Vtu question paper mohammedtamveer karobari

Mohammed Tanveer karobari

1. VTU-ETR Seat No.


Visvesvaraya Technological University, Belagavi

Eligibility Test for Research (VTU-ETR) Programmes

Ph.D./M.S. (Research) May – 2024

Civil Engineering

Time: 3 hrs. Max. Marks: 100


INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

1. Ensure that the question paper booklet issued to you is of your opted discipline.
2. If your name, ETR number, OMR No., branch and branch code are not already printed on
the OMR answer sheet, write them in clear handwriting in the space provided.
3. The question paper has 100 multiple choice questions. Each question carries one mark.
4. All the questions are compulsory.
5. Missing data, if any, may be suitably assumed.
6. There shall be no negative marking for wrong answers.
7. The examinees shall select the response which they want to mark/indicate on the response
sheet and shade/darken/blacken completely the inside area of the corresponding checkbox
bubble of circular or oval shape.
8. Candidates should use black ball point pen to shade the checkbox bubble so that it is fully
dark and the computer can detect without fail. Shading should be limited to the checkbox
bubble only.

9. Shading of multiple checkbox bubbles shall be treated as invalid answer.
10. Partial or incomplete shading/darkening of the bubble be avoided.
11. Use of whiteners/correction fluid to change the shaded/filled checkbox bubble to fill another
is prohibited.
12. Erasing of filled checkbox bubble/s to fill another is prohibited.
13. Any type of writing, scribbling etc., on the question paper and ticking the response of a
question/s are prohibited. Violation of this condition shall lead to disciplinary action like
debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet shall not be considered for
evaluation process.

14. Only non-programmable scientific calculator is permitted. Violation of this condition shall
lead to disciplinary action like debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet
shall not be considered for evaluation process.

15. Folding/crushing/mutilating of OMR sheet is not permitted.
16. Handover the OMR sheet to the Room Invigilator while leaving the examination hall.




Question Paper Version : A

3. PART – I


(Research Methodology)
[50 Marks]


1. Which of the following research is also known as collaborative research?
a) Analytical research b) Applied research
c) Action research d) Descriptive research

2. Cross-sectional surveys are divided into two types, which are?
a) Exploratory and causal b) Functional and Dysfunctional
c) Relational and logical d) Descriptive and analytical

3. What are the main purposes of data analysis?
a) Description b) Construction of Measurement Scale
c) Generating empirical relationships d) Explanation and prediction

4. __________ involve a set of predetermined questions and highly standardized techniques of
recording?
a) Structured interview b) Unstructured interview
c) Interview guided d) All of these

5. Which of the following is a primary step in social science research?
a) Preparing the Research Design b) Developing the Research Hypothesis
c) Formulation of research problem d) Execution of the Project

6. Find an example of probability sampling.
a) Convenience or accidental sampling b) Purposive or judgmental sampling
c) Quota sampling d) Stratified random sampling

7. Which of the following is not a data collection method?
a) Observation b) Schedules
c) Interview d) Research question

8. The term ‘ethno’ refers to
a) Geographical area b) Social life
c) Cultural group d) People or culture

9.

Ogives is also known as?
a) Cumulative frequency curves b) Frequency distributions
c) Transcendental Curve d) All of these

10. Which of the following strategies is used to determine how common, widespread, or pervasive a
certain trait, phenomenon, attitude, or opinion is in a demographic population?
a) Cross-sectional descriptive survey b) Factorial survey method
c) Total survey design d) Pooled surveys

11.

Quantitative research involves conducting research using the following :
a) Feelings and hidden emotions, expectations b) Facts, Numbers and numerical data
c) Humour and gratitude d) Ethics, Accuracy and discipline

Ver-A : CV 1 of 10

4. 12. Which of the following best describes quantitative research?
a) the collection of non-numerical data
b) an attempt to confirm the researcher’s hypotheses
c) exploratory research
d) research that attempts to generate a new theory

13. Which of the following includes examples of quantitative variables?
a) age, temperature, income, height
b) grade point average, anxiety level, reading performance
c) gender, religion, ethnic group
d) both a and b

14. Quantitative research only works if
a) You talk to the right number of people
b) You talk to the right type of people
c) You ask the right question and analyse the data you get in the right way
d) All of the above

15. An image, perception or concept that is capable of measurement is called _______
a) Scale b) Hypothesis c) Type d) Variable

16. Why do you need to review the existing literature?
a) To make sure you have a long list of references
b) Because without it, you could never reach the required word-count
c) To help in your general studying
d) To find out what is already known about your area of interest

17.

To pursue the research, which of the following is priorly required?
a) Developing a research design b) Formulating a research question
c) Deciding about the data analysis procedure d) Formulating a research hypothesis

18. A statement of the quantitative research question should:
a) Extend the statement of purpose by specifying exactly the question (the researcher will
address)
b) Help the research in selecting appropriate participants, research methods, measures and
materials
c) Specify the variables of interest
d) None of the above

19. Concept is of two types
a) Abstract and coherent b) Concrete and coherent
c) Abstract and concrete d) None of these

20. _________ is concerned with discovering and testing certain variables with respect to their
association or disassociation.
a) Exploratory b) Descriptive
c) Diagnostic d) Descriptive and diagnostic

21. In the process of conducting research ‘Formulation of Hypothesis’ is followed by
a) Statement of Objectives b) Analysis of Data
c) Selection of Research Tools d) Collection of Data

Ver-A : CV 2 of 10

5. 22. The data of research is _______
a) Qualitative only b) Quantitative only
c) Neither of them d) Both a and b

23. _______- test is used to prove hypothesis of smaller sample.
a) t b) f c) z d) P

24. _____ tailed test is used when the researcher’s interest is primarily on one side of the issue.
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

25. ______ is a part of the universe that can be used as respondents to survey.
a) Frame b) Sample c) Hypothesis d) Population

26. _______ Hypothesis states that there is no relationship between two or more variables
a) Null b) Alternative c) Negative Page d) Positive

27. _______ research helps to solve practical problems.
a) Qualitative b) Applied c) Basic d) Descriptive

28. The final stage in a survey is
a) Field work b) Assignment c) Calculation d) Reporting

29. ______ mean refers to the value obtained by dividing the sum of the values of all items by the
total
a) number of items b) Arithmetic c) Geometric d) Harmonic

30. _______ is used to analyse differences between group means and the associated procedures
a) ANOVA b) Chi square c) Z-test d) correlation

31. Z test is used to test hypothesis when the sample size is ______
a) more than 30 b) less than 30 c) less than 50 d) none of these

32. The mode of 2, 5, 6, 4, 2, 7, 2, 5 is
a) 5 b) 6 c) 2 d) 7

33. Hypothesis should be ______
a) Any statement b) Empirically testable
c) Not empirically testable d) Can’t say

34. What is the purpose of doing research?
a) To identify problem b) To find the solution
c) Both a and b d) None of these

35. Which ONE of these sampling methods is a probability method?
a) Quota b) Judgment
c) Convenience d) Simple random

36. _______ is the first step of the Research process
a) Formulation of a problem b) Collection of Data
c) Editing and Coding d) Selection of a problem


Ver-A : CV 3 of 10

6. 37. If the critical region is located equally in both sides of the sampling distribution of test statistics,
the test is called
a) One-tailed b) Two-tailed c) Right tailed d) Left tailed

38. The standard deviation is always ______
a) Negative b) Positive c) Sometimes negative d) None of these

39. Mean, Median and Mode are
a) Measures of deviation b) Measures of dispersion
c) Measures of control tendency d) Measures of central tendency

40. A tentative proposition subject to test is
a) Variable b) Hypothesis c) Data d) Concept

41. A Hypothesis that develops while planning the research is
a) Null Hypothesis b) Working Hypothesis
c) Relational Hypothesis d) Descriptive Hypothesis

42. The fullform of APA is ______
a) American Physical Association b) American Psychological Association
c) American Psychological Amendment d) American Psychological Agreement

43. Questions in which only two alternatives are possible is called
a) Dichotomous questions b) Open-ended questions
c) Structured questions d) MCQs

44. Questionnaire is a
a) Research method b) Measurement technique
c) Tool for data collection d) Data analysis technique

45. Which of the following order is recommended in the flowchart of the research process?
a) Formulate Hypothesis, Sampling Design, Process Data, Identify Research Problem
b) Sampling Design, Process Data, Identify Research Problem, Formulate Hypothesis
c) Formulate Hypothesis, Process Data, Identify Research Problem, Sampling Design
d) Identify Research Problem, Formulate Hypothesis, Sampling Design, Process Data

46. If 0 < r < 1 means there is ______
a) Negative correlation b) Positive correlation
c) No correlation d) All of these

47. _______ is a process of checking errors and omissions in data collection.
a) Editing b) Coding c) Tabulation d) None of these

48. _______ is the difference between highest and lowest value in a series of data.
a) Median b) Range c) Mode d) None of these

49. If Ho is true and we reject it is called
a) Type-I error b) Type-II error c) Standard error d) None of these

50 Sending a Questionnaire to a respondent with a request to complete and return by post is called
a) Interview b) Observation c) A Mail Survey d) Panel

Ver-A : CV 4 of 10

7. PART – II
Discipline Oriented Section
(Civil Engineering)

[50 MARKS]


51. Find the vertical and horizontal deflections of the joint G of the truss shown in figure. The
sectional areas of the members are as follows:
Horizontal members : 1500 mm
2
; vertical members : 1800 mm
2
; inclined members : 2500 mm
2
.
Take E = 200 kN/mm
2
.


a) 4.345 mm b) 4.540 mm c) 4.04 mm d) 4.141 mm

52. The cantilever truss shown in figure is subjected to a load system such that the stress in every
compression member is 75 N/mm
2
, while stress in every tension member is 120 N/mm
2
. Find
the horizontal and vertical deflection of the joint E. Take E = 200 kN/mm
2
.


a) 3.850 mm b) 3.375 mm c) 3.105 mm d) 3.950 mm

53. A cantilever of length l is subjected to a couple M0 at a distance l1 from the fixed end. Find the
deflection at the free end.


a) 






2EI
M
110 l
l
l
b) 






1
0
2EI
M
l
ll
c) 





l
ll
2EI
M
110
d) 






2EI
M
110 l
l
ll


54. A two hinged parabolic arch of span 25 m and rise 25 m carries a uniformly distributed load of
40 kN/m over the left half of the span and concentrated load of 100 kN at the crown. Find the
horizontal thrust at each support.

