Q.2 A 25 year young male patient, has with
asymptomatic scaly skin lesions on his back,
symmetrically distributed. The provided images
showcase the lesions. Can you identify the pattern
of these skin lesions & the specific disease?
(a) Woronoff ring - Seborrheic dermatitis
(b) Wickham’s striae-Lichen planus
(c) Collarette scale - Christmas tree pattern - pityriasis
rosea
(d) Christmas tree pattern psoriasis
É
Y
D
ELIE

4. Q.3 Which type of image is given here?
(a) Direct immunofluorescent
(b) Indirect immunofluorescent
(c) Fish net pattern
(d) Tomb stone appearance
OOO
ye

5. Q.4 A person presents with flaccid blister’s and oral mucosal lesions as shown in the
image, along with histological finding shown below
(a) Pemphigus vulgaris
(b) Pemphigus foliaceus
(c) Bullous pemphigoid
(d) IgA disease
Iep
If
IN

6. Q.5 All are features of non-scarring alopecia except ?
(a) Tenogen effluvium
(b) Androgenic alopecia
(c) Alopecia areata
(d) Frontal fibrozing
8
I.my

7. Q.6 Case I: A patient having flaccid bullae with painful erosions, will show
suprabasal split and inflammatory infiltrate in the blister cleft on HPE.
Case 2: Row of tombstones appearance is diagnostic of Pemphigus vulgaris
(a) Case 1 is false and Case 2 is true
(b) Case 1 is false and Case 2 is false
(c) Both the Case are true
(d) Both the case are false
EE

8. Q.7 A 48 year old obese lady presents with velvety appearance over neck as shown
image in the below?
(a) Acanthosis nigricans
(b) Insulin resistance
(c)
(d)
ÉF
1
HE
MAKATI

9. Q 8 Apocrine gland commonly present in which part of the body ?
(a) Face
(b) Scalp
(c) Axilla
(d) Palm & Soles
CELIA

10. ENT Recall
INI-CET November 2023
Dr Sarvejeet Singh

11. Q1. Identify the type of joint marked in the given image?
(a) Ball and Socket Joint
(b) Saddle Joint
(c) Pivot Joint
(d) Gliding Joint

12. Q2. A 33 years old male patient presented with URTI with
pus in his left nasal cavity and orbital pain along with
blurring of vision. CT Scan was done and following
findings were seen. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a. sinusitis
b. sinusitis plus orbital cellulitis
c. sinusitis plus septal cellulitis
d. sinusitis plus sub periosteal cellulitis

13. Subperiosteal Abscess

14. Orbital Cellulitis

15. Orbital Abscess

16. Orbital Abscess

17. Q3. Apocrine Glands are seen in?
a. Face
b. Scalp
c. Palm and Sole
d. Axilla

18. Q4. A 60 years old patient presented with following lesion
which is slowly progressively increasing in size. What is
the most likely diagnosis?
a. Squamous Cell Carcinoma
b. Basal Cell Carcinoma
c. Melanoma
d. Nevus

19. Q5. A child was playing alone and is found to be drooling
and choking. X-Ray was done and is shown below. What is
the likely foreign body ingested?
a. Coin
b. MettalicBall
c. Cold drink bottle cap
d. Button Battery

20. Q6. A lady presented with bilateral hearing loss, more on
right side. It was decided to do stapedectomy after
examination. What is the likely Rinne’s and weber’s test
findings in this patient?
a. Bilateral Rinne’s Negative, Weber’s Centralized
b. Bilateral Rinne’s Positive, Weber’s to Right
c. Bilateral Rinne’s Positive, Weber’s to Left
d. Bilateral Rinne’s Negative, Weber’s to Right

21. Q7. All of the following statements are true except
a. One layer cells in inner hair cells, 3 layer cells in outer hair
cells
b. Maximum nerve fibres supply inner cells
c. outer hair cells sense movement are

22. Q8. A HIV positive patient presented with white non
scrapable lesion on lateral border of tongue as shown
below. Which of the following is the most likely
responsible for this lesion?
a. EBV
b. HHV- 8
c. Candida
d. HSV-1

23. Q9. A patient presented presented to ENT OPD with
unilateral Nasal mass causing obstruction and occasional
bleeding. The mass was removed and histopathology
shows the following. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a. Rhinoscleroma
b. Rhinosporidosis
c.
d.