a) 410.16 kN b) 411.24 kN c) 410.89 kN d) 414 kN

Ver-A : CV 5 of 10

8. 55. A three hinged parabolic arch has a span of 45m and rise of 9m. Two loads each 80 kN roll over
the arch. The loads are 3m apart. Find the maximum horizontal thrust.

a) 188.24 kN b) 184.24 kN c) 186.24 kN d) 182.42 kN

56. The critical depth yc is given by

a)
2
1
2
g
q








b)
3
1
2
g
q








c)
3
2
2
g
q








d)
4
1
2
g
q










57. The closure of valve is said to be rapid when the time of closure ‘tc’ is

a)
v
2
t
c
l
 b)
c
2
t
c
l
 c)
c
2
t
c
l
 d)
c
2
t
c
l


58. In dimensional analysis the Buckingham’s -theorem is widely used and expresses the resulting
equation in terms of

a) The repeating variables
b) Geometric, kinematic and dynamic variables
c) (n – m) dimensionless parameters
d) n dimensionless parameters

59. A series of vanes are mounted on a wheel which turns when a fluid jet impinges onto the vane.
Maximum efficiency will occur when the vane peripheral speed equals ______ the jet velocity.

a) one-third b) one-half c) two-third d) four-fifth

60. The specific speed of a centrifugal pump is given by

a)
4/3
H
QN
b)
4/5
H
PN
c)
4/5
H
QN
d)
4/3
Q
HN


61. The super plasticizers are used as admixture for the following purpose:

a) To decrease the cement content
b) To disperse particles, remove air bubbles and to retard setting
c) To disperse particles only
d) To decrease the setting time

62. As per IS-456-2000, the relationship between flexural strength and characteristic strength of
concrete is

a) fck5.0 b) fck7.0
c) fck12.0 d) fck0.1

63. The most commonly used aggregate for the production of light weight concrete.

a) Gneiss b) Marble c) Conglomerate d) Pumice

64. The cement concrete from which entrained air and excess water are removed after placing it in
position is called __________

a) Vacuum concrete b) Light weight concrete
c) Prestressed concrete d) Sawdust concrete

Ver-A : CV 6 of 10

9. 65. Schmidt’s Rebound Hammer Technique is used to measure

a) Tensile strength b) Shrinkage limit
c) Thickness of member d) Surface hardness

66. Study the following statements and identify the correct combinations of statements.
1. The relationship between the compressive stress distribution in concrete and the strain in
concrete may be assumed to be rectangle, trapezoid, parabola or any other shape.
2. The maximum strain in concrete at the outmost compression fibre is taken as 0.002 in bending.
3. The tensile strength of concrete only below NA is ignored.
4. The maximum strain in the tension reinforcement in the section at failure shall not be greater
that 002.0E15.1f
sy  .

a) (1) False (2) True (3) True (4) True
b) (1) False (2) False (3) True (4) True
c) (1) False (2) False (3) False (4) False
d) (1) True (2) False (3) False (4) False

67. The values for partial safety factor for loads D.L. and W.L. to check stability against
overturning are ________ and ____________ respectively.

a) 0.9, 1.2 b) 0.9, 1.5 c) 1.2, 1.2 d) 1.5, 1.5

68. A reinforced concrete beam is subjected to following bending moments.
Moment due to dead load = 50 kN-m
Moment due to live load = 50 kN-m
Moment due to seismic load = 20 kN-m
The design bending moment for limit state of collapse is ___ kN-m.

a) 180 b) 150 c) 120 d) 144

69. The maximum area of tension reinforcement in beams shall not exceed ______ %.

a) 2 b) 4 c) 0.15 d) 1.5

70. The diameter of longitudinal bars of a column should never be less than ____ mm.

a) 6 b) 8 c) 10 d) 12

71. A fine-grained soil has liquid limit 60% and plastic limit 20%. As per Indian standard plasticity
chart, the soil can be represented by symbol

a) CL b) CH c) CL-ML d) CI

72. Quick sand condition occurs when

a) Voids ratio of soil becomes equal to 1.0
b) Upward seepage pressure becomes zero
c) Upward seepage pressure becomes equal to submerged unit weight of soil
d) Upward seepage pressure becomes equal to saturated unit weight of soil

73. A tracer takes 100 days to travel from Well-1 to Well-2 which are 100 m apart. The elevation of
water surface in Well-2 is 3m below that in Well-1. Assuming porosity = 15%, the coefficient
of permeability in m/day is

a) 1.00 b) 3.00 c) 4.00 d) 5.00


Ver-A : CV 7 of 10

10. 74. In compaction of soils, the force responsible for withholding soil particles resulting in lower
density of compaction at lower water content is

a) Vander Waals force b) Electric force
c) Cationic force d) Hydrogen bond

75. Which of the following can be considered as quick clay?

a) Sensitivity = 0 b) Sensitivity = 1 c) Sensitivity = 100 d) Sensitivity = 

76. The improper alignment of road will not result in __________.

a) Increase in construction cost b) Increase in maintenance cost
c) Increase in population d) Increase in accidents

77. Which of the following types of roads are most preferred for highways?

a) Cement concrete roads b) Gravel roads
c) Unpaved roads d) Bituminous roads

78. The most raised portion of the pavement is called ________

a) Super elevation b) Camber c) Crown d) None of these

79. For a good pavement surface, unevenness index should not be greater than _________.

a) 50 cm/km b) 150 cm/km c) 200 cm/km d) 250 cm/km

80. During an aggregate combined index test, one should perform __________

a) Elongation index + Flakiness index b) Flakiness index + Elongation index
c) Angularity number d) None of these

81. Irrigation water is usually applied to the fields, when the available moisture in the root zone of
the crop gets depleted by

a) 0-10% b) 10-25% c) 25-40% d) 50-80%

82. “Duty on capacity” also called

a) Outlet duty b) Capacity factor
c) Full supply coefficient d) Quantity duty

83. A fully modular canal outlet has its

a) Sensitivity = 1 and flexibility = 1 b) Sensitivity = 1 and flexibility = 0
c) Sensitivity = 0 and flexibility = 0 d) Sensitivity = 0 and flexibility = 1

84 In a concrete gravity dam, with a sloping upstream face, the resisting force is provided by

a) weight of dam
b) weight of water supported by upstream slope
c) Both a and b
d) None of these

85. The blanket in earth dam is provided

a) at the ground level on U/S side b) at the ground level on D/S side
c) at the ground level of the U/S and D/S d) On the D/S slope

Ver-A : CV 8 of 10

11. 86. An ISMB 400 section with radius of gyration in X-X direction as 161.5 mm and in Y-Y
direction as 28.2 mm is used as a column with both ends fixed. Length of column is 4m. The
slenderness ration in Y-Y direction is

a) 141.84 b) 113.47 c) 92.2 d) 54.6

87. An ISLB 350 is used as a laterally restrained beam for a span of 3m. It is classified as plastic
section. Elastic section modulus is 751.9  10
3
mm
3
and plastic section modulus is
851.1  10
3
mm
3
. The design strength of beam is

a) 212.77 kNm b) 193.43 kNm c) 187.75 kNm d) 170.68 kNm

88. Maximum value of effective slenderness ratio for a member carrying compressive loads
resulting from dead loads and imposed loads is ________

a) 180 b) 250 c) 300 d) 350

89. The axial load on a built up column is 400 kN. The lacing system is to be designed for a
transverse shear of

a) 20 kN b) 40 kN c) 5 kN d) 10 kN

90. In the design of beams in steel structure, which of the following is false?

a) Shear is resisted by flanges
b) Moment is resisted by flanges
c) Shear is resisted by web
d) Deflection is resisted by moment of inertia

91. A water treatment plant is designed to treat 1 m
3
/s of raw water. It has 14 sand fillers. Surface
area of each filter is 50 m
2
. What is the loading rate in (m
3
/daym
2
) with two filters out of service
for routine backwashing?

a) 1.67  10
-3
m
3
/day/m
2
b) 1.42  10
-3
m
3
/day/m
2

c) 144 m
3
/day/m
2
d) 123 m
3
/day/m
2


92. A circular primary clarifier processes an average flow 5005 m
3
/d of municipal wastewater. The
overflow rate is 35 m
3
/m
2
day. The diameter of clarifier shall be

a) 10.5 m b) 11.5 m c) 12.5 m d) 13.5 m

93. Crown corrosion in a reinforced concrete sewer is caused by

a) H2S b) CO2 c) CH4 d) NH3

94.

The wastewater from a city, containing a high concentration of biodegradable organics, is being
steadily discharged into the flowing river at a location S. If the rate of aeration of water is lower
than the rate of degradation of the organics then the dissolved oxygen of river water.

a) Is lowest at the location S
b) Is lowest at a point upstream of the location S
c) Remains constant all along the length of the river
d) Is lowest at a point downstream of the location S

95. Zero hardness of water is achieved by

a) Lime Soda process b) Excess lime treatment
c) Ion exchange treatment d) Excess alum and lime treatment

Ver-A : CV 9 of 10

12. 96. A quadrantal bearing corresponding to the whole circle bearing 32724 is

a) W 5724 N b) N 3236 W
c) S 14724 N d) N 5724 W

97. The following notes refer to reciprocal levels taken with one level:
Instrument at Staff reading on
P Q
P 1.825 2.745
Q 0.925 1.605
If R.L of P = 126.385, then the true R.L of Q is

a) 125.985 m b) 2.530 m c) 125.585 m d) 2.430 m

98. A series of offsets were taken from a chain link to a curved boundary line at intervals of
15 meters in the following order: 0, 2.65, 3.80, 3.75, 4.65, 3.60, 4.95, 5.85 m. The area
between the chain line, the curved boundary and the end offsets by trapezoidal rule is

a) 394.87 m
2
b) 383.91 m
2
c) 390.25 m
2
d) 379.62 m
2


99. A road embankment 12 m wide at the formation level, with side slopes of 2 to 1 and with an
average height of 5m is constructed with an average quadrant 1 in 50 from contour 200 meters
to 300 meters. The volume of embankment is

a) 55000 m
3
b) 500000 m
3
c) 50000 m
3
d) 550000 m
3


100.The line joining (straight) point of curve to point of tangency is called as

a) Long Chord b) Sub Chord
c) Normal Chord d) Tangent distance


* * * * *





















Ver-A : CV 10 of 10

13. VTU-ETR Seat No.


Visvesvaraya Technological University, Belagavi

Eligibility Test for Research (VTU-ETR) Programmes

Ph.D./M.S. (Research) May – 2024

Civil Engineering


Time: 3 hrs. Max. Marks: 100


INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

1. Ensure that the question paper booklet issued to you is of your opted discipline.
2. If your name, ETR number, OMR No., branch and branch code are not already printed on
the OMR answer sheet, write them in clear handwriting in the space provided.
3. The question paper has 100 multiple choice questions. Each question carries one mark.
4. All the questions are compulsory.
5. Missing data, if any, may be suitably assumed.
6. There shall be no negative marking for wrong answers.
7. The examinees shall select the response which they want to mark/indicate on the response
sheet and shade/darken/blacken completely the inside area of the corresponding checkbox
bubble of circular or oval shape.
8. Candidates should use black ball point pen to shade the checkbox bubble so that it is fully
dark and the computer can detect without fail. Shading should be limited to the checkbox
bubble only.

9. Shading of multiple checkbox bubbles shall be treated as invalid answer.
10. Partial or incomplete shading/darkening of the bubble be avoided.
11. Use of whiteners/correction fluid to change the shaded/filled checkbox bubble to fill another
is prohibited.
12. Erasing of filled checkbox bubble/s to fill another is prohibited.
13. Any type of writing, scribbling etc., on the question paper and ticking the response of a
question/s are prohibited. Violation of this condition shall lead to disciplinary action like
debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet shall not be considered for
evaluation process.

14. Only non-programmable scientific calculator is permitted. Violation of this condition shall
lead to disciplinary action like debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet
shall not be considered for evaluation process.

15. Folding/crushing/mutilating of OMR sheet is not permitted.
16. Handover the OMR sheet to the Room Invigilator while leaving the examination hall.


Question Paper Version : B

15. PART – I


(Research Methodology)
[50 Marks]


1. A Hypothesis that develops while planning the research is
a) Null Hypothesis b) Working Hypothesis
c) Relational Hypothesis d) Descriptive Hypothesis

2. The fullform of APA is ______
a) American Physical Association b) American Psychological Association
c) American Psychological Amendment d) American Psychological Agreement

3. Questions in which only two alternatives are possible is called
a) Dichotomous questions b) Open-ended questions
c) Structured questions d) MCQs

4. Questionnaire is a
a) Research method b) Measurement technique
c) Tool for data collection d) Data analysis technique

5. Which of the following order is recommended in the flowchart of the research process?
a) Formulate Hypothesis, Sampling Design, Process Data, Identify Research Problem
b) Sampling Design, Process Data, Identify Research Problem, Formulate Hypothesis
c) Formulate Hypothesis, Process Data, Identify Research Problem, Sampling Design
d) Identify Research Problem, Formulate Hypothesis, Sampling Design, Process Data

6. If 0 < r < 1 means there is ______
a) Negative correlation b) Positive correlation
c) No correlation d) All of these

7. _______ is a process of checking errors and omissions in data collection.
a) Editing b) Coding c) Tabulation d) None of these

8. _______ is the difference between highest and lowest value in a series of data.
a) Median b) Range c) Mode d) None of these

9.

If Ho is true and we reject it is called
a) Type-I error b) Type-II error c) Standard error d) None of these

10. Sending a Questionnaire to a respondent with a request to complete and return by post is called
a) Interview b) Observation c) A Mail Survey d) Panel

11.

Z test is used to test hypothesis when the sample size is ______
a) more than 30 b) less than 30 c) less than 50 d) none of these

12. The mode of 2, 5, 6, 4, 2, 7, 2, 5 is
a) 5 b) 6 c) 2 d) 7


Ver-B : CV 1 of 10

16. 13. Hypothesis should be ______
a) Any statement b) Empirically testable c) Not empirically testable d) Can’t say

14. What is the purpose of doing research?
a) To identify problem b) To find the solution
c) Both a and b d) None of these

15. Which ONE of these sampling methods is a probability method?
a) Quota b) Judgment
c) Convenience d) Simple random

16. _______ is the first step of the Research process
a) Formulation of a problem b) Collection of Data
c) Editing and Coding d) Selection of a problem

17.

If the critical region is located equally in both sides of the sampling distribution of test statistics,
the test is called
a) One-tailed b) Two-tailed c) Right tailed d) Left tailed

18. The standard deviation is always ______
a) Negative b) Positive c) Sometimes negative d) None of these

19. Mean, Median and Mode are
a) Measures of deviation b) Measures of dispersion
c) Measures of control tendency d) Measures of central tendency

20. A tentative proposition subject to test is
a) Variable b) Hypothesis c) Data d) Concept

21. Quantitative research involves conducting research using the following :
a) Feelings and hidden emotions, expectations b) Facts, Numbers and numerical data
c) Humour and gratitude d) Ethics, Accuracy and discipline

22. Which of the following best describes quantitative research?
a) the collection of non-numerical data
b) an attempt to confirm the researcher’s hypotheses
c) exploratory research
d) research that attempts to generate a new theory

23. Which of the following includes examples of quantitative variables?
a) age, temperature, income, height
b) grade point average, anxiety level, reading performance
c) gender, religion, ethnic group
d) both a and b

24. Quantitative research only works if
a) You talk to the right number of people
b) You talk to the right type of people
c) You ask the right question and analyse the data you get in the right way
d) All of the above

25. An image, perception or concept that is capable of measurement is called _______
a) Scale b) Hypothesis c) Type d) Variable

Ver-B : CV 2 of 10

17. 26. Why do you need to review the existing literature?
a) To make sure you have a long list of references
b) Because without it, you could never reach the required word-count
c) To help in your general studying
d) To find out what is already known about your area of interest

27. To pursue the research, which of the following is priorly required?
a) Developing a research design b) Formulating a research question
c) Deciding about the data analysis procedure d) Formulating a research hypothesis

28. A statement of the quantitative research question should:
a) Extend the statement of purpose by specifying exactly the question (the researcher will
address)
b) Help the research in selecting appropriate participants, research methods, measures and
materials
c) Specify the variables of interest
d) None of the above

29. Concept is of two types
a) Abstract and coherent b) Concrete and coherent
c) Abstract and concrete d) None of these

30. _________ is concerned with discovering and testing certain variables with respect to their
association or disassociation.
a) Exploratory b) Descriptive
c) Diagnostic d) Descriptive and diagnostic

31. Which of the following research is also known as collaborative research?
a) Analytical research b) Applied research
c) Action research d) Descriptive research

32. Cross-sectional surveys are divided into two types, which are?
a) Exploratory and causal b) Functional and Dysfunctional
c) Relational and logical d) Descriptive and analytical

33. What are the main purposes of data analysis?
a) Description b) Construction of Measurement Scale
c) Generating empirical relationships d) Explanation and prediction

34. __________ involve a set of predetermined questions and highly standardized techniques of
recording?
a) Structured interview b) Unstructured interview
c) Interview guided d) All of these

35. Which of the following is a primary step in social science research?
a) Preparing the Research Design b) Developing the Research Hypothesis
c) Formulation of research problem d) Execution of the Project

36. Find an example of probability sampling.
a) Convenience or accidental sampling b) Purposive or judgmental sampling
c) Quota sampling d) Stratified random sampling

Ver-B : CV 3 of 10

18. 37. Which of the following is not a data collection method?
a) Observation b) Schedules
c) Interview d) Research question

38. The term ‘ethno’ refers to
a) Geographical area b) Social life
c) Cultural group d) People or culture

39. Ogives is also known as?
a) Cumulative frequency curves b) Frequency distributions
c) Transcendental Curve d) All of these

40. Which of the following strategies is used to determine how common, widespread, or pervasive a
certain trait, phenomenon, attitude, or opinion is in a demographic population?
a) Cross-sectional descriptive survey b) Factorial survey method
c) Total survey design d) Pooled surveys

41. In the process of conducting research ‘Formulation of Hypothesis’ is followed by
a) Statement of Objectives b) Analysis of Data
c) Selection of Research Tools d) Collection of Data

42. The data of research is _______
a) Qualitative only b) Quantitative only c) Neither of them d) Both a and b

43. _______- test is used to prove hypothesis of smaller sample.
a) t b) f c) z d) P

44. _____ tailed test is used when the researcher’s interest is primarily on one side of the issue.
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

45. ______ is a part of the universe that can be used as respondents to survey.
a) Frame b) Sample c) Hypothesis d) Population

46. _______ Hypothesis states that there is no relationship between two or more variables
a) Null b) Alternative c) Negative Page d) Positive

47. _______ research helps to solve practical problems.
a) Qualitative b) Applied c) Basic d) Descriptive

48. The final stage in a survey is
a) Field work b) Assignment c) Calculation d) Reporting

49. ______ mean refers to the value obtained by dividing the sum of the values of all items by the
total
a) number of items b) Arithmetic c) Geometric d) Harmonic

50 _______ is used to analyse differences between group means and the associated procedures
a) ANOVA b) Chi square c) Z-test d) correlation


Ver-B : CV 4 of 10

19. PART – II
Discipline Oriented Section
(Civil Engineering)

[50 MARKS]


51. A water treatment plant is designed to treat 1 m
3
/s of raw water. It has 14 sand fillers. Surface
area of each filter is 50 m
2
. What is the loading rate in (m
3
/daym
2
) with two filters out of service
for routine backwashing?

a) 1.67  10
-3
m
3
/day/m
2
b) 1.42  10
-3
m
3
/day/m
2

c) 144 m
3
/day/m
2
d) 123 m
3
/day/m
2


52. A circular primary clarifier processes an average flow 5005 m
3
/d of municipal wastewater. The
overflow rate is 35 m
3
/m
2
day. The diameter of clarifier shall be

a) 10.5 m b) 11.5 m c) 12.5 m d) 13.5 m

53. Crown corrosion in a reinforced concrete sewer is caused by

a) H2S b) CO2 c) CH4 d) NH3

54. The wastewater from a city, containing a high concentration of biodegradable organics, is being
steadily discharged into the flowing river at a location S. If the rate of aeration of water is lower
than the rate of degradation of the organics then the dissolved oxygen of river water.

a) Is lowest at the location S
b) Is lowest at a point upstream of the location S
c) Remains constant all along the length of the river
d) Is lowest at a point downstream of the location S