24. Q11. A person recently recovered from Covid-19 who was
treated with steroids. After 3 weeks, he complains of
nasal discharge. Swab collected and the following image
is seen. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a. Mucor
b. Aspergillus
c. Candida

25. Q10. Upsloping Audiometry is seen in?
a. Endolymphatic hydrops
b.
c.
d.

27. INI-CET RECALL
Nov 2023
Dr Siraj Ahmad

28. Q. In a patient with history of dementia, which of the following
acetylcholine esterase inhibitor is used if patient is not able to tolerate
the oral drugs:
a.Donepezil
b.Memantine
c.Gallantamine
d.Rivastigmine
Gallant
arrive
Rivastignine
TDpatch
Doheperil

29. Q. A 26 year old patient with history of MTB was started on anti
tubercular agent. 6 months later, patient presented with neck swelling
and increased TSH level. This is possibly associated with which drug:
a.Rifampicin
b.Pyrazinamide
c.Cycloserine
d.Ethionamide
Hypothyroidism
Psychserine 4Ethionamide
4PAS

30. Q. A patient was started on doxorubicin. Cardiotoxicity of this agent can
be reduced by:
a.Aprepitant
b.Dexrazoxane
c.Amifostine
d.Leucovorin
Fe
tchelation

32. Q. A patient is on mood stabilizer, now presented with raised hepatic
enzymes and hyperammonaemia. Possible offending agent:
a.Lamotrigine
b.Topiramate
c.Carbamazepine
d.Sodium valproate
GAED
RapidcyclerDE

33. Q. In a female patient with history of bleeding manifestation, petechial
rashes, heavy menstrual bleeding and easy bruising, which of the
following TK inhibitor can be used:
a.Fostamatinib
b.Bosutinib
c.Oprelvekin
d.Romiplstim
IsolatedThrombocytopenia
__
III
Tsand
gentk
O CML
IInn
d
Thrombopoetin

34. Q. Which of the following anti diabetic agent is approved for heart
failure patient with reduced ejection fraction:
a.Liraglutide
b.Degludec
c.Canagliflozin
d.Dapagliflozin
LIRAGLUTIDE
E
antiDMT
HF
REM
PAGLiFlorin
DPPu
Safer
innit'itt in
unattaine­d
LIN
AGLiptin
SGT2
Empagliflozinfu
CHFpls

35. Q. Which of the following is NOT seen with TCA toxicity:
a.Confusion
b.Hypothermia
c.Pupil dilation
d.Arrhythmia
Metal
acidosis
Ach BOV
antidoteforced
alkdinner's
NaHW5

36. Q. Which of the following protease inhibitors can maximally produce
hepatotoxicity:
a.Tipranavir
b.Saquinavir
c.Atazanavir
d.Nelfinavir
Navin
Gl
McHeMID
BleedBleeding
milearaxitipranavird
Rito
lopinavir
H Hepatotoxicity
C cardiacconductionof
Matt
SAQUI
Aitonavir
L
lipodystrophysynd

37. Q. A patient on MDR TB therapy presented with multiple joint pain and
increased uric acid level with AST/ALT 55-65. next line of management:
a.Stop all and monitor uric acid and start when level become normal
b.Stop only pyrazinamide and monitor uric acid and AST ALT
c.Stop all hepatotoxic and monitor liver enzymes
d.Continue all and add uric acid lowering drug
PYRAZINAMIDE

39. Q. A 55 year old male patient with history of hypertension and
occasional spikes of blood glucose also. Which of the following is most
preferred agent for this patient:
a.Advise for exercise and Prazosin
b.Exercise and Amlodipine
c.Exercise and Metoprolol
d.Advise for only life style modification
qq.IEp
CCB Thianides
BI2ndline

40. Q. All of the following side effect are more common with
carbamazepine than oxcarbazepine except:
a.Hepatotoxicity
b.Rash
c.Thrombocytopenia
d.Dilutional hyponatremia
PHI
F
Yeeox
or

41. hein
Elderly
pls

42. Q. A farmer aged 60 years presented with fever, body ache and cough.
Upon examination there was a black spot seen on chest as shown in
image. there is positive evidence of IgM for scrub typhus. Preferred
treatment:
a.Doxycycline alone
b.Doxycycline + Azithromycin
c.Ceftriaxone + Doxycycline
d.Ceftriaxone alone
Bertdry
DocDoxycycline
Yr

43. Q. A 28 year old male patient presented with altered sensorium and
Pinpoint pupil. Which of the following poisoning is suspected:
a.Morphine poisoning
b.Cocaine poisoning
c.Amphetamine poisoning
d.Dhatura poisoining
PontineH99
Jppoisony
Cbpoisoning
Morphine
n
phenol U

44. Q. Site of action of valproate:
a.A
b.B
c.C
d.D
VaNat
PG
ABAlend

45. I
VI
LABAIRIN

46. Q. A child was brought with history of iron tablet intake. Treatment with
deferoxamine is started at this level of iron:
a.> 350 mcg/dL
b.> 400 mcg/dL
c.> 450 mcg/dL
d.> 500 mcg/dL
oralDefer
i
prone
Deferasinx

47. Q. Diabetic neuropathy and spinal cord injury
a.Pregabalin
b.Benzodiazepine
c.X
d.X
N
type
cat
DocNeuropathicpain
Amityptilline
postherpetic
neuralgia
DMNeuropathy
Sciatica
focal52 RLS
10Migraine

48. Q. Which of the following pathogen is not sensitive to shown drug
a.Aspergillus niger – Voriconazole
b.Candida Krusei – Fluconazole
c.Candida Glabrata – Amphotericin B
d.Itraconazole – Sporothrix
pyo
Doe
E
CINI
t
Histoplar
me
Sporothiri
x
Blasto
my
ces

49. Resistant
Can
AmpI

50. Q. A 75 year old patient with CHF and cardiac enlargement. Which of
the following will decrease mortality and reduce further enlargement:
a.Digoxin
b.Furosemide
c.Captopril
d.Carvedilol
Ssgallop
Khales
Drugs1Mortality
FACE PRicRamipril
Prototype
ARB SARTA
u
g
Ald
ARNI ARB
NI
p Telmisalantsacubitril
id
UD
P lowdose
anti
oxidant
property DilalinHYDRAAzine
Nitrate
SaltzEmpagliflozin

51. Q. Drug binding to ATP binding cassette:
a.Verapamil
b.Amlodipine
c.Tacrolimus
cyclosporineKaffa
calcineurin
Leydosporin

52. PGp inhibitor
•Amiodarone
•Clarithromycin
•Verpamil, Diltiazem
•Quinidine
•Ketoconazole

53. Q. Which of the following is avoided in thyroid storm:
a.Propranolol
b.Lugol’s iodine
c.PTU
d.Aspirin
DocThyroid
storm
PII
1st
Dms
Thyroid
hormone
PCM
secret
d
d
Dissociation
GfwED
I

54. Q. A patient was on ampicillin therapy developed PMC. Drug preferred
for clostridium difficile:
a.Fidaxomicin
wghalosporingafw
PIC
mostprettOther
agent
Macrolides
PovancomycinbNovobiocin
Mild
Metronidazole
c
MAI
BEZIOTIXUMAB
bMABagainst
CtDifficile
toxin
B

55. Q. Carrageenan causes this type of pain
I
Inflammation
caringagent
PawEdema
PeripheralpainDeep

57. MICROBIOLOGY Recall
INI-CET November 2023

58. Q. If a immunosuppressive patient have white patches and cannot rub lesion
seen in
(a) candida
(b) HSV 1
(c) HSV 8
(d) EBV BIEHN8
FEILII3Wnpy

59. Q. All of following test to be done in dengue except
(a) DNA PCR
(b) Ns1
RooFTPIR
antig
sdayi.tn
Iy X
His

60. Q. Scrub typhus image (chest Black lesion )
(a) Doxycycline + Azithromycin
(b) I/V Doxycycline
(c) Doxycycline + ceftriaxone
(d) Azithromycin
O
oTRI

61. Q. Hiv + with capsulated organism cd4 200 Indian ink
eI
s

62. Q. A person recently recovered from Covid-19 who was treated with steroids. After 3
weeks, he complains of nasal discharge. Swab collected and the following image is
seen. Diagnosis?
(a) Mucor
(b) Aspergillus
(c) Candida
(d)