55. Zero hardness of water is achieved by

a) Lime Soda process b) Excess lime treatment
c) Ion exchange treatment d) Excess alum and lime treatment

56. A quadrantal bearing corresponding to the whole circle bearing 32724 is

a) W 5724 N b) N 3236 W
c) S 14724 N d) N 5724 W

57. The following notes refer to reciprocal levels taken with one level:
Instrument at Staff reading on
P Q
P 1.825 2.745
Q 0.925 1.605
If R.L of P = 126.385, then the true R.L of Q is

a) 125.985 m b) 2.530 m c) 125.585 m d) 2.430 m

58. A series of offsets were taken from a chain link to a curved boundary line at intervals of
15 meters in the following order: 0, 2.65, 3.80, 3.75, 4.65, 3.60, 4.95, 5.85 m. The area
between the chain line, the curved boundary and the end offsets by trapezoidal rule is

a) 394.87 m
2
b) 383.91 m
2
c) 390.25 m
2
d) 379.62 m
2


Ver-B : CV 5 of 10

20. 59. A road embankment 12 m wide at the formation level, with side slopes of 2 to 1 and with an
average height of 5m is constructed with an average quadrant 1 in 50 from contour 200 meters
to 300 meters. The volume of embankment is

a) 55000 m
3
b) 500000 m
3
c) 50000 m
3
d) 550000 m
3


60. The line joining (straight) point of curve to point of tangency is called as

a) Long Chord b) Sub Chord
c) Normal Chord d) Tangent distance

61. Irrigation water is usually applied to the fields, when the available moisture in the root zone of
the crop gets depleted by

a) 0-10% b) 10-25% c) 25-40% d) 50-80%

62. “Duty on capacity” also called

a) Outlet duty b) Capacity factor
c) Full supply coefficient d) Quantity duty

63. A fully modular canal outlet has its

a) Sensitivity = 1 and flexibility = 1 b) Sensitivity = 1 and flexibility = 0
c) Sensitivity = 0 and flexibility = 0 d) Sensitivity = 0 and flexibility = 1

64. In a concrete gravity dam, with a sloping upstream face, the resisting force is provided by

a) weight of dam
b) weight of water supported by upstream slope
c) Both a and b
d) None of these

65. The blanket in earth dam is provided

a) at the ground level on U/S side b) at the ground level on D/S side
c) at the ground level of the U/S and D/S d) On the D/S slope

66. An ISMB 400 section with radius of gyration in X-X direction as 161.5 mm and in Y-Y
direction as 28.2 mm is used as a column with both ends fixed. Length of column is 4m. The
slenderness ration in Y-Y direction is

a) 141.84 b) 113.47 c) 92.2 d) 54.6

67. An ISLB 350 is used as a laterally restrained beam for a span of 3m. It is classified as plastic
section. Elastic section modulus is 751.9  10
3
mm
3
and plastic section modulus is
851.1  10
3
mm
3
. The design strength of beam is

a) 212.77 kNm b) 193.43 kNm c) 187.75 kNm d) 170.68 kNm

68. Maximum value of effective slenderness ratio for a member carrying compressive loads
resulting from dead loads and imposed loads is ________

a) 180 b) 250 c) 300 d) 350

69. The axial load on a built up column is 400 kN. The lacing system is to be designed for a
transverse shear of

a) 20 kN b) 40 kN c) 5 kN d) 10 kN

Ver-B : CV 6 of 10

21. 70. In the design of beams in steel structure, which of the following is false?

a) Shear is resisted by flanges
b) Moment is resisted by flanges
c) Shear is resisted by web
d) Deflection is resisted by moment of inertia

71. The super plasticizers are used as admixture for the following purpose:

a) To decrease the cement content
b) To disperse particles, remove air bubbles and to retard setting
c) To disperse particles only
d) To decrease the setting time

72. As per IS-456-2000, the relationship between flexural strength and characteristic strength of
concrete is

a) fck5.0 b) fck7.0 c) fck12.0 d) fck0.1

73. The most commonly used aggregate for the production of light weight concrete.

a) Gneiss b) Marble c) Conglomerate d) Pumice

74. The cement concrete from which entrained air and excess water are removed after placing it in
position is called __________

a) Vacuum concrete b) Light weight concrete
c) Prestressed concrete d) Sawdust concrete

75. Schmidt’s Rebound Hammer Technique is used to measure

a) Tensile strength b) Shrinkage limit
c) Thickness of member d) Surface hardness

76. Study the following statements and identify the correct combinations of statements.
1. The relationship between the compressive stress distribution in concrete and the strain in
concrete may be assumed to be rectangle, trapezoid, parabola or any other shape.
2. The maximum strain in concrete at the outmost compression fibre is taken as 0.002 in bending.
3. The tensile strength of concrete only below NA is ignored.
4. The maximum strain in the tension reinforcement in the section at failure shall not be greater
that 002.0E15.1f
sy  .

a) (1) False (2) True (3) True (4) True
b) (1) False (2) False (3) True (4) True
c) (1) False (2) False (3) False (4) False
d) (1) True (2) False (3) False (4) False

77. The values for partial safety factor for loads D.L. and W.L. to check stability against
overturning are ________ and ____________ respectively.

a) 0.9, 1.2 b) 0.9, 1.5 c) 1.2, 1.2 d) 1.5, 1.5

78. A reinforced concrete beam is subjected to following bending moments.
Moment due to dead load = 50 kN-m
Moment due to live load = 50 kN-m
Moment due to seismic load = 20 kN-m
The design bending moment for limit state of collapse is ___ kN-m.

a) 180 b) 150 c) 120 d) 144

Ver-B : CV 7 of 10

22. 79. The maximum area of tension reinforcement in beams shall not exceed ______ %.

a) 2 b) 4 c) 0.15 d) 1.5

80. The diameter of longitudinal bars of a column should never be less than ____ mm.

a) 6 b) 8 c) 10 d) 12

81. Find the vertical and horizontal deflections of the joint G of the truss shown in figure. The
sectional areas of the members are as follows:
Horizontal members : 1500 mm
2
; vertical members : 1800 mm
2
; inclined members : 2500 mm
2
.
Take E = 200 kN/mm
2
.


a) 4.345 mm b) 4.540 mm c) 4.04 mm d) 4.141 mm

82. The cantilever truss shown in figure is subjected to a load system such that the stress in every
compression member is 75 N/mm
2
, while stress in every tension member is 120 N/mm
2
. Find
the horizontal and vertical deflection of the joint E. Take E = 200 kN/mm
2
.


a) 3.850 mm b) 3.375 mm c) 3.105 mm d) 3.950 mm

83. A cantilever of length l is subjected to a couple M0 at a distance l1 from the fixed end. Find the
deflection at the free end.


a) 






2EI
M
110 l
l
l
b) 






1
0
2EI
M
l
ll
c) 





l
ll
2EI
M
110
d) 






2EI
M
110 l
l
ll


84 A two hinged parabolic arch of span 25 m and rise 25 m carries a uniformly distributed load of
40 kN/m over the left half of the span and concentrated load of 100 kN at the crown. Find the
horizontal thrust at each support.

a) 410.16 kN b) 411.24 kN c) 410.89 kN d) 414 kN

Ver-B : CV 8 of 10

23. 85. A three hinged parabolic arch has a span of 45m and rise of 9m. Two loads each 80 kN roll over
the arch. The loads are 3m apart. Find the maximum horizontal thrust.

a) 188.24 kN b) 184.24 kN c) 186.24 kN d) 182.42 kN

86. The critical depth yc is given by

a)
2
1
2
g
q








b)
3
1
2
g
q








c)
3
2
2
g
q








d)
4
1
2
g
q










87. The closure of valve is said to be rapid when the time of closure ‘tc’ is

a)
v
2
t
c
l
 b)
c
2
t
c
l
 c)
c
2
t
c
l
 d)
c
2
t
c
l


88. In dimensional analysis the Buckingham’s -theorem is widely used and expresses the resulting
equation in terms of

a) The repeating variables
b) Geometric, kinematic and dynamic variables
c) (n – m) dimensionless parameters
d) n dimensionless parameters

89. A series of vanes are mounted on a wheel which turns when a fluid jet impinges onto the vane.
Maximum efficiency will occur when the vane peripheral speed equals ______ the jet velocity.

a) one-third b) one-half c) two-third d) four-fifth

90. The specific speed of a centrifugal pump is given by

a)
4/3
H
QN
b)
4/5
H
PN
c)
4/5
H
QN
d)
4/3
Q
HN


91. A fine-grained soil has liquid limit 60% and plastic limit 20%. As per Indian standard plasticity
chart, the soil can be represented by symbol

a) CL b) CH c) CL-ML d) CI

92. Quick sand condition occurs when

a) Voids ratio of soil becomes equal to 1.0
b) Upward seepage pressure becomes zero
c) Upward seepage pressure becomes equal to submerged unit weight of soil
d) Upward seepage pressure becomes equal to saturated unit weight of soil

93. A tracer takes 100 days to travel from Well-1 to Well-2 which are 100 m apart. The elevation of
water surface in Well-2 is 3m below that in Well-1. Assuming porosity = 15%, the coefficient
of permeability in m/day is

a) 1.00 b) 3.00 c) 4.00 d) 5.00

94.

In compaction of soils, the force responsible for withholding soil particles resulting in lower
density of compaction at lower water content is

a) Vander Waals force b) Electric force
c) Cationic force d) Hydrogen bond

Ver-B : CV 9 of 10

24. 95. Which of the following can be considered as quick clay?

a) Sensitivity = 0 b) Sensitivity = 1 c) Sensitivity = 100 d) Sensitivity = 

96. The improper alignment of road will not result in __________.

a) Increase in construction cost b) Increase in maintenance cost
c) Increase in population d) Increase in accidents

97. Which of the following types of roads are most preferred for highways?

a) Cement concrete roads b) Gravel roads
c) Unpaved roads d) Bituminous roads

98. The most raised portion of the pavement is called ________

a) Super elevation b) Camber c) Crown d) None of these

99. For a good pavement surface, unevenness index should not be greater than _________.

a) 50 cm/km b) 150 cm/km c) 200 cm/km d) 250 cm/km

100.During an aggregate combined index test, one should perform __________

a) Elongation index + Flakiness index b) Flakiness index + Elongation index
c) Angularity number d) None of these


* * * * *
































Ver-B : CV 10 of 10

25. VTU-ETR Seat No.


Visvesvaraya Technological University, Belagavi

Eligibility Test for Research (VTU-ETR) Programmes

Ph.D./M.S. (Research) May – 2024

Civil Engineering

Time: 3 hrs. Max. Marks: 100


INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

1. Ensure that the question paper booklet issued to you is of your opted discipline.
2. If your name, ETR number, OMR No., branch and branch code are not already printed on
the OMR answer sheet, write them in clear handwriting in the space provided.
3. The question paper has 100 multiple choice questions. Each question carries one mark.
4. All the questions are compulsory.
5. Missing data, if any, may be suitably assumed.
6. There shall be no negative marking for wrong answers.
7. The examinees shall select the response which they want to mark/indicate on the response
sheet and shade/darken/blacken completely the inside area of the corresponding checkbox
bubble of circular or oval shape.
8. Candidates should use black ball point pen to shade the checkbox bubble so that it is fully
dark and the computer can detect without fail. Shading should be limited to the checkbox
bubble only.