Nasaltissue
Biopsy
lofty
Aseptate
n
a

63. Q. Image of MOA ELONGATED FACTOR f2 Identify organism?
(a) diphtheria
D
Diphtheria
E
ExinC t
E
ABcD
shigeld
pseudomonas
Cinhilsynthesis
of

64. Q. Identify the organism and stanining
(a) Nocardia acid fast stain
(b) Streptococcus gram stain
(c) Cryptococcus india ink
(d) Coccidioidomycosis pas stain
CIt
Acfast
Filomena
O

65. Q. Which of the following virus' PCR needs Reverse transcriptase:-
(a) Respiratory syncytial virus
(b) HHV
(c) EBV
(d) CMVRE

66. Q. A person from rural area has CNS symptoms like paralysis. organism?
(a) Naegleria fowleri
(b) Acanthamoeba
(c) Balamuthia
(d)
Note: Brain Biopsy (Image)
m
fprimary
amoebic
men
ing
o
ence
pha
h't
s
E

67. Q. Which of the following is required for HIV's entry intro human cell:
(a) CXCR4
(b) GP120
(c) Gp21
(d) ?
f
witch
cell
I
911
rap41
A

68. Q. Elongation factor 2 inhibitor ?
(a) clostridium difficile
(b) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
(c) listeria
(d) streptococcus

69. Q. Pathogen not sensitive to given drug.
(a) Aspergillus niger - Voriconazole
(b) Candida - Fluconazole
(c) Candida krusei - Amphotericin B
(d) Candida Glabrata
twangy

70. ngEÉII
am
wigs
via
prog
Teratogenic
contrubellaSyphilis
vanIahertens

71. a.ms
If
T.I.IE
tmd­cys

72. zongocendet
Yhofrae ortigationay
Bs
Bs
Ebot

73. Nepa
IgMAnthbeIgE
Window
Gartin

79. OPHTHALMOLOGY Recall
INI-CET November 2023
Dr Sashwat Ray ,MS

80. Q. THE following investigation is used for measurement of
(a) Proptosis
(b) Diplopia
(c) Squint
(d) Stereopsis
c

81. HERTEL'S
22mm
74mm
1021351

82. Q. The following image shows?
(a) Lissamine green - corneal ulcer
(b) Rose Bengal stain -corneal opacity
(c) Fluorescein stain -corneal ulcer
d Rhodamine stain- corneal scar
ish
aight
Essie

83. OX
Ligature
stain

84. Q. Prescription of glasses shows - 1.0 DS /-2.0 DCX 180 .What kind of astigmatism ?
(a) Mixed astigmatism
(b) Simple hypermetropic astigmatism
(c) compound myopic with the rule astigmatism
(d) Compound Myopic against the rule astigmatism
Vt
wit t90180
AT_aol

85. Q. 21 year boxer wants to get rid of spectacles. Which refractive procedure should
be AVOIDED ?
(a) SMILE
(b) LASIK
(c) PRK
(d) RK

86. Q. A 50 year old diabetic patient with history of diabetic since 20 year. Fundus
examination shows NPDR . Which of the following would NOT be observed?
(a) Disc neovascularization
(b) Retinal haemorrhage
(c)Soft exudates
(d) Venous beading

THE
RyÉ
m

87. I
qrshashwatyat.com

109. ORTHOPAEDICS Recall
INI-CET November 2023

110. Q. 3 point relationship marks not affected in which of the following Elbow fracture:-
(a) supracondylar
(b) Lateral condylar
(c) Infracondylar
(d) Medial condylar




























OLECRANON
Hft
Isoceres
a
n

111. M
o
L
900
EXTEND

112. Q. Hawkins classification for which bone fracture:-
(a) Talus
(b) Tibia
(c) Humerus
(d) Calcaneus
É
A 2
OSTEONEMSH
BODYOFTAWS
121
3manor
HAWKINISILL

113. M
mechofTALUSNODDWcanon
up
Summarswewyamon
Discocanon
y
thatTBiothead
TawWarWARINSTABURY
LI
SUBTALARTIBIOFAAR
DISLOCATION

114. Q. while bearing weight on right lower limb, the pelvis drooped down towards left
side, which of the following structures are likely to be affected ?
(a) Superiar gluteal nerve
(b) gluteal medius
(c) gluteal minimus
(d) sciatic nerve
I
E

115. Minnan
SUPaiN
ft
as

116. Q. Bankart lesion ?
(a) avulsion from anterosuperior part of Glenoid labrum
(b) avulsion from anteroinferior part of glenoid labrum
(c) depression on posterolateral part of humeral head
(d) depression on anteromedial part of humeral head

117. HILLSAMESION
O

118. Q. Fracture fibula neck causes:
(a) extensor lurch
(b) Waddling gait
(c) Broad base gait
(d) High stepping gait
y

119. y
TIBIAUSANI
DORSIFLEXCONOFANKE
d
IfootDroI
Hatesteppint

120. PAEDIATRICS Recall
INI-CET November 2023
DR DEEPALI GUPTA

121. Q.A baby vaccinated at 14 weeks. Which vaccine to be given next, route
and site

(a) MR vaccine at 8 months, subcutaneous, left arm
(b) MR vaccine at 9 months, subcutaneous, left arm
(c) MR vaccine at 9 months, subcutaneous, right arm
(d) MR vaccine at 8 months, subcutaneous, right arm

122. Site of administration
•All injectable vaccines are given on the anteromedial part of thigh except
BCG-left shoulder
MMR/fIPV–right upper arm
JE-left upper arm
PCV-right anterolateral thigh

125. Q.How do you assess perinatal asphyxia
(a) Apgar score of 4-7 after 5 mins
(b) Cord ph <7.2
(c) Hypotonia
(d) Hypocalcemia

126. Perinatal asphyxia
Definition:
Presence of either of the following is suggestive of birth asphyxia
•Persistence of Apgar score of 0-3 for >5 minutes
•Scalp or cord blood pH < 7.0
•Evidence of multi-organ system dysfunction in
immediate neonatal period
•Neurological manifestations

127. •Acc to NNF & WHO
oAS = 0-3 at 1 min = severe BA
oAS = 4-7 at 1 min = moderate BA
•For the community settings ( NNF)
oAbsence of cry at 1 min is asphyxia
oAbsent or inadequate breathing
oAt 5 min - severe asphyxia

128. Qs. Nephrotic syndrome which of the following marker increased in
Serum electrophoresis:-
(a) Albumin
(b) Beta globulin
(c) Gamma globulin
(d) Alpha 2 globulin

130. Q. Child with acute respiratory distress what we should not do
(a) increase in PEEP pressure
(b) bag and mask ventilation
(c) oxygen through nasal tube
(d)

131. Qs. Mother brings 9 months old child, RR = 48/min , fever, but no chest
retraction, and the child is diagnosed to have pneumonia. What is next
step in management ?
(a) hospitalization of patient with iv antibiotics
(b) Hospitalise the child and give oral antibiotics
(c) Send back home with oral medication
(d) No treatment needed

136. Qs. Child with 3 days of watery diarrhoea, vomiting and altered
sensorium presented to Opd. All of the following can be included in
differential diagnosis EXCEPT
(a) Hyponatremia
(b) Severe dehydration
(c) HUS
(d) Cerebral vein occlusion

137. Q.HEADSS assessment is done for
(a) Neonates
(b) Below 28 days
(c) Under 5 yrs
(d) Adolescent

138. •This is an interview instrument for finding out about issues in
adolescents' lives.
•It was developed by Cohen and colleagues
•H = Home environment
•E= Education and employment
•A= Activities
•D= Drugs
•S= Sexuality
•S= Suicide/Depression

139. Qs. Management of DKA- what is followed?
a)Stat dose given f/b regular infusion of insulin 0.1 U/kg with iv
fluids
b)Infusion of regular insulin 0.05 U/kg-0.1 U/kg/hr after 1 hr of iv
fluids
c)Bolus s/c insulin given

141. Management of DKA -

•Continued i/v infusion of insulin is preferred
•No role of initial insulin bolus
•No role of subcut insulin d/t decreased absorption in the setting of poor
perfusion
•Insulin should be added after initial hydration because
-Drastic fall in plasma osmolality
-Hypokalemia
-Increased risk of cerebral edema
Infusion rate to be reduced only after resolution of acidosis
Dose – 0.1u/kg/hr
- 0.05u/kg/hr in infants & mild DKA