9. Shading of multiple checkbox bubbles shall be treated as invalid answer.
10. Partial or incomplete shading/darkening of the bubble be avoided.
11. Use of whiteners/correction fluid to change the shaded/filled checkbox bubble to fill another
is prohibited.
12. Erasing of filled checkbox bubble/s to fill another is prohibited.
13. Any type of writing, scribbling etc., on the question paper and ticking the response of a
question/s are prohibited. Violation of this condition shall lead to disciplinary action like
debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet shall not be considered for
evaluation process.

14. Only non-programmable scientific calculator is permitted. Violation of this condition shall
lead to disciplinary action like debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet
shall not be considered for evaluation process.

15. Folding/crushing/mutilating of OMR sheet is not permitted.
16. Handover the OMR sheet to the Room Invigilator while leaving the examination hall.




Question Paper Version : C

27. PART – I


(Research Methodology)
[50 Marks]


1. Z test is used to test hypothesis when the sample size is ______
a) more than 30 b) less than 30
c) less than 50 d) none of these

2. The mode of 2, 5, 6, 4, 2, 7, 2, 5 is
a) 5 b) 6 c) 2 d) 7

3. Hypothesis should be ______
a) Any statement b) Empirically testable
c) Not empirically testable d) Can’t say

4. What is the purpose of doing research?
a) To identify problem b) To find the solution
c) Both a and b d) None of these

5. Which ONE of these sampling methods is a probability method?
a) Quota b) Judgment
c) Convenience d) Simple random

6. _______ is the first step of the Research process
a) Formulation of a problem b) Collection of Data
c) Editing and Coding d) Selection of a problem

7. If the critical region is located equally in both sides of the sampling distribution of test statistics,
the test is called
a) One-tailed b) Two-tailed c) Right tailed d) Left tailed

8. The standard deviation is always ______
a) Negative b) Positive c) Sometimes negative d) None of these

9.

Mean, Median and Mode are
a) Measures of deviation b) Measures of dispersion
c) Measures of control tendency d) Measures of central tendency

10. A tentative proposition subject to test is
a) Variable b) Hypothesis c) Data d) Concept

11.

Which of the following research is also known as collaborative research?
a) Analytical research b) Applied research
c) Action research d) Descriptive research

12. Cross-sectional surveys are divided into two types, which are?
a) Exploratory and causal b) Functional and Dysfunctional
c) Relational and logical d) Descriptive and analytical

Ver-C : CV 1 of 10

28. 13. What are the main purposes of data analysis?
a) Description b) Construction of Measurement Scale
c) Generating empirical relationships d) Explanation and prediction

14. __________ involve a set of predetermined questions and highly standardized techniques of
recording?
a) Structured interview b) Unstructured interview
c) Interview guided d) All of these

15. Which of the following is a primary step in social science research?
a) Preparing the Research Design b) Developing the Research Hypothesis
c) Formulation of research problem d) Execution of the Project

16. Find an example of probability sampling.
a) Convenience or accidental sampling b) Purposive or judgmental sampling
c) Quota sampling d) Stratified random sampling

17.

Which of the following is not a data collection method?
a) Observation b) Schedules
c) Interview d) Research question

18. The term ‘ethno’ refers to
a) Geographical area b) Social life
c) Cultural group d) People or culture

19. Ogives is also known as?
a) Cumulative frequency curves b) Frequency distributions
c) Transcendental Curve d) All of these

20. Which of the following strategies is used to determine how common, widespread, or pervasive a
certain trait, phenomenon, attitude, or opinion is in a demographic population?
a) Cross-sectional descriptive survey b) Factorial survey method
c) Total survey design d) Pooled surveys

21. A Hypothesis that develops while planning the research is
a) Null Hypothesis b) Working Hypothesis
c) Relational Hypothesis d) Descriptive Hypothesis

22. The fullform of APA is ______
a) American Physical Association
b) American Psychological Association
c) American Psychological Amendment
d) American Psychological Agreement

23. Questions in which only two alternatives are possible is called
a) Dichotomous questions b) Open-ended questions
c) Structured questions d) MCQs

24. Questionnaire is a
a) Research method b) Measurement technique
c) Tool for data collection d) Data analysis technique


Ver-C : CV 2 of 10

29. 25. Which of the following order is recommended in the flowchart of the research process?
a) Formulate Hypothesis, Sampling Design, Process Data, Identify Research Problem
b) Sampling Design, Process Data, Identify Research Problem, Formulate Hypothesis
c) Formulate Hypothesis, Process Data, Identify Research Problem, Sampling Design
d) Identify Research Problem, Formulate Hypothesis, Sampling Design, Process Data

26. If 0 < r < 1 means there is ______
a) Negative correlation b) Positive correlation
c) No correlation d) All of these

27. _______ is a process of checking errors and omissions in data collection.
a) Editing b) Coding c) Tabulation d) None of these

28. _______ is the difference between highest and lowest value in a series of data.
a) Median b) Range c) Mode d) None of these

29. If Ho is true and we reject it is called
a) Type-I error b) Type-II error c) Standard error d) None of these

30. Sending a Questionnaire to a respondent with a request to complete and return by post is called
a) Interview b) Observation c) A Mail Survey d) Panel

31. In the process of conducting research ‘Formulation of Hypothesis’ is followed by
a) Statement of Objectives b) Analysis of Data
c) Selection of Research Tools d) Collection of Data

32. The data of research is _______
a) Qualitative only b) Quantitative only c) Neither of them d) Both a and b

33. _______- test is used to prove hypothesis of smaller sample.
a) t b) f c) z d) P

34. _____ tailed test is used when the researcher’s interest is primarily on one side of the issue.
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

35. ______ is a part of the universe that can be used as respondents to survey.
a) Frame b) Sample c) Hypothesis d) Population

36. _______ Hypothesis states that there is no relationship between two or more variables
a) Null b) Alternative c) Negative Page d) Positive

37. _______ research helps to solve practical problems.
a) Qualitative b) Applied c) Basic d) Descriptive

38. The final stage in a survey is
a) Field work b) Assignment c) Calculation d) Reporting

39. ______ mean refers to the value obtained by dividing the sum of the values of all items by the
total
a) number of items b) Arithmetic c) Geometric d) Harmonic

40. _______ is used to analyse differences between group means and the associated procedures
a) ANOVA b) Chi square c) Z-test d) correlation

Ver-C : CV 3 of 10

30. 41. Quantitative research involves conducting research using the following :
a) Feelings and hidden emotions, expectations b) Facts, Numbers and numerical data
c) Humour and gratitude d) Ethics, Accuracy and discipline

42. Which of the following best describes quantitative research?
a) the collection of non-numerical data
b) an attempt to confirm the researcher’s hypotheses
c) exploratory research
d) research that attempts to generate a new theory

43. Which of the following includes examples of quantitative variables?
a) age, temperature, income, height
b) grade point average, anxiety level, reading performance
c) gender, religion, ethnic group
d) both a and b

44. Quantitative research only works if
a) You talk to the right number of people
b) You talk to the right type of people
c) You ask the right question and analyse the data you get in the right way
d) All of the above

45. An image, perception or concept that is capable of measurement is called _______
a) Scale b) Hypothesis c) Type d) Variable

46. Why do you need to review the existing literature?
a) To make sure you have a long list of references
b) Because without it, you could never reach the required word-count
c) To help in your general studying
d) To find out what is already known about your area of interest

47. To pursue the research, which of the following is priorly required?
a) Developing a research design b) Formulating a research question
c) Deciding about the data analysis procedure d) Formulating a research hypothesis

48. A statement of the quantitative research question should:
a) Extend the statement of purpose by specifying exactly the question (the researcher will
address)
b) Help the research in selecting appropriate participants, research methods, measures and
materials
c) Specify the variables of interest
d) None of the above

49. Concept is of two types
a) Abstract and coherent b) Concrete and coherent
c) Abstract and concrete d) None of these

50 _________ is concerned with discovering and testing certain variables with respect to their
association or disassociation.
a) Exploratory b) Descriptive
c) Diagnostic d) Descriptive and diagnostic

Ver-C : CV 4 of 10

31. PART – II
Discipline Oriented Section
(Civil Engineering)

[50 MARKS]


51. A fine-grained soil has liquid limit 60% and plastic limit 20%. As per Indian standard plasticity
chart, the soil can be represented by symbol

a) CL b) CH c) CL-ML d) CI

52. Quick sand condition occurs when

a) Voids ratio of soil becomes equal to 1.0
b) Upward seepage pressure becomes zero
c) Upward seepage pressure becomes equal to submerged unit weight of soil
d) Upward seepage pressure becomes equal to saturated unit weight of soil

53. A tracer takes 100 days to travel from Well-1 to Well-2 which are 100 m apart. The elevation of
water surface in Well-2 is 3m below that in Well-1. Assuming porosity = 15%, the coefficient
of permeability in m/day is

a) 1.00 b) 3.00 c) 4.00 d) 5.00

54. In compaction of soils, the force responsible for withholding soil particles resulting in lower
density of compaction at lower water content is

a) Vander Waals force b) Electric force
c) Cationic force d) Hydrogen bond

55. Which of the following can be considered as quick clay?

a) Sensitivity = 0 b) Sensitivity = 1 c) Sensitivity = 100 d) Sensitivity = 

56. The improper alignment of road will not result in __________.

a) Increase in construction cost b) Increase in maintenance cost
c) Increase in population d) Increase in accidents

57. Which of the following types of roads are most preferred for highways?

a) Cement concrete roads b) Gravel roads
c) Unpaved roads d) Bituminous roads

58. The most raised portion of the pavement is called ________

a) Super elevation b) Camber c) Crown d) None of these

59. For a good pavement surface, unevenness index should not be greater than _________.

a) 50 cm/km b) 150 cm/km c) 200 cm/km d) 250 cm/km

60. During an aggregate combined index test, one should perform __________

a) Elongation index + Flakiness index
b) Flakiness index + Elongation index
c) Angularity number
d) None of these
Ver-C : CV 5 of 10

32. 61. A water treatment plant is designed to treat 1 m
3
/s of raw water. It has 14 sand fillers. Surface
area of each filter is 50 m
2
. What is the loading rate in (m
3
/daym
2
) with two filters out of service
for routine backwashing?

a) 1.67  10
-3
m
3
/day/m
2
b) 1.42  10
-3
m
3
/day/m
2

c) 144 m
3
/day/m
2
d) 123 m
3
/day/m
2


62. A circular primary clarifier processes an average flow 5005 m
3
/d of municipal wastewater. The
overflow rate is 35 m
3
/m
2
day. The diameter of clarifier shall be

a) 10.5 m b) 11.5 m c) 12.5 m d) 13.5 m

63. Crown corrosion in a reinforced concrete sewer is caused by

a) H2S b) CO2 c) CH4 d) NH3

64. The wastewater from a city, containing a high concentration of biodegradable organics, is being
steadily discharged into the flowing river at a location S. If the rate of aeration of water is lower
than the rate of degradation of the organics then the dissolved oxygen of river water.

a) Is lowest at the location S
b) Is lowest at a point upstream of the location S
c) Remains constant all along the length of the river
d) Is lowest at a point downstream of the location S

65. Zero hardness of water is achieved by

a) Lime Soda process b) Excess lime treatment
c) Ion exchange treatment d) Excess alum and lime treatment

66. A quadrantal bearing corresponding to the whole circle bearing 32724 is

a) W 5724 N b) N 3236 W
c) S 14724 N d) N 5724 W

67. The following notes refer to reciprocal levels taken with one level:
Instrument at Staff reading on
P Q
P 1.825 2.745
Q 0.925 1.605
If R.L of P = 126.385, then the true R.L of Q is

a) 125.985 m b) 2.530 m c) 125.585 m d) 2.430 m

68. A series of offsets were taken from a chain link to a curved boundary line at intervals of
15 meters in the following order: 0, 2.65, 3.80, 3.75, 4.65, 3.60, 4.95, 5.85 m. The area
between the chain line, the curved boundary and the end offsets by trapezoidal rule is

a) 394.87 m
2
b) 383.91 m
2
c) 390.25 m
2
d) 379.62 m
2


69. A road embankment 12 m wide at the formation level, with side slopes of 2 to 1 and with an
average height of 5m is constructed with an average quadrant 1 in 50 from contour 200 meters
to 300 meters. The volume of embankment is

a) 55000 m
3
b) 500000 m
3
c) 50000 m
3
d) 550000 m
3


70. The line joining (straight) point of curve to point of tangency is called as

a) Long Chord b) Sub Chord c) Normal Chord d) Tangent distance

Ver-C : CV 6 of 10

33. 71. Irrigation water is usually applied to the fields, when the available moisture in the root zone of
the crop gets depleted by

a) 0-10% b) 10-25% c) 25-40% d) 50-80%

72. “Duty on capacity” also called

a) Outlet duty b) Capacity factor
c) Full supply coefficient d) Quantity duty

73. A fully modular canal outlet has its

a) Sensitivity = 1 and flexibility = 1 b) Sensitivity = 1 and flexibility = 0
c) Sensitivity = 0 and flexibility = 0 d) Sensitivity = 0 and flexibility = 1

74. In a concrete gravity dam, with a sloping upstream face, the resisting force is provided by

a) weight of dam
b) weight of water supported by upstream slope
c) Both a and b
d) None of these

75. The blanket in earth dam is provided

a) at the ground level on U/S side b) at the ground level on D/S side
c) at the ground level of the U/S and D/S d) On the D/S slope

76. An ISMB 400 section with radius of gyration in X-X direction as 161.5 mm and in Y-Y
direction as 28.2 mm is used as a column with both ends fixed. Length of column is 4m. The
slenderness ration in Y-Y direction is

a) 141.84 b) 113.47 c) 92.2 d) 54.6

77. An ISLB 350 is used as a laterally restrained beam for a span of 3m. It is classified as plastic
section. Elastic section modulus is 751.9  10
3
mm
3
and plastic section modulus is
851.1  10
3
mm
3
. The design strength of beam is

a) 212.77 kNm b) 193.43 kNm c) 187.75 kNm d) 170.68 kNm

78. Maximum value of effective slenderness ratio for a member carrying compressive loads
resulting from dead loads and imposed loads is ________

a) 180 b) 250 c) 300 d) 350

79. The axial load on a built up column is 400 kN. The lacing system is to be designed for a
transverse shear of

a) 20 kN b) 40 kN c) 5 kN d) 10 kN

80. In the design of beams in steel structure, which of the following is false?

a) Shear is resisted by flanges b) Moment is resisted by flanges
c) Shear is resisted by web d) Deflection is resisted by moment of inertia

81. The super plasticizers are used as admixture for the following purpose:

a) To decrease the cement content
b) To disperse particles, remove air bubbles and to retard setting
c) To disperse particles only
d) To decrease the setting time
Ver-C : CV 7 of 10

34. 82. As per IS-456-2000, the relationship between flexural strength and characteristic strength of
concrete is

a) fck5.0 b) fck7.0
c) fck12.0 d) fck0.1

83. The most commonly used aggregate for the production of light weight concrete.

a) Gneiss b) Marble
c) Conglomerate d) Pumice

84 The cement concrete from which entrained air and excess water are removed after placing it in
position is called __________

a) Vacuum concrete b) Light weight concrete
c) Prestressed concrete d) Sawdust concrete

85. Schmidt’s Rebound Hammer Technique is used to measure

a) Tensile strength b) Shrinkage limit
c) Thickness of member d) Surface hardness

86. Study the following statements and identify the correct combinations of statements.
1. The relationship between the compressive stress distribution in concrete and the strain in
concrete may be assumed to be rectangle, trapezoid, parabola or any other shape.
2. The maximum strain in concrete at the outmost compression fibre is taken as 0.002 in bending.
3. The tensile strength of concrete only below NA is ignored.
4. The maximum strain in the tension reinforcement in the section at failure shall not be greater
that 002.0E15.1f
sy  .

a) (1) False (2) True (3) True (4) True
b) (1) False (2) False (3) True (4) True
c) (1) False (2) False (3) False (4) False
d) (1) True (2) False (3) False (4) False

87. The values for partial safety factor for loads D.L. and W.L. to check stability against
overturning are ________ and ____________ respectively.

a) 0.9, 1.2 b) 0.9, 1.5
c) 1.2, 1.2 d) 1.5, 1.5

88. A reinforced concrete beam is subjected to following bending moments.
Moment due to dead load = 50 kN-m
Moment due to live load = 50 kN-m
Moment due to seismic load = 20 kN-m
The design bending moment for limit state of collapse is ___ kN-m.

a) 180 b) 150 c) 120 d) 144

89. The maximum area of tension reinforcement in beams shall not exceed ______ %.

a) 2 b) 4 c) 0.15 d) 1.5

90. The diameter of longitudinal bars of a column should never be less than ____ mm.

a) 6 b) 8 c) 10 d) 12

Ver-C : CV 8 of 10

35. 91. Find the vertical and horizontal deflections of the joint G of the truss shown in figure. The
sectional areas of the members are as follows:
Horizontal members : 1500 mm
2
; vertical members : 1800 mm
2
; inclined members : 2500 mm
2
.
Take E = 200 kN/mm
2
.


a) 4.345 mm b) 4.540 mm c) 4.04 mm d) 4.141 mm

92. The cantilever truss shown in figure is subjected to a load system such that the stress in every
compression member is 75 N/mm
2
, while stress in every tension member is 120 N/mm
2
. Find
the horizontal and vertical deflection of the joint E. Take E = 200 kN/mm
2
.


a) 3.850 mm b) 3.375 mm c) 3.105 mm d) 3.950 mm

93. A cantilever of length l is subjected to a couple M0 at a distance l1 from the fixed end. Find the
deflection at the free end.


a) 






2EI
M
110 l
l
l
b) 






1
0
2EI
M
l
ll
c) 





l
ll
2EI
M
110
d) 






2EI
M
110 l
l
ll


94.

A two hinged parabolic arch of span 25 m and rise 25 m carries a uniformly distributed load of
40 kN/m over the left half of the span and concentrated load of 100 kN at the crown. Find the
horizontal thrust at each support.

a) 410.16 kN b) 411.24 kN c) 410.89 kN d) 414 kN

95. A three hinged parabolic arch has a span of 45m and rise of 9m. Two loads each 80 kN roll over
the arch. The loads are 3m apart. Find the maximum horizontal thrust.

a) 188.24 kN b) 184.24 kN c) 186.24 kN d) 182.42 kN

96. The critical depth yc is given by

a)
2
1
2
g
q








b)
3
1
2
g
q








c)
3
2
2
g
q








d)
4
1
2
g
q









Ver-C : CV 9 of 10

36. 97. The closure of valve is said to be rapid when the time of closure ‘tc’ is

a)
v
2
t
c
l
 b)
c
2
t
c
l
 c)
c
2
t
c
l
 d)
c
2
t
c
l


98. In dimensional analysis the Buckingham’s -theorem is widely used and expresses the resulting
equation in terms of

a) The repeating variables
b) Geometric, kinematic and dynamic variables
c) (n – m) dimensionless parameters
d) n dimensionless parameters

99. A series of vanes are mounted on a wheel which turns when a fluid jet impinges onto the vane.
Maximum efficiency will occur when the vane peripheral speed equals ______ the jet velocity.

a) one-third b) one-half c) two-third d) four-fifth

100.The specific speed of a centrifugal pump is given by

a)
4/3
H
QN
b)
4/5
H
PN
c)
4/5
H
QN
d)
4/3
Q
HN



* * * * *


































Ver-C : CV 10 of 10

37. VTU-ETR Seat No.


Visvesvaraya Technological University, Belagavi

Eligibility Test for Research (VTU-ETR) Programmes

Ph.D./M.S. (Research) May – 2024

Civil Engineering

Time: 3 hrs. Max. Marks: 100


INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

1. Ensure that the question paper booklet issued to you is of your opted discipline.
2. If your name, ETR number, OMR No., branch and branch code are not already printed on
the OMR answer sheet, write them in clear handwriting in the space provided.
3. The question paper has 100 multiple choice questions. Each question carries one mark.
4. All the questions are compulsory.
5. Missing data, if any, may be suitably assumed.
6. There shall be no negative marking for wrong answers.
7. The examinees shall select the response which they want to mark/indicate on the response
sheet and shade/darken/blacken completely the inside area of the corresponding checkbox
bubble of circular or oval shape.
8. Candidates should use black ball point pen to shade the checkbox bubble so that it is fully
dark and the computer can detect without fail. Shading should be limited to the checkbox
bubble only.