142. Qs. Which of the following is not seen in Downs syndrome?
a)Hypothyroidism
b)Hearing loss
c)Short stature
d)Caudal regression syndrome

144. Qs.Sweat chloride and pancreatic levels of chloride in cystic fibrosis
are
a)Cl concentration increase in sweat and increase in pancreatic
secretion
b)Cl concentration decrease in sweat and decrease in pancreatic
secretion
c)Cl concentration increase in sweat and decrease in pancreatic
secretion
d)Cl concentration decrease in sweat and increase in pancreatic
secretion

145. Genetics and microbiology
•Mutation in the gene encoding the chloride conductance channel, CF
transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) is the underlying cause.
• The failure of chloride conductance by epithelial cells leads to dehydration of
secretions that are too viscid and difficult to clear.
•The defective gene is located at long arm of chromosome 7;
•The most common mutation is a deletion of three base pairs resulting in the absence
of phenylalanine at the 508 position (Phe508del, F508del)

148. Qs. A child has features of meningitis with following
CSF examination:
protein=63
glucose = 20
Lymphocyte +
Diagnosis?
a)Bacterial meningitis
b)Viral meningitis
c)Tubercular meningitis
d)None of these

149. Qs. Match the following
Autosomal dominant Cystic fibrosis
Autosomal recessive Leber Hereditary optic neuropathy
Mitochondrial Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy
X linked recessive Myotonic Dystrophy

150. Qs. Match the following
Autosomal dominant Myotonic Dystrophy
Autosomal recessive Cystic fibrosis
Mitochondrial Leber Hereditary optic neuropathy
X linked recessive Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy

152. INISpharma
IAto
Length
II DOABLE
ate Factual
50Images1

153. PATHOLOGY Recall
INI-CET November 2023

154. Q.Match the following
Gene Cancer
JAK 2 Adenocarcinoma lung
ALK Myeloproliferative Neoplasms
C-KIT Pancreas
K-RAS GIST
V617F
PD

155. Q.Transferrin saturation decrease in
(a) Pernicious anemia
(b) Iron deficiencyanemia
(c) Anemia of chronic disease
(d) Thalassemia

156. Q.Sickle cell as compared tonormal RBC has ?
(a) High osmotic and high mechanical fragility
(b) Both lowmechanical fragility and osmoticfragility
(c) Low mechanical fragility,low osmotic fragility
(d) Low osmotic fragility,high mechanical fragility
S
f
of A
meat Frat
I

157. Q. Which of the following is found in the imagegiven below ?
A. Prostaglandins
B. Interferon gamma
C. Cytochrome 5a
D. Bradykinin
Langhans
I aced
IL2
It12
InS

158. A.Pempighus vulgaris
B.Pempighus folacious
C.Bullus pempighoid
D.IgA mediated
SUPRABasel

159. Supra basal bulla:
pemphigus vulgaris
Subcorneal: Pemphigus foliaceus
Subepidermal (as in bullous
pemphigoid or dermatitis
herpetiformis )
O

160. Which type of image?
A. Direct immunofloroscene
B.Indirectimmunofloroscene
C.Fish-net pattern
1
To

161. Which type of image?
A. Direct immunofloroscene
B.Indirectimmunofloroscene
C.Fish-net pattern
PEMPHIGUS

162. Q. 30 years old female on strict vegetarian diet presented with
fatigue, pallor. Hb = 9gm /dL, MCV = 110fl. Suggest the
diagnosis.
A. IDA
B. Megaloblastic anemia
C. Sideroblasticanemia
D. Sickle cell anemia
O
BezDefa

163. Q.Patient comes with nephrotic syndrome. His creatinine values is
4.25. Which of the following statement is true?
(a) FSGS can’t be diagnosed with biopsy alone
(b) 24 hrobservation after renal biopsy
(c) Amyloidosis-Renal biopsy must be done
(d) If hematuria -then suggestive of hematoma
co
f
e
X

164. Q.In Cystic fibrosis?
A. Increase Cl transport in sweat
B. Increase Cl transport in pancreatic juice
C. Decrease Cl transport in sweat
D.
I Mc salty
SWEAT
I
etpanecé
car
Gigi
8
Swearsue
Pancreas