9. Shading of multiple checkbox bubbles shall be treated as invalid answer.
10. Partial or incomplete shading/darkening of the bubble be avoided.
11. Use of whiteners/correction fluid to change the shaded/filled checkbox bubble to fill another
is prohibited.
12. Erasing of filled checkbox bubble/s to fill another is prohibited.
13. Any type of writing, scribbling etc., on the question paper and ticking the response of a
question/s are prohibited. Violation of this condition shall lead to disciplinary action like
debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet shall not be considered for
evaluation process.

14. Only non-programmable scientific calculator is permitted. Violation of this condition shall
lead to disciplinary action like debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet
shall not be considered for evaluation process.

15. Folding/crushing/mutilating of OMR sheet is not permitted.
16. Handover the OMR sheet to the Room Invigilator while leaving the examination hall.



Question Paper Version : D

39. PART – I


(Research Methodology)
[50 Marks]


1. In the process of conducting research ‘Formulation of Hypothesis’ is followed by
a) Statement of Objectives b) Analysis of Data
c) Selection of Research Tools d) Collection of Data

2. The data of research is _______
a) Qualitative only b) Quantitative only c) Neither of them d) Both a and b

3. _______- test is used to prove hypothesis of smaller sample.
a) t b) f c) z d) P

4. _____ tailed test is used when the researcher’s interest is primarily on one side of the issue.
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

5. ______ is a part of the universe that can be used as respondents to survey.
a) Frame b) Sample c) Hypothesis d) Population

6. _______ Hypothesis states that there is no relationship between two or more variables
a) Null b) Alternative c) Negative Page d) Positive

7. _______ research helps to solve practical problems.
a) Qualitative b) Applied c) Basic d) Descriptive

8. The final stage in a survey is
a) Field work b) Assignment c) Calculation d) Reporting

9.

______ mean refers to the value obtained by dividing the sum of the values of all items by the
total
a) number of items b) Arithmetic c) Geometric d) Harmonic

10. _______ is used to analyse differences between group means and the associated procedures
a) ANOVA b) Chi square c) Z-test d) correlation

11.

A Hypothesis that develops while planning the research is
a) Null Hypothesis b) Working Hypothesis
c) Relational Hypothesis d) Descriptive Hypothesis

12. The fullform of APA is ______
a) American Physical Association b) American Psychological Association
c) American Psychological Amendment d) American Psychological Agreement

13. Questions in which only two alternatives are possible is called
a) Dichotomous questions b) Open-ended questions
c) Structured questions d) MCQs

Ver-D : CV 1 of 10

40. 14. Questionnaire is a
a) Research method b) Measurement technique
c) Tool for data collection d) Data analysis technique

15. Which of the following order is recommended in the flowchart of the research process?
a) Formulate Hypothesis, Sampling Design, Process Data, Identify Research Problem
b) Sampling Design, Process Data, Identify Research Problem, Formulate Hypothesis
c) Formulate Hypothesis, Process Data, Identify Research Problem, Sampling Design
d) Identify Research Problem, Formulate Hypothesis, Sampling Design, Process Data

16. If 0 < r < 1 means there is ______
a) Negative correlation b) Positive correlation
c) No correlation d) All of these

17.

_______ is a process of checking errors and omissions in data collection.
a) Editing b) Coding c) Tabulation d) None of these

18. _______ is the difference between highest and lowest value in a series of data.
a) Median b) Range c) Mode d) None of these

19. If Ho is true and we reject it is called
a) Type-I error b) Type-II error c) Standard error d) None of these

20. Sending a Questionnaire to a respondent with a request to complete and return by post is called
a) Interview b) Observation c) A Mail Survey d) Panel

21. Z test is used to test hypothesis when the sample size is ______
a) more than 30 b) less than 30 c) less than 50 d) none of these

22. The mode of 2, 5, 6, 4, 2, 7, 2, 5 is
a) 5 b) 6 c) 2 d) 7

23. Hypothesis should be ______
a) Any statement b) Empirically testable
c) Not empirically testable d) Can’t say

24. What is the purpose of doing research?
a) To identify problem b) To find the solution
c) Both a and b d) None of these

25. Which ONE of these sampling methods is a probability method?
a) Quota b) Judgment
c) Convenience d) Simple random

26. _______ is the first step of the Research process
a) Formulation of a problem b) Collection of Data
c) Editing and Coding d) Selection of a problem

27. If the critical region is located equally in both sides of the sampling distribution of test statistics,
the test is called
a) One-tailed b) Two-tailed c) Right tailed d) Left tailed


Ver-D : CV 2 of 10

41. 28. The standard deviation is always ______
a) Negative b) Positive c) Sometimes negative d) None of these

29. Mean, Median and Mode are
a) Measures of deviation b) Measures of dispersion
c) Measures of control tendency d) Measures of central tendency

30. A tentative proposition subject to test is
a) Variable b) Hypothesis c) Data d) Concept

31. Quantitative research involves conducting research using the following :
a) Feelings and hidden emotions, expectations b) Facts, Numbers and numerical data
c) Humour and gratitude d) Ethics, Accuracy and discipline

32. Which of the following best describes quantitative research?
a) the collection of non-numerical data
b) an attempt to confirm the researcher’s hypotheses
c) exploratory research
d) research that attempts to generate a new theory

33. Which of the following includes examples of quantitative variables?
a) age, temperature, income, height
b) grade point average, anxiety level, reading performance
c) gender, religion, ethnic group
d) both a and b

34. Quantitative research only works if
a) You talk to the right number of people
b) You talk to the right type of people
c) You ask the right question and analyse the data you get in the right way
d) All of the above

35. An image, perception or concept that is capable of measurement is called _______
a) Scale b) Hypothesis c) Type d) Variable

36. Why do you need to review the existing literature?
a) To make sure you have a long list of references
b) Because without it, you could never reach the required word-count
c) To help in your general studying
d) To find out what is already known about your area of interest

37. To pursue the research, which of the following is priorly required?
a) Developing a research design b) Formulating a research question
c) Deciding about the data analysis procedure d) Formulating a research hypothesis

38. A statement of the quantitative research question should:
a) Extend the statement of purpose by specifying exactly the question (the researcher will
address)
b) Help the research in selecting appropriate participants, research methods, measures and
materials
c) Specify the variables of interest
d) None of the above

Ver-D : CV 3 of 10

42. 39. Concept is of two types
a) Abstract and coherent b) Concrete and coherent
c) Abstract and concrete d) None of these

40. _________ is concerned with discovering and testing certain variables with respect to their
association or disassociation.
a) Exploratory b) Descriptive
c) Diagnostic d) Descriptive and diagnostic

41. Which of the following research is also known as collaborative research?
a) Analytical research b) Applied research
c) Action research d) Descriptive research

42. Cross-sectional surveys are divided into two types, which are?
a) Exploratory and causal b) Functional and Dysfunctional
c) Relational and logical d) Descriptive and analytical

43. What are the main purposes of data analysis?
a) Description b) Construction of Measurement Scale
c) Generating empirical relationships d) Explanation and prediction

44. __________ involve a set of predetermined questions and highly standardized techniques of
recording?
a) Structured interview b) Unstructured interview
c) Interview guided d) All of these

45. Which of the following is a primary step in social science research?
a) Preparing the Research Design b) Developing the Research Hypothesis
c) Formulation of research problem d) Execution of the Project

46. Find an example of probability sampling.
a) Convenience or accidental sampling b) Purposive or judgmental sampling
c) Quota sampling d) Stratified random sampling

47. Which of the following is not a data collection method?
a) Observation b) Schedules
c) Interview d) Research question

48. The term ‘ethno’ refers to
a) Geographical area b) Social life
c) Cultural group d) People or culture

49. Ogives is also known as?
a) Cumulative frequency curves b) Frequency distributions
c) Transcendental Curve d) All of these

50 Which of the following strategies is used to determine how common, widespread, or pervasive a
certain trait, phenomenon, attitude, or opinion is in a demographic population?
a) Cross-sectional descriptive survey b) Factorial survey method
c) Total survey design d) Pooled surveys


Ver-D : CV 4 of 10

43. PART – II
Discipline Oriented Section
(Civil Engineering)

[50 MARKS]


51. Irrigation water is usually applied to the fields, when the available moisture in the root zone of
the crop gets depleted by

a) 0-10% b) 10-25% c) 25-40% d) 50-80%

52. “Duty on capacity” also called

a) Outlet duty b) Capacity factor
c) Full supply coefficient d) Quantity duty

53. A fully modular canal outlet has its

a) Sensitivity = 1 and flexibility = 1 b) Sensitivity = 1 and flexibility = 0
c) Sensitivity = 0 and flexibility = 0 d) Sensitivity = 0 and flexibility = 1

54. In a concrete gravity dam, with a sloping upstream face, the resisting force is provided by

a) weight of dam
b) weight of water supported by upstream slope
c) Both a and b
d) None of these

55. The blanket in earth dam is provided

a) at the ground level on U/S side b) at the ground level on D/S side
c) at the ground level of the U/S and D/S d) On the D/S slope