165. Q. HPV vaccine madefrom
a. L1
b.E2
c.
Recenter
Casanogenesis
EG
P
P53
EA Rb

166. Q.Seminoma markeris?
(a) OCT
(b) PLAP
(c) HCG
(d) NANOG

167. Q. Preservative for light blue vial, aim is glucose estimation?
A. NaF
B. Na citrate
C. K oxalate
D. EDTA
X
T
O

168. O

169. Q. HbsAg :Negative
Anti HbsAntibody:Negative
Anti HbcAntibody :Positive
Anti Hbe:Negative
A. Chronic Hepatitis
B. Acute Hepatitis
C. Vaccinated
D. Window period
X

170. Q. Mendelian Inheritance match the following
Cystic fibrosis
DMD
LHON
Myotonia dystrophica
mens
AD

171. Q
•BreastCancerMolecular ClassificationLuminal A is?
•ER+ Her2 neu –Low Proliferative
•ER+ Her2 neu –High Proliferative
•Her2neu positive
•Triplenegative
O
Mfci
Bestprog
Luminal
Bi
BRCA2
gene
met

172. Basalceta
Cleft
am

173. Q. Protein electrophoresis curve
Nephrotic syndrome ALBUMin6
Globulinsf
a
reinnesopaiggIF's
T
of
test's

174. BESTEST OF LUCK !
Tischer
picf
racesBase

175. PHYSIOLOGY Recall
INI-CET November 2023
Dr Anupama Chowdhry Devgan
[email protected]
Fb:- Dr Anupama s physiology
Insta: Dr Anupama s Physiology

176. Q.Insulin independent absorption occurs in all except:
A. Adipose
B. RBC
C. Pancreas
D. Brain
9

177. Q.The adjoining graph shows the effect of PTH on blood calcium and phosphate
in an experimental animal. How does PTH increase plasma calcium?
A. By increasing osteoclast activity
B. By increasing osteoblastic activity
C. By decreasing renal excretion
D. By increasing osteoclastic activity
and decreasing renal excretion of calcium
9

178. Q. The motor supply of the muscle spindle is which of the following?
A. A alpha neuron
B. A gamma
C. A beta
D. A delta
SENSORYInI
MOTOR AY

179. Q. In the adjoining image of the muscle
fiber action potential, the phase marked B
is due to which of the following?
A.Efflux of potassium
B.Influx of potassium
C.Sodium efflux
D.Calcium influx
A B
FF
TKtEFFLUX
M1,92
nine
Narnian
Nat

181. Q. Phase zero in the adjoining image is
due to which of the following?
A.Calcium influx
B.Sodium influx
C.Potassium influx
A
PEPI
O

182. Q. The graph given below shows the normal FEV1 and FVC curves for a normal lung
and a diseased lung. The abnormal graph represents which of the following?:
A. Bronchiectasis
B. Sarcoidosis
C. Pulmonary fibrosis
D. COPD
d
Ifad
O
FYI
0.70.8
7080
r
ÉE IÉ
to

183. Q.Which of the following is incorrect about baroreceptors?
A. Located in the thick muscle layer
B. Stretch receptors
C. Afferent fibers pass via the glossopharyngeal nerve branch
D. Sensitive to changes in arterial pressure

imminent
Y
Ifm
Ap
STRETCH
FIRINGRATE
d
II

184. Q. Which of the following occur during a cough reflex?
A. Forced expiration against a closed glottis
B. Forced expiration against an open glottis

185. Coughing
"Begins with a deep inspiration followed by forced expiration
against a closed glottis which then suddenly opens producing
an explosive outflow of air with velocities up to 965 km per
hour
Sneezing
"Similar expiratory effort with a continuously open glottis

186. Q. First part of PCT has which of the following transport
proteins? (multiple correct)
A. Sodium potassium pump
B. Na- glucose co-transporter
C. Sodium hydrogen antiport
I

187. Q. 2,3 BPG binds with which of the following?
A. Globin part of myoglobin
B. Globin part of hemoglobin
C. Heme part of myoglobin
D. Heme part of hemoglobin
FIR­E
E
Ex
myHop
A ANEMIA
ALTITUDE
AMAROGENS