56. An ISMB 400 section with radius of gyration in X-X direction as 161.5 mm and in Y-Y
direction as 28.2 mm is used as a column with both ends fixed. Length of column is 4m. The
slenderness ration in Y-Y direction is

a) 141.84 b) 113.47 c) 92.2 d) 54.6

57. An ISLB 350 is used as a laterally restrained beam for a span of 3m. It is classified as plastic
section. Elastic section modulus is 751.9  10
3
mm
3
and plastic section modulus is
851.1  10
3
mm
3
. The design strength of beam is

a) 212.77 kNm b) 193.43 kNm
c) 187.75 kNm d) 170.68 kNm

58. Maximum value of effective slenderness ratio for a member carrying compressive loads
resulting from dead loads and imposed loads is ________

a) 180 b) 250 c) 300 d) 350

59. The axial load on a built up column is 400 kN. The lacing system is to be designed for a
transverse shear of

a) 20 kN b) 40 kN c) 5 kN d) 10 kN


Ver-D : CV 5 of 10

44. 60. In the design of beams in steel structure, which of the following is false?

a) Shear is resisted by flanges
b) Moment is resisted by flanges
c) Shear is resisted by web
d) Deflection is resisted by moment of inertia

61. Find the vertical and horizontal deflections of the joint G of the truss shown in figure. The
sectional areas of the members are as follows:
Horizontal members : 1500 mm
2
; vertical members : 1800 mm
2
; inclined members : 2500 mm
2
.
Take E = 200 kN/mm
2
.


a) 4.345 mm b) 4.540 mm c) 4.04 mm d) 4.141 mm

62. The cantilever truss shown in figure is subjected to a load system such that the stress in every
compression member is 75 N/mm
2
, while stress in every tension member is 120 N/mm
2
. Find
the horizontal and vertical deflection of the joint E. Take E = 200 kN/mm
2
.


a) 3.850 mm b) 3.375 mm c) 3.105 mm d) 3.950 mm

63. A cantilever of length l is subjected to a couple M0 at a distance l1 from the fixed end. Find the
deflection at the free end.


a) 






2EI
M
110 l
l
l
b) 






1
0
2EI
M
l
ll
c) 





l
ll
2EI
M
110
d) 






2EI
M
110 l
l
ll


64. A two hinged parabolic arch of span 25 m and rise 25 m carries a uniformly distributed load of
40 kN/m over the left half of the span and concentrated load of 100 kN at the crown. Find the
horizontal thrust at each support.

a) 410.16 kN b) 411.24 kN c) 410.89 kN d) 414 kN


Ver-D : CV 6 of 10

45. 65. A three hinged parabolic arch has a span of 45m and rise of 9m. Two loads each 80 kN roll over
the arch. The loads are 3m apart. Find the maximum horizontal thrust.

a) 188.24 kN b) 184.24 kN c) 186.24 kN d) 182.42 kN

66. The critical depth yc is given by

a)
2
1
2
g
q








b)
3
1
2
g
q








c)
3
2
2
g
q








d)
4
1
2
g
q










67. The closure of valve is said to be rapid when the time of closure ‘tc’ is

a)
v
2
t
c
l
 b)
c
2
t
c
l
 c)
c
2
t
c
l
 d)
c
2
t
c
l


68. In dimensional analysis the Buckingham’s -theorem is widely used and expresses the resulting
equation in terms of

a) The repeating variables
b) Geometric, kinematic and dynamic variables
c) (n – m) dimensionless parameters
d) n dimensionless parameters

69. A series of vanes are mounted on a wheel which turns when a fluid jet impinges onto the vane.
Maximum efficiency will occur when the vane peripheral speed equals ______ the jet velocity.

a) one-third b) one-half c) two-third d) four-fifth

70. The specific speed of a centrifugal pump is given by

a)
4/3
H
QN
b)
4/5
H
PN
c)
4/5
H
QN
d)
4/3
Q
HN


71. A water treatment plant is designed to treat 1 m
3
/s of raw water. It has 14 sand fillers. Surface
area of each filter is 50 m
2
. What is the loading rate in (m
3
/daym
2
) with two filters out of service
for routine backwashing?

a) 1.67  10
-3
m
3
/day/m
2
b) 1.42  10
-3
m
3
/day/m
2

c) 144 m
3
/day/m
2
d) 123 m
3
/day/m
2


72. A circular primary clarifier processes an average flow 5005 m
3
/d of municipal wastewater. The
overflow rate is 35 m
3
/m
2
day. The diameter of clarifier shall be

a) 10.5 m b) 11.5 m c) 12.5 m d) 13.5 m

73. Crown corrosion in a reinforced concrete sewer is caused by

a) H2S b) CO2 c) CH4 d) NH3

74. The wastewater from a city, containing a high concentration of biodegradable organics, is being
steadily discharged into the flowing river at a location S. If the rate of aeration of water is lower
than the rate of degradation of the organics then the dissolved oxygen of river water.

a) Is lowest at the location S
b) Is lowest at a point upstream of the location S
c) Remains constant all along the length of the river
d) Is lowest at a point downstream of the location S

Ver-D : CV 7 of 10

46. 75. Zero hardness of water is achieved by

a) Lime Soda process b) Excess lime treatment
c) Ion exchange treatment d) Excess alum and lime treatment

76. A quadrantal bearing corresponding to the whole circle bearing 32724 is

a) W 5724 N b) N 3236 W
c) S 14724 N d) N 5724 W

77. The following notes refer to reciprocal levels taken with one level:
Instrument at Staff reading on
P Q
P 1.825 2.745
Q 0.925 1.605
If R.L of P = 126.385, then the true R.L of Q is

a) 125.985 m b) 2.530 m c) 125.585 m d) 2.430 m

78. A series of offsets were taken from a chain link to a curved boundary line at intervals of
15 meters in the following order: 0, 2.65, 3.80, 3.75, 4.65, 3.60, 4.95, 5.85 m. The area
between the chain line, the curved boundary and the end offsets by trapezoidal rule is

a) 394.87 m
2
b) 383.91 m
2
c) 390.25 m
2
d) 379.62 m
2


79. A road embankment 12 m wide at the formation level, with side slopes of 2 to 1 and with an
average height of 5m is constructed with an average quadrant 1 in 50 from contour 200 meters
to 300 meters. The volume of embankment is

a) 55000 m
3
b) 500000 m
3
c) 50000 m
3
d) 550000 m
3


80. The line joining (straight) point of curve to point of tangency is called as

a) Long Chord b) Sub Chord
c) Normal Chord d) Tangent distance

81. A fine-grained soil has liquid limit 60% and plastic limit 20%. As per Indian standard plasticity
chart, the soil can be represented by symbol

a) CL b) CH c) CL-ML d) CI

82. Quick sand condition occurs when

a) Voids ratio of soil becomes equal to 1.0
b) Upward seepage pressure becomes zero
c) Upward seepage pressure becomes equal to submerged unit weight of soil
d) Upward seepage pressure becomes equal to saturated unit weight of soil

83. A tracer takes 100 days to travel from Well-1 to Well-2 which are 100 m apart. The elevation of
water surface in Well-2 is 3m below that in Well-1. Assuming porosity = 15%, the coefficient
of permeability in m/day is

a) 1.00 b) 3.00 c) 4.00 d) 5.00

84 In compaction of soils, the force responsible for withholding soil particles resulting in lower
density of compaction at lower water content is

a) Vander Waals force b) Electric force
c) Cationic force d) Hydrogen bond
Ver-D : CV 8 of 10

47. 85. Which of the following can be considered as quick clay?

a) Sensitivity = 0 b) Sensitivity = 1
c) Sensitivity = 100 d) Sensitivity = 

86. The improper alignment of road will not result in __________.

a) Increase in construction cost b) Increase in maintenance cost
c) Increase in population d) Increase in accidents

87. Which of the following types of roads are most preferred for highways?

a) Cement concrete roads b) Gravel roads
c) Unpaved roads d) Bituminous roads

88. The most raised portion of the pavement is called ________

a) Super elevation b) Camber
c) Crown d) None of these

89. For a good pavement surface, unevenness index should not be greater than _________.

a) 50 cm/km b) 150 cm/km
c) 200 cm/km d) 250 cm/km

90. During an aggregate combined index test, one should perform __________

a) Elongation index + Flakiness index
b) Flakiness index + Elongation index
c) Angularity number
d) None of these

91. The super plasticizers are used as admixture for the following purpose:

a) To decrease the cement content
b) To disperse particles, remove air bubbles and to retard setting
c) To disperse particles only
d) To decrease the setting time

92. As per IS-456-2000, the relationship between flexural strength and characteristic strength of
concrete is

a) fck5.0 b) fck7.0
c) fck12.0 d) fck0.1

93. The most commonly used aggregate for the production of light weight concrete.

a) Gneiss b) Marble c) Conglomerate d) Pumice

94.

The cement concrete from which entrained air and excess water are removed after placing it in
position is called __________

a) Vacuum concrete b) Light weight concrete
c) Prestressed concrete d) Sawdust concrete

95. Schmidt’s Rebound Hammer Technique is used to measure

a) Tensile strength b) Shrinkage limit
c) Thickness of member d) Surface hardness

Ver-D : CV 9 of 10

48. 96. Study the following statements and identify the correct combinations of statements.
1. The relationship between the compressive stress distribution in concrete and the strain in
concrete may be assumed to be rectangle, trapezoid, parabola or any other shape.
2. The maximum strain in concrete at the outmost compression fibre is taken as 0.002 in bending.
3. The tensile strength of concrete only below NA is ignored.
4. The maximum strain in the tension reinforcement in the section at failure shall not be greater
that 002.0E15.1f
sy  .

a) (1) False (2) True (3) True (4) True
b) (1) False (2) False (3) True (4) True
c) (1) False (2) False (3) False (4) False
d) (1) True (2) False (3) False (4) False

97. The values for partial safety factor for loads D.L. and W.L. to check stability against
overturning are ________ and ____________ respectively.

a) 0.9, 1.2 b) 0.9, 1.5 c) 1.2, 1.2 d) 1.5, 1.5

98. A reinforced concrete beam is subjected to following bending moments.
Moment due to dead load = 50 kN-m
Moment due to live load = 50 kN-m
Moment due to seismic load = 20 kN-m
The design bending moment for limit state of collapse is ___ kN-m.

a) 180 b) 150 c) 120 d) 144

99. The maximum area of tension reinforcement in beams shall not exceed ______ %.

a) 2 b) 4 c) 0.15 d) 1.5

100.The diameter of longitudinal bars of a column should never be less than ____ mm.

a) 6 b) 8 c) 10 d) 12


* * * * *























Ver-D : CV 10 of 10